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SCH4U 2018-2019 Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3570secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements about "Dalton’s model of the atom" is INCORRECT.

a)

He discovered the existence of a negatively charged particle with mass less than 1/5000 that of a hydrogen atom.

b)

Thomson viewed the atom as a positively charged sphere embedded with sufficient numbers of electrons to balance (neutralize) the total charge.

c)

He used a cathodray tube to measure the mass and its electric charge.of the particle observed in the vacuum tube.

d)

None of the other 3 statements are INCORRECT.

2.

Which of the following statements about "Rutherford’s "gold foil experiment"" is INCORRECT?

a)

Alpha (α) particles where aimed at extremely thin metal foils.

b)

Most of the alpha particles passed through the metal foils unimpeded.

c)

A small number of the alpha particles, about one in every 8000, were deflected significantly by the atoms that made up the metal foils.

d)

The researchers expected the alpha particles to pass through the metal atoms with, at most, deflections averaging 1/200

of a degree but did observe 90 degree deflections.

e)

None of the other 4 statements are INCORRECT.

3.

This image is from which scientists experiments.

a)

Dalton

b)

Thomson

c)

Rutherford

d)

Bohr

4.

T/F - Because Rutherford’s atomic model, pictures electrons in motion around an atomic nucleus, chemists often call this the nuclear model of the atom. You may also see it referred to as a planetary model because the electrons resemble the planets in motion around a central body.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Rutherford’s atomic model solved problems inherent in Thomson’s atomic model, but it also raised others. Which of the following is INCORRECT.

a)

an atomic nucleus composed entirely of negative charges should fly apart due to electrostatic forces of repulsion.

b)

the model could not adequately explain the total mass of an atom.

c)

an electron in motion around a central body must continuously give off radiation. Consequently, one should be able to observe a continuous spectrum (a “rainbow”) of light energy as the electron gives off its radiation.

d)

the electron should also lose energy as a result of this radiation, the radius of its orbit should continuously decrease in size until it spirals into the nucleus

e)

None of these are INCORRECT.

6.

His gold foil experiment concluded that the atom is comprised of mainly empty space, with a small massive region of concentrated positive charge at the centre.

a)

Dalton

b)

Thomson

c)

Rutherford

d)

Bohr

7.

He designed a system of symbols to show how atoms combine to form other substances.

a)

Dalton

b)

Thomson

c)

Rutherford

d)

Bohr

8.

Which of the following "restrictions on the electron in the Bohr model of the atom" are INCORRECT?

a)

The atom has only specific, allowable energy levels, called stationary states. Each stationary state corresponds to the atom’s electrons occupying fixed, circular orbits around the nucleus.

b)

While in one of its stationary states, atoms do emit energy.

c)

An atom changes stationary states by emitting or absorbing a specific quantity of energy that is exactly equal to the difference in energy between the two stationary states.

d)

None of these statements are INCORRECT.

9.

Which of the following statement about "the quantum mechanical model of the atom" is INCORRECT.

a)

Electrons have both matter-like and wave-like properties.

b)

The position and momentum of an electron cannot both be determined with certainty, so they must be described in terms of probabilities.

c)

An orbital represents a mathematical description of the volume of space in which an electron has a high probability of being found.

d)

None of the other 3 are INCORRECT

10.

T/F - The ground state is the least stable energy state of an atom.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

The greatest number of electrons that is possible for any energy level is found using the following formula.

a)

2n2

b)

2n

c)

n2

d)

2n3

e)

2+n2

12.

If l = 2 the orbital has the letter

a)

s

b)

p

c)

d

d)

f

13.

To identify an energy sublevel (type of orbital), you combine the value of ___ with the letter of the orbital shape.

a)

n

b)

l

c)

s

d)

p

14.

The 3rd quantum number describes the following

a)

the shape of the orbital

b)

the orientation of the orbital around the nucleus

c)

the orientation of the electron in the orbital

d)

the spin of the orbital around the nucleus

e)

the orientation of the nucleus inside the atom

15.

Which of the following statement about "the shapes of orbitals" is INCORRECT?

a)

An orbital is associated with a size, a three-dimensional shape, and an orientation around the nucleus.

b)

Together, the size, shape, and position of an orbital represent the probability of finding a specific electron around the nucleus of an atom.

c)

The overall shape of an atom is a combination of all its

orbitals.

d)

The overall shape of an atom is spherical.

e)

None of the other 4 statements are INCORRECT.

16.

How many d orbitals are in each energy level, except n = 2?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

17.

Fill in the missing values in the following sets of quantum numbers.

n = 3, l = 2, ml = −2; name: ?

a)

3d

b)

3s

c)

3p

d)

4d

18.

The first energy level to have d-orbitals is:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

19.

Which of the following statements about "the fourth quantum number" is INCORRECT?

a)

It describes a property of the electron that results from its particle-like nature.

b)

It specifies the direction in which the electron is spinning

c)

It has only two possible values: ½ or -½

d)

It tells one that the electron is spining only clockwise

e)

None of the other 4 statements are INCORRECT.

20.

T/F - Another way of stating the exclusion principle is that no two electrons in an atom have the same four quantum numbers.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

An atom’s __________________________is a shorthand notation that shows the number and arrangement of electrons in its orbitals.

a)

electron configuration

b)

quantum configuration

c)

electron numbers

d)

electron arrangement

22.

A in the diagram tells the viewer

a)

number of electrons in each energy sublevel

b)

principal quantum numbers

c)

letter designations based on orbital shape quantum number

23.

B in the diagram tells the viewer

a)

number of electrons in each energy sublevel

b)

principal quantum numbers

c)

letter designations based on orbital shape quantum number

24.

C in the diagram tells the viewer

a)

number of electrons in each energy sublevel

b)

principal quantum numbers

c)

letter designations based on orbital shape quantum number

25.

T/F - Elements that appear in the s block and the p block are called either the main group elements or the representative elements.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

T/F - Among the main group elements you will find metals and the non-metals.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Of the more than one hundred elements that occur in nature or that have been produced synthetically, only the _____________________ exist naturally as single, uncombined atoms.

a)

noble gases

b)

halogens

c)

alkaline metals

d)

rare earth metals

e)

transition metals

28.

Chemical bonding involves the interaction of

a)

valance electrons

b)

core electrons

c)

valance and sometimes core electrons

d)

protons

e)

none of the above

29.

Because of the large differences in electronegativity, the atoms in an ionic compound usually come from the

a)

s block metals and the p block non-metals.

b)

p block metals and the s block non-metals.

c)

s block metals and the d block metals.

d)

s block transition metals and the p block non-metals.

e)

s block metals and the p block transition metals

30.

To which main group on the periodic table does X belong?

MgX

a)

16

b)

2

c)

15

d)

17

e)

1

31.

To which main group on the periodic table does X belong?

X2O3

a)

16

b)

2

c)

15

d)

3

e)

1

32.

Which of the following statements about "ionic bonding" is INCORRECT.

a)

The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions (cations and anions) constitutes an ionic bond.

b)

Ionic bonding occurs between atoms of elements that have large differences in electronegativity.

c)

The units of ionic compounds can be separated easily by direct heating of the crystal salt.

d)

The ions that make up the ionic solid are arranged in a specific array of repeating units.

e)

The ions that make up the ionic solid are arranged in a rigid lattice structure so that the cations and anions are arranged so that the system has the minimum possible energy.

33.

Which of the following is not a property of ionic solids?

a)

crystalline with smooth, shiny surfaces

b)

hard but brittle

c)

non-conductors of electricity and heat

d)

high melting points

e)

Many are soluble in water.

34.

There are ____ lone pairs in the following molecule.

a)

4

b)

8

c)

6

d)

2

35.

_______________energy is the energy required to break the force of attraction between two atoms in a bond and to separate them.

a)

Bond

b)

Separation

c)

Electron

d)

Force

e)

none of the above

36.

In many cases, electron-sharing enables each atom in a covalent bond to acquire

a)

a noble gas configuration

b)

a halogen configuration

c)

a full core electron configuration

d)

a full valence configuration

e)

none of the above

37.

T/F - Chemists classify solids into two categories based on the microscopic properties that arise from the arrangements of their component particles.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

These solids have organized particle arrangements, so they have distinct shapes.

a)

Crystalline

b)

Amorphous

39.

Gemstones such as amethyst and garnet are examples of these solids.

a)

Crystalline

b)

Amorphous

40.

These solids have indistinct shapes, because their particle arrangements lack order.

a)

Crystalline

b)

Amorphous

41.

Glass and rubber are are examples of these solids.

a)

Crystalline

b)

Amorphous

42.

These solids are made up of individual atoms that are held together solely by dispersion forces.

a)

atomic solids

b)

molecular solids

c)

network solids

d)

ionic solids

43.

Molecular solids are, as their name implies, made up of molecules. Like atomic solids, the molecules that make up molecular solids, such as frozen methane, are held together mainly by _________________ forces.

a)

dispersion

b)

molecular

c)

network

d)

ionic

44.

Different crystalline or molecular forms of the same element that differ in physical and chemical properties.

a)

allotropes

b)

allotraces

c)

allotrappes

45.

Which of the following statements about "diamonds" is INCORRECT.

a)

Each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds with four other carbon atoms which produces a three-dimensional array that makes diamonds the hardest naturally occurring substance.

b)

The valence electrons are in highly localized bonds between carbon atoms. Therefore, diamond does not conduct electricity.

c)

The planes produced by how the atoms bond together within the diamond reflect light, which gives diamond its brilliance and sparkle.

d)

None of the other 3 statements are INCORRECT.

46.

Microscopic-level research has developed very small carbon networks called ______________________ that are like a fullerene networks that have been stretched into a cylinder shape.

a)

nanotubes

b)

nanoblurs

c)

nanofullernes

d)

nanocylinders

47.

Which of the following statements about "graphite" is INCORRECT?

a)

It is a soft, 3-dimensional network solid that is a good conductor of electricity.

b)

It has a high melting point, which suggests strong bonds, but its softness indicates the presence of weak bonds as well.

c)

Each carbon forms three strong covalent bonds with three of its nearest neighbours in a trigonal planar pattern.

d)

Graphite feels slippery and is used in many industrial processes use graphite as a lubricant.

e)

None of the other 4 statements are INCORRECT.

48.

________________________ forces are the forces exerted within a molecule or polyatomic ion.

a)

Intramolecular

b)

Intermolecular

49.

________________________ forces of attraction and repulsion that act between molecules or ions.

a)

Intramolecular

b)

Intermolecular

50.

Forces that influence the physical properties of substances.

a)

Intramolecular

b)

Intermolecular

51.

During a chemical change, these forces are overcome and chemical bonds are broken.

a)

Intramolecular

b)

Intermolecular

52.

Forces of attraction between ions in ionic solids, between individual atoms in covalent and polar covalent compounds, and between positive metal ions and free electrons in metals.

a)

Intramolecular

b)

Intermolecular

53.

In the liquid state, polar molecules (dipoles) orient themselves so that oppositely charged ends of the molecules are near to one another.

a)

Dipole-Dipole Forces

b)

Ion-Dipole Forces

c)

Ion-Induced Dipole Force

d)

Dipole-Induced Dipole Force

e)

Dispersion (London) Forces

54.

This intermolecular force is the force of attraction between an ion and a polar molecule (a dipole).

a)

Dipole-Dipole Forces

b)

Ion-Dipole Forces

c)

Ion-Induced Dipole Force

d)

Dipole-Induced Dipole Force

e)

Dispersion (London) Forces

55.

Sodium chloride and other soluble ionic solids dissolve in polar solvents such as water because of these forces.

a)

Dipole-Dipole Forces

b)

Ion-Dipole Forces

c)

Ion-Induced Dipole Force

d)

Dipole-Induced Dipole Force

e)

Dispersion (London) Forces

56.

This intermolecular force results when an ion in close proximity to a non-polar molecule distorts the electron density of the non-polar molecule.

a)

Dipole-Dipole Forces

b)

Ion-Dipole Forces

c)

Ion-Induced Dipole Force

d)

Dipole-Induced Dipole Force

e)

Dispersion (London) Forces

57.

The charge on a polar molecule is responsible for inducing the charge on the non-polar molecule.

a)

Dipole-Dipole Forces

b)

Ion-Dipole Forces

c)

Ion-Induced Dipole Force

d)

Dipole-Induced Dipole Force

e)

Dispersion (London) Forces

58.
The heat content of a system at constant pressure is called
a)
entropy
b)
enthalpy
c)
heat
d)
energy
59.
Chemical reactions where both q and H are negative are considered
a)
spontaneous
b)
nonspontaneous
c)
exothermic
d)
endothermic
60.

In an _____________ process, the system releases heat to its surrounding

a)

Exothermic

b)

Endothemic

61.

In an _________________ process, the system gains heat from its surrounding

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

62.
What are the two units for Heat?
a)
cal and joules
b)
cal and grams
c)
joules and celcius
d)
there is only one
63.
Exothermic reactions feel
a)
warm
b)
cold
64.
q stands for which variable
a)
heat
b)
mass
c)
specific heat
d)
change in temperature
65.
When Magnesium and oxygen react, they produce a bright white light and gives off heat.  Why is this reaction exothermic?
a)
Products have more energy
b)
Reactants have more energy
c)
the have the same energy
d)
the is not energy in the reaction
66.
What is the relationship between Celsius temperature and Kelvin temperature?
a)
Kelvin + 273.15 = Degrees Celsius
b)
Degrees Celsius + 273.15 = Kelvin
c)
Degrees Celsius - 273.15 = Kelvin
d)
Kelvin divided by 273.15 = Degrees Celsius
67.
N2 +  3H2 −->  2NH3 
How many moles of ammonium are produced when 3 moles of nitrogen react with hydrogen?
a)
6 moles Ammonium
b)
1.5 moles ammonium
c)
9 moles ammonium
d)
9 moles hydrogen
68.
H2 + Cl2 --> 2 HCl + 1845 kJ
Is this reaction endothermic or exothermic?
a)
Endothermic 
b)
Exothermic
69.

Which of the following statements about the "calorie" is INCORRECT?

a)

The symbol for calories is cal.

b)

One calorie is equal to 4.184 joules.

c)

A kilocalorie (or Calorie with a capital “C”) is equal to 1,000 calories.

d)

Kilocalories (Calories) are used to express the amount of energy in food.

e)

None of the above 4 are INCORRECT.

70.

Which of the following statements about "a calorimeter" is INCORRECT?

a)

It is a device used to measure the amount of heat that transfers from one substance to second substance (usually water).

b)

They are used to find a substance’s heat capacity.

c)

They are typically well-insulated chambers that contain water.

d)

None of the above 3 statements are INCORRECT.

71.

Which of the following statements about "specific heat capacity" is INCORRECT?

a)

the amount of energy needed to change the temperature of a substance by 1 °C.

b)

If the specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g °C. This means it takes 4.184 J of energy to increase the temperature of 1 g of water by 1 °C.

c)

Sometimes a substance’s specific heat capacity is simply referred to as its “specific heat.”

d)

None of the above 3 statements is INCORRECT.

72.

In the GIZMO you saw how 200 g of 90 °C copper transfers heat to 200 g of 30.0 °C water. How did increasing the water’s mass affect the final temperature?

a)

Increasing the water’s mass decreased the final temperature.

b)

Increasing the water’s mass increased the final temperature.

c)

Increasing the water’s mass had no effect on the final temperature.

73.

In the GIZMO you saw how 200 g of 90 °C copper transfers heat to 200 g of 30.0 °C water. What was the effect of decreasing the copper’s mass?

a)

decreased the final temperature.

b)

increased the final temperature.

c)

had no effect on the final temperature.

74.

Many gyms and health clubs have steam saunas, which are small steam-filled rooms. Traditionally, steam saunas have a container of heated rocks. A small ladle of water is poured on the rocks in order to make the steam. The hot rocks transfer their energy to the liquid water, causing the liquid water to heat up and form steam. The bonds that are broken are

a)

intermolecular

b)

intramolecular

75.

What was the variable that was changed in this experiment?

a)

substance initial temp

b)

substance mass

c)

water initial temp

d)

substance

76.

T/F - When you mix two substances, the heat gained by one substance is equal to the heat lost by the other substance.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

T/F - Chemical equilibrium is a state of balance in which there is no net change in chemical composition over time.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

T/F - In a reversible reaction, a chemical equilibrium occurs when the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Which of the following statements about "concentration" is INCORRECT.

a)

It is a measure of how much of a given substance is present in a given volume.

b)

Often is measured in moles per liter.

c)

Square brackets also are used to signify concentration. For example, “[H2] = 0.1 M” indicates that the concentration of hydrogen gas is 0.1 moles per liter.

d)

None of the other 3 statements are INCORRECT.

80.

T/F -A reversible reaction is a chemical reaction that can proceed in either direction: from reactants to products or from products to reactants.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

T/F - In a closed system, a reversible reaction will never result in a chemical equilibrium given enough time.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Which of the following statements about "a reaction rate" is INCORRECT?

a)

the rate of a reaction describes how fast a reaction proceeds over volume of time

b)

a rate of reaction measures how quickly reactants are changed into products.

c)

is the change in concentration of reactants over time or the change in concentration of products over time

d)

Units for reaction rates are in terms of M (mols/L) /time.

e)

None of the other 4 statements are INCORRECT.

83.

T/F - When expressing reactions rates that following rule is applied. For faster reactions, seconds are used for units of time; for longer reactions, minutes are used.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

When combined hydrochloric acid and zinc metal the acid eats away at the metal to produce hydrogen gas and some dissolved metal salts. The rate of this reaction could be measured in terms of the disappearance of the zinc or the rate of appearance of hydrogen gas.


If we were expressing reaction rate in terms of disappearance of zinc metal, we would write:

a)

Reaction rate = - change[zinc]/time

b)

Reaction rate = change[zinc]/time

85.

When combined hydrochloric acid and zinc metal the acid eats away at the metal to produce hydrogen gas and some dissolved metal salts. The rate of this reaction could be measured in terms of the disappearance of the zinc or the rate of appearance of hydrogen gas.


If we were expressing reaction rate in terms of disappearance of zinc metal, we could conclude that following

a)

The slope of the line would be negative, because the concentration of our reactant is constantly decreasing.

b)

The slope of the line would be positive, because the concentration of our reactant is constantly decreasing.

c)

The slope of the line would be negative, because the concentration of our reactant is constantly increasing.

86.

Which of the following statements about "the factors that can affect a reaction rate" is INCORRECT.

a)

Increasing concentration decreases the number of effective collisions.

b)

Increasing temperature increases the kinetic energy of the particles, leading to more effective collisions.

c)

Increasing surface area increases the particles available to react, increasing the likelihood of effective collisions.

d)

Addition of a catalyst increases reaction rate by decreasing the amount of energy needed for a reaction to occur.

e)

None of the other 4 statements are INCORRECT.

87.

Which of the following statements about "temperature and it's relationship to rates of reaction" is INCORRET?

a)

Temperature is a measurement of the energy in motion within a system.

b)

The higher the temperature, the more energy the system has.

c)

Molecules with more energy are likely to have more effective collisions with each other, resulting in an increased rate of reaction

d)

None of the other 3 statements are INCORRECT.

88.

___________________________have as many hydrogen atoms as possible attached to every carbon.

a)

Aromatic hydrocarbons

b)

Saturated hydrocarbons

c)

Unsaturated hydrocarbons

d)

Aliphatic hydrocarbons

89.

___________________________ is any compound with a benzene ring.

a)

Aromatic hydrocarbons

b)

Saturated hydrocarbons

c)

Unsaturated hydrocarbons

d)

Aliphatic hydrocarbons

90.

For carbons on the end of a saturated hydrocarbon molecular chain, _____ hydrogens can be attached.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

91.

_____________ are linear, or branching, compounds that are made of varying numbers of carbon atoms that are all saturated with hydrogen atoms.

a)

Alkanes

b)

Alkenes

c)

Alkynes

d)

Alkenynes

92.

_____________ have at least one triple bond between carbon atoms.

a)

Alkanes

b)

Alkenes

c)

Alkynes

d)

Alkenynes

93.

T/F - Methane is the simplest hydrocarbon possible. It is released as a gas from decomposing bodies and from the intestinal tracts of many animals.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Formula for alkenes

a)

CnH(2n+2).

b)

CnH(2n)

c)

CnH(2n-2)

95.

_____________is a ring of six carbon atoms with three double bonds.

a)

benzine

b)

benzene

c)

benzone

96.
Give the name of this compound...
C3H8
a)
Propene
b)
Butyne
c)
Butene
d)
Propane
97.
what kind of molecule is this?
a)
alkane
b)
alkene
c)
alkyne
d)
cycloalkane
98.
Name this compound
a)
4-ethyl-2,2-dimethylhexane
b)
5-dimethyl-3,3-ethylhexane
c)
3-ethyl-5,5-dimethylhexane
d)
4-ethyl-2-methylhexane
99.
Name the compound
a)
hexane
b)
2,3-dimethylbutane
c)
ethylbutane
d)
2,2-dimethylbutane
100.
What functional group do you see in this molecule?
a)
carboxylic acid
b)
aldehyde
c)
ketone
d)
ester