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Mrs. Webb semester 2 exam BIO

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process by which a cell divides into 2 daughter cells is called

a)

cell division

b)

metaphase

c)

interphase

d)

mitosis

2.

which of the following happens when a cell divides

a)

The cells volume increases

b)

It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients

c)

The cell has DNA overload

d)

Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent's cell

3.

When during the cycle are chromosomes visible

a)

only during interphase

b)

only when they are being replicated

c)

only during cell division

d)

only during the G1 phase

4.

Which of the following is a phase in teh cell cycle

a)

G1 phase

b)

G2 phase

c)

S phase

d)

M phase

5.

Which pair is correct

a)

G1, DNA replication

b)

G2, preparation for mitosis

c)

S, cell division

d)

M, cell growth

6.

When during the cell cycle is the cell's DNA replicated

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S

d)

M

7.

Cell division is represented in the figure by the letter

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

8.

The structure labbled A in the figure is called the

a)

centromere

b)

centrioles

c)

sister chromatid

d)

spindle

9.

The structures labeled B in the figure are called

a)

centromeres

b)

centrioles

c)

sister chromatids

d)

spindles

10.

During what phase of mitosis are structures like the one shown in the figure visible

a)

anaphase,prophase

b)

prophase,metaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase,interphase

11.

The first phase of Mitosis is

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

interphase

12.

One difference between cell division is plant cells and in animal cells is that plant cells have

a)

centrioles

b)

centromeres

c)

cell plate

d)

chromatin

13.

Cancer is a disorder which some cells lose the ability to control

a)

size

b)

spindle fibers

c)

growth rate

d)

surface area

14.

Cancer cells form masses called

a)

tumors

b)

cyclins

c)

growth factors

d)

p53

15.

Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study

a)

flowering

b)

gamete formation

c)

the inheritance of traits

d)

cross-pollination

16.

The chemical factors that determine traits are called

a)

allels

b)

traits

c)

genes

d)

characters

17.

When the tall pea plant was crossed with a short pea plant the F1 inherited

a)

an allele for tallness

b)

an allele for tallness and allele for shortness

c)

an allele for shortness

d)

an allele only from the tall plant

18.

The principle of dominance states that

a)

all alleles are dominate

b)

all alleles are recessive

c)

some alleles are dominate and others are recessive

d)

alleles are neither dominate or recessive

19.

A tall plant is crossed with a short plant. If the tall F1 pea plants are allowed to self-pollinate

a)

the offspring will be at medium height

b)

all of the offspring will be tall

c)

all of the offspring will be short

d)

some of the offspring will be tall, and some will be short

20.

when you flip a coin, what is the probability that it will come up as tails

a)

1/2

b)

1/4

c)

1/8

d)

1

21.

the principles of a probability can be used to

a)

predict the traits of the offspring produced by genetics crosses

b)

determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses

c)

predict the traits of the parents used in the genetic crosses

d)

Decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses

22.

In the P generation, a tall plantr is crossed with a short plant. The probability that the F2 plant will be tall is

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

23.

In the punnet square which of the following are is true about the offspring resulting from the cross

a)

about half are expected to be short

b)

all are ecpected to be short

c)

about half are expected to be tall

d)

all are expected to be tall

24.

what principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each others inheritance

a)

a principle of dominance

b)

principle of independent assortment

c)

principle of probabilites

d)

principle of segregation

25.

The punnet square shows that the gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color

a)

assort independently

b)

are linked

c)

have the same allels

d)

are always homologous

26.

How many different allele combinations would be found in gametes produced by a pea plant whose geneotype was RrYY

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

27.

situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominate over another allele for that gene are called

a)

multiple alleles

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenic inheritance

d)

multiple alleles

28.

The cross of a black chicken with a white chicken produces all speckled offspring. this type of inheritence is known as

a)

incomplete dominace

b)

codominance

c)

polygenetic traits

d)

multiple alleles

29.

Variation in human skin color is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

polygentic traits

d)

multiple alleles

30.

Gregor Mendelś principles of genetics apply to

a)

plants only

b)

animals only

c)

pea plants only

d)

all organisms

31.

If an organisms diploid number is 12, its haploid number is

a)

12

b)

6

c)

24

d)

3

32.

Gametes have

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

twice the number of chromosomes found in body cells

c)

twosets of chromosomes

d)

one allele for each gene

33.

Gametes are produced by the process of

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing-over

d)

replication

34.

What is shown in the figure

a)

independent assortment

b)

anaphase 1 of meiosis

c)

crossing-over

d)

replication

35.

Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of

a)

diploid cells

b)

haploid cells

c)

2N daughter cells

d)

body cells

36.

Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of

a)

two genetically identical cells

b)

four genetically different cells

c)

four genetically identical cells

d)

two genetically different cells

37.

Avery's experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by

a)

RNa

b)

DNA

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

38.

What did Griffith observe when he injected a mixture of heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria and live harmless bacteria into mice?

a)

The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria

b)

The mice developed pneumonia

c)

The harmless bacteria died

d)

The mice were unaffected

39.

Not doing

a)

HEYYYYY

b)

AYEEEE

c)

A FREBIE

d)

COOOOOOOL

40.

Figure 12 shows what

a)

DNA molecule

b)

amino acid

c)

RNA molecule

d)

protein

41.

Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA

a)

ribose,phosphate group, thymine

b)

ribose,phosphate group, uracil

c)

deoxyribose,phosphate groups,uracil

d)

deoxyribose,phosphate group,cytosine

42.

In Eukaryotes, DNA

a)

is located in the nucleus

b)

floats freely in the cytoplasm

c)

is located in the ribosomes

d)

is circular

43.

During mitosis, the

a)

DNA molecules unwind

b)

histones and DNA molecules separate

c)

DNA molecules become more tightly coiled

d)

nucleosomes become more tightly packed

44.

DNA is copied during the process called

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

transformation

45.

During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases

a)

TCGAAC

b)

GATCCA

c)

AGCTTG

d)

GAUCCA

46.

RNA contains the sugar

a)

ribose

b)

deoxyribose

c)

gluclose

d)

lactose

47.

Unlike DNA, RNA contains

a)

adecnine

b)

uracil

c)

phosphate groups

d)

thymine

48.

Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA

a)

ribose,phosphate groups,and adenine

b)

deoxyribose,phosphate groups, and guanine

c)

phosphate groups,guanine,and cytosine

d)

phosphate groups, guanine,and thymine

49.

How many types of RNA are there

a)

1

b)

3

c)

100

d)

1000

50.

which type of RNA is involved in protein synthesis

a)

transfer RNA

b)

messenger RNA only

c)

ribosomial RNA and transfer RNA only

d)

messenger,ribosomial,and transfer RNA

51.

What is produced during transcription

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

RNA polymerse

d)

proteins

52.

What does figure 12-2 show

a)

anticodons

b)

the order in which amino acids are linked

c)

the code for splicing mRNA

d)

the genetic code

53.

How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

12

54.

Why is it possible for an amino acid to be specified by more than one kind of codon

a)

some codons have the same sequence of nucleotides

b)

There are 64 different kinds of codons but only 20 amino acids

c)

Some codons do not specify an amino acid

d)

The codon AUG codes for the amino acid methonine and serves as the "start" codon for protein synthesis

55.

What happens during the process of translation

a)

Messenger RNA is made into DNA

b)

The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins

c)

Transfer RNA becomes messenger RNA

d)

Copies of DNA molecules are made

56.

Which type of RNA function as a blueprint for the genetic code

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

RNA polymerse

57.

A mutation that involves one or few nucleotides is called a

a)

chromosomal mutation

b)

inversion

c)

point mutation

d)

translocation

58.

Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation

a)

inversion

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

substitution

59.

Which of the following is NEVER a frameshift mutation

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

point mutation

60.

Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding

a)

horse breeds

b)

cat breeds

c)

dog breeds

d)

all of the above

61.

Selective breeding produces

a)

more offspring

b)

fewer offspring

c)

desired traits in offspring

d)

transgenic traits

62.

Which of the following is most likely to bring together two recessive alleles for genetic disorder

a)

inbreeding

b)

hybridzation

c)

genetic engineering

d)

transformation

63.

The crossing of buffalo and cattle to create beefalo is an example of

a)

inbreeding

b)

hybridization

c)

genetic engineering

d)

transformation

64.

Which of the following statements is NOT true

a)

Inbreeding and hybridization are opposite processes

b)

A hybrid plants has all the characteristics of both of it's parents

c)

Inbreeding can produce an offspring that has a defect that neither parents have

d)

Hybridization is used to produce new varieties of plants and animals

65.

What is the ultimate source of varibility

a)

inbreeding

b)

radiation

c)

hybridization

d)

mutations

66.

Which of the following includes all of the others

a)

hybridzation

b)

inbreeding

c)

selective breeding

d)

induced muations

67.

What does figure 13 show

a)

gel eletrophroesis

b)

DNA sequencing

c)

a restriction enzyme producing a DNA fragment

d)

polymerese chain reaction

68.

In figure 13 between what nucleotides are the DNA cut

a)

adenine and thymine

b)

cytosine and guanine

c)

thymine and cytosine

d)

adenine and guanine

69.

The process of changing the DNA code for a living organism is called

a)

selective breeding

b)

genetic engineering

c)

inbreeding

d)

hybridzation

70.

A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA for different sources know as

a)

a mutant

b)

a hybrid

c)

a polyploid

d)

recombbinant DNA

71.

Genetic engineering onvolves

a)

reading DNA

b)

editing DNA

c)

reinserting DNA into living things

d)

all of the above

72.

If two DNA samples showed an identical pattern and thickness of bands produced by gel electrophoresis, the samples contained

a)

The same amount of DNA

b)

fragments of the same size

c)

The same DNA molecules

d)

All of the above

73.

During transformation

a)

a prokaryote is changed into a eukryote

b)

a cell takes in DNA from the outside cell

c)

foreign DNA is inserted into a plasmid

d)

a cell is mutated

74.

What kind of technique do scientists use to make trans genetic organisms

a)

hybrization

b)

inbreeding

c)

inducing mutations

d)

genetic engineering

75.

The Scottish scientist Ian Wilmunt cloned what

a)

bacterium

b)

sheep

c)

plant

d)

cow

76.

Which of the following is a clone

a)

the adult female sheep whose DNA was used to make Dolly

b)

a transgenic mouse

c)

a bacterium taken from a bacterial colony

d)

the tobacco with the luciferase trait

77.

Why is Dolly a clone

a)

the source of her DNA was a single body cell

b)

The DNA molecules on all her cells are identical

c)

She was produced using the DNA from an adult's egg cell

d)

She is genetically identical to her offspring

78.

What kind of cells were used to make Dolly

a)

body

b)

egg

c)

egg/sperm

d)

body/egg

79.

How many cells are in a normal human karyotyoe

a)

2

b)

23

c)

44

d)

46

80.

Which of the following can be observed in a karyotype

a)

a change in DNA base

b)

an extra chromosome

c)

genes

d)

alleles

81.

In humans, a male has

a)

one X chromosome only

b)

two X chromosomes

c)

one X and Y chromosomes

d)

two Y chromosomes

82.

Human females produce egg cells that have

a)

one X chromosome

b)

two X chromosomes

c)

one X or Y chromosome

d)

two Y chromosomes

83.

What is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female

a)

10

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

84.

A female human inherits

a)

one copy of every gene located on each X chromosomes

b)

Twice as many sex chromosomes as a human male inherits

c)

one copy of every gene located on the Y chromosome

d)

all of the same genes that a human male inherits

85.

In a pedigree, a circle means

a)

male

b)

female

c)

child

d)

adult

86.

A pedigree can be used to

a)

determine whether or not a trait is inherited

b)

show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next

c)

determine whether an allele is dominate or recessive

d)

All of the above

87.

Which of the following is caused by a dominate allele

a)

Huntington's disease

b)

PKU

c)

Tay-Sachs disease

d)

none of the above

88.

Which of the following genotypes result in the same phenotype

a)

Ia Ia and Ia Ib

b)

Ib Ib and Ib ib

c)

Ib Ib and Ia Ib

d)

Ib i and ii

89.

Which of the following is determined by multiple alleles

a)

Rh blood group

b)

ABO blood group

c)

PKU

d)

Huntington's disease

90.

Sickle cell disease is caused by

a)

a change in DNA base

b)

change in the size of the chromosome

c)

change in two genes

d)

change of #s in a chromosome

91.

In cystic fibrosis, a change in a single gene causes a protein called CFTR to

a)

become less soluble

b)

fold improperly

c)

destroy the cell membrane

d)

transport sodium ions instead of chloride ions

92.

Most sex-linked genes are located on

a)

the autosome

b)

the X chromosome

c)

the Y chromosome

d)

both X and Y chromosomes

93.

Which of the following form a barr body

a)

The Y chromosome in a male cell

b)

The X chromosome in a male cell

c)

one of the X chromosomes in a female cell

d)

one of the Y chromosome in a female cell

94.

The failure of chromosomes to seperate during meiosis is called

a)

nondisjuctional

b)

X-chromosome inactivation

c)

Turner's syndrome

d)

Down syndrome

95.

Which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes represents a female

a)

XY

b)

XXY

c)

XXXY

d)

XX

96.

During his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin made many observations

a)

in England

b)

in North America

c)

on the Galapagos Islands

d)

in Asia

97.

On the Galapagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed

a)

completely unrelated species on each of the Islands

b)

species exactly like those found in South America

c)

somewhat similar species, with traits that suited their particular environments

d)

species completely unrelated to those found in South America

98.

James-Baptiste Lamarck proposed that organisms

a)

have an innate tendency toward complexity and perfection

b)

have an innate tendency to become simpler as time passes

c)

inherit all of the adaptations they display

d)

belong to species that never change

99.

James-Hutton and Charles-Lyell work suggest

a)

earth is millions of years old

b)

earth is several thousands of years old

c)

all fossils wee formed the last 1000 years

d)

all rocks are fossils

100.

Which is a major concept included in Lamarck's theory of evolution

a)

change is a result of survival of the fittest

b)

body structure can change according to actions of the organism

c)

population size decreases that rate of evolution

d)

Artificial selection is the bias for evolution

101.

The economist Thomas Malthus suggested that

a)

in the human population, people die faster than they are born

b)

the world will soon be insufficient food for the growing population

c)

in the 1700s, England needed more housing

d)

the majority of species offspring die

102.

Charles Darwin's observation that finches of different species on the Galapagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics support the hypothesis that these finches

a)

have the ability to interbreed

b)

acquired traits though use and disuse

c)

all eat the same type of food

d)

descended from a common ancestor

103.

When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

artifical variation

d)

survival of the fittest

104.

When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed but some escape. What part of natural selection might be used to describe the situation

a)

acquired characteristics

b)

reproductive isolation

c)

survival of the fittest

d)

descent of modification

105.

Charles Darwin called the abilty of an organism to survive and reproduce in it's specific enviroment

a)

diversity

b)

survival if the fitness

c)

adaptation

d)

evolution

106.

According to Darwin's theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have

a)

characteristics their parents acquired by use and diuse

b)

characteristics that plant and animal breeders value

c)

the greatest number of offspring

d)

variations best suited to the environment

107.

An adaption is an inherited characteristics that can be

a)

physical or behavioral

b)

physical or geographical

c)

acquirred during the organisms lifetime

d)

the result of artificial selection

108.

In humans the pelvis and femur or thigh bone are involved in walking, In whales

a)

examples of fossils

b)

vestigial structures

c)

acquired traits

d)

examples of natural variation

109.

Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record as

a)

evidence that Earth was thousands of years old

b)

a detailed record of evolution

c)

interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species

d)

evidence that traits acquired through use or disuse

110.

Darwins theory of evolution suggests that

a)

species change over time

b)

extinct species are not related to living species

c)

different species can interbreed

d)

animals that look alike are most likely related

111.

All the genes of all members of a particular population make up the populations

a)

relative frequently

b)

phenotype

c)

genotype

d)

gene pool

112.

Interbreeding among members of a population results in

a)

different types of alleles in the gene pool

b)

an absence of genetic variation in the population

c)

changes in the relative frequencies of alleles in the gene pool

113.

The change in sequence of DNA is called a

a)

recombination

b)

polygentic trait

c)

single-gene trait

d)

mutation

114.

In many kinds of organisms, inheritable differences are due mostly to

a)

mutations during gamete formation

b)

polygenetic traits

c)

gene shuffling during gamete formation

d)

the effects of radiation

115.

A single gene trait that has two alleles and that show a simple dominate-recessive pattern will result in

a)

one phenotype

b)

two phenotype

c)

four phenotypes

d)

millions of prototypes

116.

A single of a single gene trait is

a)

widows peak

b)

the weight of a human infant when its born

c)

height in humans

d)

beak sizes of birds

117.

The phenotype for a typical polygentic trait can often be expressed as

a)

a bar graph

b)

a bell-shaped curve

c)

Mendelian ratios

d)

allele frequencies

118.

Natural selection acts directly on

a)

alleles

b)

genes

c)

phenotypes

d)

mutations

119.

When individuals with at only one end of a bell curve of phenotype frequencies have high fitness, the result is

a)

directional selecion

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disrutive selection

d)

genetic drift

120.

When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is

a)

not predictable

b)

disruptive selection

c)

directional selection

d)

stabilizing selection

121.

In a population of finches in what one group of birds have a short, parrot like beck and another group has a long narrow beak, what process has probably occurred

a)

directional selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

genetic drift

122.

In genetic drift, allele frequencies change because of

a)

mutations

b)

chance

c)

natural selection

d)

genetic equilibrium

123.

Which of the following events do biologist consider a random change

a)

directional selection

b)

speciation

c)

disruptive selection

d)

genetic drift

124.

A factor that is necessary for the formation of a new species is

a)

reproduction at different times

b)

geographical barriers

c)

different mating behaviors

d)

reproduction isolation

125.

The geographical isolation of two populations of a species tends to increase difference between their gene pools because it

a)

prevents interbreeding between the populations

b)

prevents interbreeding within each population

c)

causes temporal isolation of the two populations

126.

Although they often live in the same habitat, the american toad breeds earlier in the Spring than the Fowler's toad does. What can be inferred

a)

The two species do not interbreed because of the geographic isolation

b)

the two species do not interbreed because of temporal isolation

c)

The two interbreed through the spring season

127.

What is the first step that occured in the speciation of the Fowler's toad

a)

establishing genetic equilibrium

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

ecological competition

d)

arrival of the founding population