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WorksheetsBio 5A Final Review
Total questions: 92
Worksheet time: 2hrs 44mins
Light is absorbed by which part(s) of the thylakoid?
Photosystem I
Photosystem II
Both PS I & PS II
None of the above
What product from the light reaction is in its oxidized form?
H2O
O2
CO2
Sugar
Which of the following is not consumed by the dark reactions?
NADPH
ATP
CO2
H2O
What is the primary electron acceptor in photosynthesis?
O2
Pheophytin
H2O
All of the following occur in the Calvin Cycle, except:
The product that leaves the cycle is a 3-carbon sugar precursor.
Energy from ATP hydrolysis is used to regenerate the carbon acceptor RuBP.
RuBisCO joins CO2 to a 5-carbon molecule.
NADP+ is reduced to form NADPH as new bonds are made.
Energy from ATP hydrolysis is used in the reduction phase.
What becomes oxidized in cellular respiration?
Glucose (C6H12O6)
O2
H2O
CO2
Where and in which step is FADH2 produced?
Matrix
TCA Cycle (Krebs Cycle)
Intermembrance Space
Oxidative Phosphorylation
The ________ has the highest concentration of H+ in the mitochondria.
Cytoplasm
Matrix
Intermembrance Space
Inner membrane
What is NOT a product of TCA for one glucose molecule?
6NADH
5H+
2FADH2
2ATP
4CO2
What is NOT a products after TCA if we started with ONLY ONE pyruvate molecule?
3CO2,
1 CoA,
4 NADH,
ATP
2FADH2
T or F: An enzyme that catalyzes a reaction changes the free energy of a product
True
False
T or F: Enzymes are used up in a reaction
True
False
An enzyme would make which number smaller?
1
2
3
What is feedback inhibition?
the product of a reaction is used to
regulate an enzymes activity
inhibitors compete with substrates to bind to the enzyme at the same time.
inhibitors binds to a different site on the enzyme than the substrate, & at the same time as the enzyme's substrate. Binding to an allosteric site changes the conformation of the enzyme so that the affinity of the substrate for the active site is reduced, and vice-versa.
inhibitors bind to the other sites (Allosteric Sites), not the active site, and stops the enzyme's activity by changing the shape of the active site
If an inhibitor binds to a region other than the active site, this is known as ________ inhibition.
feedback
competitive
noncompetitive/allosteric
uncompetitive
If we broke down a polymer, is entropy increased or decreased?
increased
decreased
If we broke down a polymer, is it an endergonic or exergonic reaction? (Hint: In biology, what does the world like/favor?)
endergonic
exergonic
If a reaction absorbs free energy from its surroundings, is it endergonic or exergonic?
endergonic
exergonic
What is the difference between exothermic and exergonic?
exothermic- release of heat
energy (ΔH)
exergonic- release in heat
energy (ΔH)
exothermic- release of free
energy (ΔG)
exergonic- release in free
energy (ΔG)
What is energy coupling? What is energy coupling in chemiosmosis?
chemical reaction with a common intermediate in which energy is transferred from one side of the reaction to the other.
Combining endergonic reactions (non-spontaneous) with exergonic (spontaneous) ones so the overall reaction is exergonic (spontaneous).
Chemiosmosis turns stored energy into mechanical & transport work.
Chemiosmosis turns mechanical & transport work into stored energy. (H+ goes down its gradient into ATP Synthase and turns the rotor which provides energy to convert ADP + Pi -> ATP)
What becomes reduced in cellular respiration?
CO2
O2
H2O
Glucose (C6H12O6)
Approximately how much ATP is made during oxidative phosphorylation? (How do we get to the total ATP after completing cellular respiration?)
26-28 ATP (oxidative); 2 ATP from glycolysis, 2 ATP from TCA
30-32 ATP (oxidative); 2 ATP from glycolysis, 2 ATP from TCA
T or F: Glycolysis produces 2ATP through oxidative phosphorylation
True
False
T or F: Most ATP is made through substrate level phosphorylation
True
False
What is the difference between substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation?
Substrate level- (indirect) production of ATP from the oxidizing the e- carriers (NADH & FADH2) and the subsequent transfer of e- & pumping of H+. That process generates an electrochemical gradient, which is required to power the ATP synthase.
Substrate level- (direct) phosphorylation of ADP with a phosphate group to make ATP by using the energy obtained from a coupled reaction; metabolic reaction that results in the formation of ATP by the direct transfer of a Pi to ADP from another phosphorylated compound.
Oxidative phosphorylation- (indirect) production of ATP from the oxidizing the e- carriers (NADH & FADH2) and the subsequent transfer of e- & pumping of H+. That process generates an electrochemical gradient, which is required to power the ATP synthase.
Oxidative phosphorylation- (direct) phosphorylation of ADP with a phosphate group to make ATP by using the energy obtained from a coupled reaction; metabolic reaction that results in the formation of ATP by the direct transfer of a Pi to ADP from another phosphorylated compound.
Why are males more often affected by sex-linked traits than females?
Male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
Female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
Males only have one X chromosome.
All of the above are correct.
In Mendel’s monohybrid crosses, plants that were true breeding for white flowers were crossed with plants that were true breeding for purple flowers. The F1 plants can make two gamete types in a 1:1 ratio. We know this because:
Homologous chromosomes segregate into gametes in meiosis.
Mendelʹs Law of Independent Assortment predicts this result.
Crossing over occurs between these alleles guaranteeing a 1:1 ratio.
The genes being studied in a monohybrid cross are unlinked.
One allele is dominant, and the other allele is recessive.
Red-green colorblindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive mutation. A colorblind man marries a woman whose father was colorblind, although her own vision is normal. The man and woman are expecting a child. If the child is a girl, what is the probability that she will be colorblind?
There is an extremely low probability that the offspring will be
colorblind (near zero).
The probability is 25%
The probability is 50%
The probability is 100%
The probability cannot be calculated
without more information
Which of the following statements is correct about monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?
A monohybrid cross involves one crossing over event, whereas a dihybrid cross requires two such events.
A monohybrid cross involves a single parent that is ‘selfed’, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations.
A monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for only one character being studied and a dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters that are being studied.
A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio, whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.
What is the difference between Mendels' Law of Segregation & Law of Independent Assortment?
Law of Independent Assortment: alleles for one gene assort independently of the alleles of the other gene. (alleles for gene A: a or A; alleles for gene B: b or B) They can make many various combinations b/c each allele of ONE gene assorts independently of each allele of ANOTHER gene. (Ex. AB, Ab, aB, ab)
Law of Independent Assortment: during the formation of gametes, individual alleles (b or B) of ONE gene are segregated – they are put into, or assorted, into separate gametes. (Ex. Gamete 1 will have allele b and Gamete 2 will have allele B)
Law of Segregation: during the formation of gametes, individual alleles (b or B) of ONE gene are segregated – they are put into, or assorted, into separate gametes. (Ex. Gamete 1 will have allele b and Gamete 2 will have allele B)
Law of Segregation: alleles for one gene assort independently of the alleles of the other gene. (alleles for gene A: a or A; alleles for gene B: b or B) They can make many various combinations b/c each allele of ONE gene assorts independently of each allele of ANOTHER gene. (Ex. AB, Ab, aB, ab)
What specific phase in the cell cycle does DNA get replicated?
Interphase (S phase)
Interphase (G1 & G2 phases)
Prophase
Anaphase
Telophase
Where does mitosis occur in humans?
somatic (body) cells
sex (germline) cells
What occurs during interphase of the cell cycle?
The nuclear envelope breaks down
The centromeres split
The chromosomes are moved to the metaphase plate
The chromosomes can crossover and exchange alleles
All of the above are incorrect
What is the initial state and the final result of mitosis in a human?
A 2n somatic cell divides into two genetically identical 1n somatic cells
A 1n somatic cell divides into two genetically identical 1n somatic cells
A 1n somatic cell replicates its DNA to form a 2n somatic cell
A 2n somatic cell divides into two genetically identical 2n somatic cells
All of the above are incorrect
In a diploid cell with 12 chromosome pairs (2n = 24), how many centromeres will be found in a nucleus at G2 of the cell division cycle (right before mitosis begins)?
6
12
23
24
48
Accurately identify what is occurring in the diploid,
2n cells in the three pictures.
(Top)= a cell just after DNA replication; (Middle)= Metaphase II of meiosis; (Bottom)= metaphase I of meiosis.
(Top)= a cell just after DNA replication; (Middle)= Metaphase of mitosis; (Bottom)= metaphase I of meiosis.
(Top)= a cell prior to DNA replication; (Middle)= Metaphase of mitosis; (Bottom)= metaphase I of meiosis.
(Top)= a cell just prior to DNA replication; (Middle)= Metaphase I of meiosis; (Bottom)= metaphase of mitosis.
None above answers is correct.
Where does meiosis occur in humans?
somatic (body) cells
sex (germline) cells
What does meiosis produce?
4 identical daughter cells
4 gametes (haploid)
4 gametes (diploid)
2 identical daughter cells
All of the following statements are correct about meiosis, except:
Spindles attach to whole chromosomes only during Metaphase I, not in Metaphase II.
The first meiotic division reduces the chromosome number from 2n to n.
Products of meiosis can differentiate into germ cells (sperm or oocytes).
"S phase" occurs only one time, but there are two cell divisions.
All of the above are true.
If a cell has completed meiosis I and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?
It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell
It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
It has the same amount of DNA but one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell.
It is identical in DNA content to another cell formed from the same meiosis I event.
The cell is about to undergo recombination
How many chromosomes are inside of a single human sperm cell? Single egg cell?
46 chromosomes
23 chromosomes
12 chromosomes
48 chromosomes
What is a chromatid & bivalent?
Chromatids: part of one same c'some attached at a centromere
Chromatids: 2 different, unattached c'somes
Bivalents (aka tetrad): a pair of non-homologous c'somes
Bivalents (aka tetrad): a pair of homologous c'somes
Fill in the blanks in order.
Prophase I of meiosis involves an intimate association of the ___ through a pairing process called synapsis. During this process, in which there is ____, a reciprocal exchange event called ___ occurs.
sister chromatids, synapsis, recombination
two strains of DNA with RNA, RNA transcription, helicase unwinding
DNA and RNA, RNA transcription, Transcriptional regulation
sister chromatids, sister chromatid pairing, bivalent exchange
None of the above is correct
DNA replication results in one molecule that consists of both original DNA strands (identical to the original DNA molecule) and another molecule that consists of two new strands (with exactly the same sequences as the original molecule). What type of DNA replication does this describe?
Conservative
Semi-conservative
Dispersive
New DNA consists of alternating parent and daughter DNA. What type of DNA replication does this describe?
Conservative
Semi-conservative
Dispersive
DNA replication that produces two copies that each contain one of the original strands and one new strand. What type of DNA replication does this describe?
Conservative
Semi-conservative
Dispersive
During replication of DNA at a replication fork:
Okazaki fragments are found on the leading strand.
DNA ligase works mostly on the leading strand.
Primases work mostly on the leading strand.
DNA is synthesized in the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction on the lagging strand.
All of the above are true.
What are requirements for DNA polymerase to function?
a template
dNTPs (deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates)
rNTPs (ribonucleoside triphosphates)
free 3' OH
What are requirements for RNA polymerase to function?
A template
dNTPs (deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates)
rNTPs (ribonucleoside triphosphates)
free 3' OH
Which of the following statements DOES NOT accurately describe a requirement for the proper functioning of DNA polymerase during DNA replication?
DNA polymerase requires that polymerization only occurs in the 3’ to 5’ direction, thus adding to the 3’ OH group.
DNA polymerase requires a DNA template molecule upon which to initiate polymerization.
DNA polymerase requires that the template has a double stranded region with a free 3’ OH end.
DNA polymerase requires deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) as the building blocks of a new DNA strand.
DNA polymerase requires that the DNA template is rendered single stranded, usually by helicase.
Can the single strand of DNA 5’-GATTCC-3’ pair with the molecule 5’-CTAAGG-3’? If not, what is the correct molecule that CAN pair w/ the single DNA strand?
Yes
No; 5'-GGAATC-3'
No; 3'-GGAATC-5'
The initiation complex for translation includes mRNA and which of the following?
Small and large subunits of the ribosome and a charged tRNA
small ribosomal subunit and a tRNA with any attached amino acid present in the P site
small ribosomal subunit and a tRNA with attached Methionine
ribosome, tRNA with attached lysine present, and tRNA with any attached amino acid present in E site
small ribosomal subunit, tRNA with attached lysine in P site, and tRNA with any attached amino acid in E site.
What does it mean to say that a tRNA has become ‘charged’?
An amino acid has been attached.
tRNAs become charged exiting the E site of the ribosome.
The isoelectric state of the tRNA has become altered towards positive or negative.
Only some tRNAs are charged. This depends on which amino acid the tRNA codes for.
A tRNA is charged when it attaches to the mRNA transcript.
What is the global distribution of the HbS allele (that causes sickle cell anemia)?
The allele is only common where the pathogen Plasmodium falciparum (that causes Malaria) is also common.
The allele has been eradicated from most of the world, but is still transmitted by mosquitoes in Africa.
The allele is common globally, except for the Sahara region of Africa.
The allele is common everywhere where cystic fibrosis is still common (most of Africa).
The allele is common in Africa, and other areas of the globe with poor health care options
What is the quaternary structure of hemoglobin?
Hemoglobin consists of four polypeptide subunits that bind together.
Hemoglobin consists of eight heme groups that carry oxygen.
The quarternary structure of hemoglobin only occurs in mutants that have sickle cell anemia.
The quaternary structure of hemoglobin is caused by DNA-DNA bonds.
All of the above are true.
One of the several alleles of the hemoglobin β gene alters the conformation of the hemoglobin β protein so that it forms long fibers (shown at the right). What is the main effect of this protein alteration?
The hemoglobin β fibers can cause decreased liver function.
The altered hemoglobin causes problems with the capacity of red blood cells to flow through capillaries.
The rare allele enhances resistance to the blood borne disease malaria.
The fibers alter the oxygen carrying capacity of the hemoglobin molecule.
All of these answers are correct.
Plasmids are:
circular RNAs that regulate cellular processes
molecules needed to cut DNA
bacterial organelles
enzymes that insert DNA into a genome
bacterial DNA molecules that are useful tools for cloning
What are the important differences between mammalian and plant cloning?
Plant cloning was first performed decades ago, but mammalian cloning has only occurred since the 1990s.
Plant cells tend to differentiate into specialized cell types that are not totipotent. This is only rarely true in mammals.
Plant cloning requires the use of embryonic tissue, but mammalian cloning does not.
Plant cloning can only occur through the use of cuttings, whereas mammalian cloning can occur using tissues or single cells.
All of the above are incorrect.
Which of the following processes helps bacterial cells protect their own DNA from restriction enzymes (endonucleases)?
using RNA polymerase to generate new transcripts
adding methyl groups to certain bases
using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme (endonuclease) from attaching
using DNA polymerase to generate new DNA sequences
Which correctly shows a "hydrogen bond" as defined in class?
v only.
i, ii, iii.
iv only.
i and ii.
i only
A scientist is working with a pure organic compound that is a liquid at room temperature. The molecular structure is shown below. What kinds of isomers could exist for this molecule?
enantiomers and cis-trans isomers only.
cis-trans and structural only.
cis-trans, structural and enantiomers.
structural only.
cis-trans only.
Starch and cellulose:
are formed by hydrolysis of monosaccharides.
differ in the number of carbons in their monomers.
differ in the number of -OH groups present in each monomer.
can form long parallel strands that are stabilized by hydrogen bonds.
are both polymers of glucose joined by covalent bonds.
A U-shaped tube has a semi-permeable membrane between the two halves. The membrane is permeable to water (only). At the beginning of an experiment, the solution on side 'X' consists of 50mL of 0.3M glucose, while the solution on side 'Y' consists of 50 mL of 0.15M MgCl2 . (Assume that all solutes become completely dissolved.) After the system reaches equilibrium, the water level is:
higher on side X.
the same on both sides.
higher on side Y
Which of the following molecules are structural isomers of each other?
i, iii
i, ii
iii, iv
ii, iii, iv
i, ii, iii
The molecule shown in the figure to the right is a(n):
polysaccharide.
unsaturated fatty acid.
triacylglycerol.
saturated fatty acid.
aldehyde.
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the chemical reaction illustrated in the figure to the right?
It joins two fatty acids together.
It results in a peptide bond.
It is a hydrolysis reaction.
A and C
B and C
The side chain of the amino acid alanine is a methyl group. Which of these shows a correct structure of a dipeptide consisting of two alanines?
A
B
C
D
E
Shown here is a dipeptide consisting of two amino acids. How many asymmetric carbons are there?
4
2
3
More than 4
1
A saturated fatty acid will not dissolve in water because:
A strong network of hydrogen bonds occurs among fatty acid molecules.
Most bonds between the atoms involve equal sharing of electrons.
Saturated fatty acids are highly likely to be solid at room temperature.
The lack of double bonds prevents interaction of the carbon atoms with water.
There are no polar functional groups present in a fatty acid.
A correct match between the macromolecule and the type of covalent bond between monomers is:
triglyceride; phosphodiester.
nucleotide; peptide
sugar; glycosidic.
lipid; van der Waals
amino acid; ionic.
In the linear form of every monosaccharide:
Double bonds are found between some carbon atoms (in plants only).
Every carbon atom is covalently bonded to one oxygen atom.
The first (or last) carbon atom is double-bonded to an oxygen atom.
The chemical formula differs from Cn(H2O)n compared to the ring form.
All of the above are correct.
A single-stranded RNA molecule of sequence 5'-AAAAAAA-3' is treated with an enzyme that hydrolyzes the bonds between the adenines and the sugar groups. What is left?
Free sugars and phosphates, with all the adenines joined in a chain.
Free adenines, and an intact chain of sugars and phosphates.
Free sugars, and adenines joined to phosphates.
Free phosphates, sugars and adenines.
The molecule would still be intact.
During the hydrogenation of fats that are isolated from plants:
The fats will end up with a lower molecular mass.
C-C single bonds are converted to C=C double bonds.
The hydrocarbon chains will become less hydrophobic.
The fatty acid tails will become more kinked.
Unhealthy trans fats can be made as a byproduct.
The human digestive enzyme pepsin is most active a pH 2 and a temperature between 37°C and 42°C. It does not work outside of these conditions because ____ structure become(s) affected.
2°
1°
2° and 3°
1°, 2° and 3°
3°
A DNA strand is properly base paired with an RNA strand. If the DNA is 5'-ATGGAC-3', the RNA is:
5'-GUCCAU-3'
3'-GTCCAT-5'
5'-AUGGAC-3'
5'-UACCUG-3'
5'-CAGGUA-3'
An amino acid with side chain -CH2 -CH2 -CH2 -CH2 -NH2 is classified as:
Acidic.
Nonpolar
Basic
Polar
None of these
The following graph correctly relates membrane fluidity (F) with temperature (T), in the absence (―) and presence ( ....) of cholesterol in the membrane:
A
B
C
D
E
Small particles and liquids are taken into cells by:
Plasmolysis.
Phagocytosis
Autophagy
Pinocytosis
Exocytosis
Which is correct about gene expression in prokaryotes and/or eukaryotes?
In eukaryotes, transcription and translation are coupled in the nucleus.
In eukaryotes, translation is nuclear, and transcription is cytoplasmic.
Prokaryotes require transcription and translation to occur separately.
Transcription and translation can occur together in a prokaryote cell.
Transcription and translation both occur in the cytoplasm of eukaryotes.
A "cell" enclosed in a semi-permeable membrane is placed in a beaker. The membrane is permeable to only water. The cell (Y) contains 0.05 M aluminum chloride (AlCl3 ), while the solution in the beaker (X) consists of 0.2 M sodium chloride (NaCl). Assume both solutes are completely dissolved. Over time, the cell will:
Shrink.
Stay the same size
Expand
10g of a water-soluble dye are added to one side of a tank of water containing a membrane that is permeable to both the dye and water. After several hours, the dye is present in equal amounts on both sides A and B. The process that causes this to occur can be called _____ and at equilibrium, the dye molecules _____ moving across the membrane.
active transport; continue
passive transport; stop
osmosis; stop
facilitated diffusion; stop
diffusion; continue
Which of the following correctly follows the synthesis of insulin in pancreatic islet cells (not all steps are shown)?
insulin gene -> translation in Golgi apparatus -> vesicles -> bloodstream
messenger RNA -> rough ER -> Golgi apparatus -> vesicles
glucose -> dehydration by enzyme -> lysosomes -> bloodstream
transcription -> smooth ER -> vesicles -> Golgi apparatus
glycogen -> hydrolysis by enzymes -> vesicles -> bloodstream
When a linear (straight) polymer of 16 building blocks is hydrolyzed into monomers, ___ molecules of water are ___:
14; generated
16; consumed
15; generated
15; consumed
16; generated
The molecule shown is best described as a(n):
fatty acid.
aldehyde
alcohol
ketone
sugar
In starch, monomers are connected by ___ bonds:
(i) peptide (ii) covalent (iii) glycosidic
iii only
ii, iii
i, ii
i, iii
i only
A small RNA molecule consists of two guanine nucleotides. What is the molecular structure of this RNA molecule? (R = ribose, P = phosphate, G = guanine) A
A
B
C
D
E
Red blood cells (RBCs) are surrounded by a water-permeable membrane. They have an internal concentration of solute of 300 mM. When the RBCs are placed in a 150 mM NaCl solution, they will:
Take in a lot of water and burst, i.e. their cell membranes will break.
Lose water and shrink, and no more water will move into the cells.
Stay the same size, but water does not move in and out of the cells.
Stay the same size, while water keeps moving in and out of the cells.
Take in a lot of water, but only increase in size slightly (not burst).
A trisaccharide consisting of three monomers of ribulose (C5H10O5) has the chemical formula:
C15H24O12
C15H28O14
C15H26O13
C15H22O11
C15H30O15
The hypothetical protein whose structure is shown below has:
all hydrophobic side chains.
tertiary structure.
an alpha-helix
quaternary structure.
all acidic side chains.
Protein 1 is a single chain that is stabilized by a disulfide bridge. To produce protein 2, an enzyme uses hydrolysis to break the backbone between two amino acids of protein 1. Compared with protein 1, protein 2 has:
one more amino acid
one less amino acid
a lower molecular weight
additional C and N atoms
quaternary structure
A protein (shaded) is normally found partially inside the cell membrane. How would the amino acids compare between regions 1 and 2 as shown in the diagram?
Region 2 has more polar side chains than region 1.
Region 2 has more hydrophobic side chains than region
Both regions have mostly hydrophobic side chains.
Region 1 has mostly basic side chains, while region 2 is mostly acidic.
Both regions have mostly hydrophilic side chains.
Which of the following would pass easily through a lipid bilayer?
Mg++
H2O
glucose
O2
None of these.
