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Final Exam Review

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Methane produced by?

a)

Combustion & Vehicle Exhaust

b)

Anaerobic Respiration & Methanogenic Bacteria

c)

Evaporation & Transpiration

d)

Anaerobic Respiration & Combustion

2.

Which are Greenhouse Gases? Select all of the following that apply.

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Nitrous Oxide

c)

Methane

d)

Water Vapor

e)

Nitrogen

3.

By which mechanism do greenhouse gases contribute to global warming?

a)

They absorb higher amounts of short wave radiation caused by increased combustion of fossilized organic matter.

b)

Their higher concentration absorbs more long wave radiation coming from the Sun.

c)

Short wave radiation emitted from the Earth's surface increases with their concentration.

d)

They absorb higher amounts of long wave radiation emitted from the Earth's surface as their concentration increases.

4.

If the concentration of Greenhouse Gases rises, then...

a)

more heat will be retained.

b)

more heat will be released.

c)

more water vapor will be retained.

d)

more nitrogen will be released.

5.

What can an increase in the greenhouse effect result in?

a)

increase in the amount of alien/invasive species.

b)

the disruption of ecological niches due to competition

c)

decrease in the amount of food (prey)

d)

all of the above

6.
T/F: Some greenhouse gases are naturally present in the Earth's atmosphere
a)
True
b)
False
7.

What is Biomass?

a)

a significant change in the Earth's climate, including changes in weather patterns, the oceans, ice and snow, and ecosystems around the world.

b)

a marine ridge or reef consisting of coral and other organic material consolidated into limestone.

c)

material that comes from living things, including trees, crops, grasses, and animals and animal waste

d)

a type of fuel produced from plants or other forms of biomass. Examples of biofuels include ethanol, biodiesel, and biogas.

8.

What is the correlation between global temperature and C02 concentrations?

a)

There is no correlation between the two.

b)

The higher the temperature, the less c02 is present.

c)

The higher the temperature, the more C02 is present.

d)

The lower the temperature, the more C02 is present.

9.

Why are ice cores useful to scientists?

a)

They are used to measure the Earth's current temperature.

b)

They allow for scientists to measure the amount of radiation is being received by the Earth.

c)

They can be used to measure to the rising ocean levels over certain periods of time.

d)

They allow for scientists to see changes in temperature and the amount of C02 in the atmosphere at the time the ice was formed.

10.

What do records from the twentieth and twenty-first century show about the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

a)

An upward trend with no annual fluctuations

b)

An upward trend with annual fluctuations

c)

Annual fluctuations but no overall trend

d)

Random fluctuations and no overall trend

11.

Which property of a gas means that it is classed as a greenhouse gas?

a)

They trap some of the long-wave radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface

b)

They prevent short-wave radiation from reaching the Earth’s surface

c)

They dissolve in rainwater to produce acid rain

d)

They are only produced by human activity

12.

What contributes to the enhanced greenhouse effect?

a)

Methane from agricultural sources

b)

Ozone from violent thunderstorms

c)

Carbon particles in diesel engine exhaust

d)

Carbon dioxide from active volcanoes

13.

Distinguish between short wave radiation and long wave radiation.

a)

Both short wave radiation and long wave radiation are reemitted as heat back into the atmosphere

b)

Long wave radiation comes directly from the sun to be absorbed by the atmosphere while short radiation comes from the sun and is reemitted as heat

c)

Short wave radiation comes directly from the sun to be absorbed by the atmosphere while long radiation comes from the sun and is reemitted as heat

d)

Both short wave radiation and long wave radiation are absorbed upon reaching earth's atmosphere

14.

Which of the following is NOT a potential problem associated with climate change?

a)

The melting of ice habitats

b)

Desertification

c)

Extreme growth in species

d)

Destruction of food webs

15.

What is a potential consequence of the rise in global temperatures on the Arctic ecosystem?

a)

Decreased success of pest species

b)

Increased exposure to UV light

c)

Increase in the ice habitat available to polar bears

d)

Increased rate of decomposition of detritus

16.

In decreasing order, which greenhouse gases have the largest warming effect within the atmosphere?

a)

Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, water vapor

b)

Water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide

c)

Methane, carbon dioxide, water vapor, nitrous oxide

d)

Nitrous oxide, methane, carbon dioxide, water vapor

17.

What is the effect of global warming on the ocean?

a)

As the amount of carbon dioxide absorbed by the ocean rises, the pH of the sea surface water has decreased.

b)

The ocean absorbs water vapor, which decreases the amount of carbonate ions needed for coral reefs to survive.

c)

Methane absorbed by the ocean causes sea levels to decrease, which causes the pCO₂ of the ocean to decrease as well.

d)

Because the ocean absorbs 75% of carbon from the atmosphere, this abundance of carbonate ions will be harmful to ocean organisms.

18.

Which of the following is true?

a)

There is a strong correlation between annual fluctuations of temperatures and human emissions.

b)

There is a strong correlation between human emissions and atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide.

c)

There is a weak correlation between temperature variation and human emissions.

d)

There is no correlation between human emissions and atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide.

19.

Which two factors determine the warming impact of a greenhouse gas? Select the two answer choices that apply.

a)

Methane's ability to cause significantly less warming per molecule than carbon dioxide.

b)

The concentration of the gas in the atmosphere.

c)

Carbon dioxide's temporary persistence in the atmosphere.

d)

How readily the gas absorbs long-wave radiation.

e)

Water vapor's slow entrance into the atmosphere.

20.

A group of organisms of the same species living in the same environment at the same time who are capable of interbreeding.

a)

population

b)

community

c)

species

d)

habitat

21.

Which of the following is true of autotrophs?

a)

synthesize their own food

b)

ingest organic matter and then break it down

c)

secret enzymes externally and then absorb broken down products

d)

obtain their food from external sources

22.

Which of the following is true of detritivores?

a)

synthesize their own food

b)

ingest organic matter and then break it down

c)

secret enzymers externally and then absorb broken down products

d)

obtain their food from external souces

23.

Food chains are ______, whereas food webs are _____.

a)

circular; linear

b)

circular; branching

c)

linear; branching

d)

branchin; linear

24.

When members of a food chain die, they are broken down by

a)

producers

b)

primary consumers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

decomposers

25.

The initial source of all energy for communities comes from

a)

producers

b)

water

c)

sunlight

d)

monomers

26.

_____ can enter and leave and ecosystem, but _____ must be recycled.

a)

organisms; energy

b)

energy; nutrients

c)

nutrients; energy

d)

nutrients; organisms

27.

The shape of an area analyzed in a quadrant study is

a)

round

b)

square

c)

triangular

d)

oblong

28.

Most solar radiation is which type of light?

a)

infrared

b)

green

c)

ultraviolet

d)

blue

29.

Which factors determine the warming impact of a greenhouse gas?

a)

the concentration of the gas in the atmosphere

b)

the percentage of the atmosphere occupied by the gas

c)

how readily the gas absorbs long-wave radiation

d)

when the gas is released

30.

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas

a)

Methane

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Nitrous Oxide

31.

What is the largest contributor to rising carbon dioxide levels?

a)

cattle farming

b)

deforestation

c)

burning fossil fuels

d)

fracking

32.

The transfer of an element from one pool to another is termed.

a)

flush

b)

flex

c)

flux

d)

ion

33.
All of the living and nonliving things in an area that interact with each other are called a/an ______.
a)
community
b)
habitat
c)
population
d)
ecosystem
34.
An area where an organism finds food, shelter and water in a specific arrangement
a)
niche
b)
biosphere
c)
biome
d)
habitat
35.
The living part of an ecosystem
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
c)
Mother Earth
d)
Flowers
36.
The non-living part of an ecosystem
a)
Ocean
b)
Lava Flow
c)
Birds
d)
Abiotic
37.
The diagram below shows the cycling of nutrients in an ecosystem.
The removal of which of the following groups would cause an immediate decrease in the amount of energy flowing through the system?
a)
Producers
b)
Consumers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Inorganic nutrients
38.
What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a biological community?
a)
energy path
b)
food web
c)
trophic level
d)
food pyramid
39.
The energy at each trophic level in the pryamid of energy decreases by a factor of ____.
a)
10
b)
1
c)
100
d)
2
40.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
41.
diagram that shows the energy available to each trophic level in an ecosystem; 10% is passed on to upper levels, the rest is lost as heat
a)
succession 
b)
cellular respiration
c)
energy pyramid
d)
biochemical cycle
42.

Penicillium fungus growing on blue cheese secretes digestive enzymes into the cheese and the absorbs the products. Which nutritional class is it it?

a)

autotroph

b)

consumer

c)

detritivores

d)

saprotrophs

43.

Cyanobacteria absorb carbon dioxide, mineral ions and light, and synthesize carbon compounds? What nutritional class are they in?

a)

autotrophs

b)

consumers

c)

detritivores

d)

saprotrophs

44.

Marine iguanas have teeth and dive into the sea to eat algae. What nutritional class are they in?

a)

autotrophs

b)

consumers

c)

detritivores

d)

saprotrophs

45.

Dung flies lay their eggs on feces and the larvae that hatch out from them ingest the feces? What nutritional class are they in?

a)

autotrophs

b)

consumers

c)

detritivores

d)

saprotrophs

46.

Female Anopheles mosquitoes have piercing sucking mouthparts and can spread malaria when they feed on blood. What nutritional class are they in?

a)

autotrophs

b)

consumers

c)

detritivores

d)

saprotrophs

47.

Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form...

a)

sulfuric acid

b)

carboxylic acid

c)

carbonic acid

d)

calcium carbonate

48.

Huge amounts of carbon are locked up in limestone on Earth. The carbon can be released if the limestone reacts with...

a)

a base

b)

an acid

c)

calcium ions

d)

calcium carbonate

49.

Saprotrophs cannot break down dead leave and organic matter in which of the following two conditions?

a)

aerobic conditions

b)

anaerobic conditions

c)

basic conditions

d)

acidic conditions

50.

Partially decomposed plant matter forms deposits called

a)

coal

b)

calcium carbonate

c)

peat

d)

silt

51.

What is the appropriate unit to measure energy flow through trophic levels in a community?

a)

kJ m-2 y

b)

kJ m3 y-1

c)

kJ m-2 y-1

d)

kJ m2 y-1

52.

A statistical test commonly used to determine if there is a significant association between two variables.

a)

t-test

b)

chi-squared

c)

ANOVA

d)

standard deviation

53.

The presences or absence of two seaweeds was recorded in fifty 1 m2 quadrats. If a chi-squared test for association between the species was performed the degrees of freedom would be _______.

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

1.5

54.

What is the generally accepted p value in the biological sciences?

a)

p = 0.5

b)

p = 0.1

c)

p = 0.05

d)

p = 0.01

55.

There is no significant difference between the distribution of two species (i.e. distribution is random) is an example of

a)

a null hypothesis

b)

an alternative hypothesis

56.

Which category of organisms is correctly described in this table?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

57.

What limits the length of a food chain in an ecosystem?

a)

The size of the individual organisms

b)

Competition between organisms

c)

The loss of energy between trophic levels

d)

Natural selection

58.

What are characteristics of species?

a)

I and II

b)

I and III

c)

II and III

d)

I, II and III

59.

The diagram represents a pyramid of energy. What level does the letter X represent?

a)

Light

b)

Primary consumers

c)

Abiotic environment

d)

Producers

60.

How is peat formed?

a)

From methanogenic archeans under anerobic and acidic conditions in deep sea vents

b)

From partially decomposed organic matter under anaerobic and acidic conditions in waterlogged soils

c)

From porous limestone under high pressure, aerobic and alkaline conditions in ocean beds

d)

From bituminous coal under high pressure, anaerobic conditions below ground

61.

What contributes to rising atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide and increases average global temperatures?

a)

An increase in shorter wave radiation emitted by the Earth.

b)

An increase in longer wave radiation emitted by the Earth.

c)

An increase in the combustion of fossilized organic matter

d)

The depletion of the ozone in the stratosphere

e)

Nothing - it's all a hoax

62.

Methanogens produce methane gas. What is the gas converted to in the atmosphere?

a)

Carbon dioxide and oxygen

b)

Ethanol and carbon dioxide

c)

Carbon monoxide and ozone.

d)

Carbon dioxide and water

63.

What could be represented by arrows 1, 2 and 3?

a)

1 - death of consumers, 2 - cell respiration in saprotrophs, 3 - Cell respiration in producers

b)

1 - death of consumers, 2 - incomplete decomposition, 3 - photosynthesis in producers

c)

1 - cell respiration in saprotrophs, 2 - incomplete decomposition 3 - photosynthesis in producers

d)

1 - cell respiration in consumers, 2 - cell respiration in saprotrophs, 3 - Cell respiration in producers

64.
What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
hydrophilic heads 
d)
lipids
65.
Which of the following is NOT part of the cell membrane?
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
66.
The function of the plasma membrane is....
a)
to regulate what enters and leaves the cell.
b)
fight bacteria and viruses that enter the cell.
c)
provide rigid support and protection to the cell.
d)
make sure each cell can move
67.
Hydrophilic means...
a)
water-loving
b)
water-fearing
c)
nonpolar
d)
lipid soluble
68.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
69.
What is NOT TRUE about the cell membrane
a)
It controls what enters and leaves the cell
b)
Semipermeable
c)
Phospholipid bilayer
d)
Contains digestive enzymes
70.
What is embedded in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
proteins
b)
salt
c)
water
71.
True or false:  Regulating what enters and leaves the cell helps the cell maintain homeostasis. 
a)
True
b)
False
72.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
73.
A ______________ is composed of a phosphate and glycerol head and 2 fatty acid chain tails. 
a)
phospholipid 
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Cholesterol 
d)
Protein 
74.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
75.
Which letter indicates an integral protein?
a)
E
b)
F
c)
H
d)
I
76.

Who is credited for this model of the cell membrane that was predominant from the 1930s to the 1960s?

a)

Singer and Nicholson

b)

Davson and Danelli

c)

Gorter and Grendel

d)

Watson and Crick

77.

What issues were found with the Davson-danelli model that meant the Singer - Nicholson model was eventually accepted?

a)

Electron micrographs showed a light band sandwiched between 2 dark bands

b)

Freeze etched electron micrographs showed globular structures crossing the membranes

c)

Membrane proteins were shown to have hydrophobic sections.

d)

Fluorescent marking of membrane proteins showed they could move around within the membrane

e)

There were twice as many phospholipids in red blood cells than were needed to make a monolayer membrane.

78.

This freeze-etched electron micrograph of the membrane suggested which piece of evidence that helped to falsify the Davson-Danelli model?

a)

Membrane proteins are not even distributed across membranes

b)

Membrane proteins appear to cross through the membrane

c)

Membrane proteins make an even layer on the outside of membranes

d)

Membranes do not have proteins

79.

Which statements make up the cell theory?

a)

All living things are made of cells.

b)

All cells are microscopic.

c)

Cells are the smallest unit of life.

d)

All cells come from pre-existing cells.

80.

Why do multicellular organisms have emergent properties?

a)

They have more genes than unicellular organisms.

b)

Properties of unicellular organisms are enhanced by having many cells.

c)

All of their genes are expressed whereas unicellular organisms express only some.

d)

They show properties that can only result from the interaction of many cells.

81.

What happens to the cell surface area to volume ratio as a cell grows?

a)

It decreases, so production of waste material is reduced.

b)

It increases, so mineral ion absorption is increased.

c)

It increases, so osmosis is reduced.

d)

It decreases, so rate of gas exchange is too low.

82.

Which feature of striated muscle cells allows them to be considered as a possible exception to the cell theory?

a)

They are found in multicellular organisms.

b)

They contain more than one nucleus.

c)

They are specialized for movement.

d)

They do not carry out mitosis.

83.

Which characteristic of stem cells makes them useful for treating Stargardt’s disease?

a)

They can differentiate into retinal cells.

b)

They are readily available from specially created embryos.

c)

They transport white blood cells to the eyes.

d)

They divide by binary fission so provide sufficient cells.

84.

If cells of a multicellular organism have the same genes, how can there be many different cell types in a body?

a)

Some genes but not others are expressed in each cell type.

b)

Cells lose some genes as development occurs.

c)

Genes do not determine the structure of a cell.

d)

Cells must practice division of labour in order to survive.

85.

In Pasteur's experiment, which of the flasks had broth that remained clear? (no bacterial growth)

a)

Neither

b)

Both

c)

The one on the right

d)

The one on the left

86.

A paramecium (a single- celled organism) captures and eats a bacteria cell. What life function is this an example of?

a)

excretion

b)

nutrition

c)

response

d)

homeostasis

87.

The nucleus signals to the cell that the cell needs to divide. What life function is this an example of?

a)

metabolism

b)

response

c)

growth

d)

reproduction

88.
Which ratio limits the size of cells?
a)
The rate of metabolism to mass
b)
The surface area to volume
c)
The mass to volume
d)
The volume to surface area
89.
Which statement is part of the cell theory?
a)
Cells are composed of organic molecules
b)
ells have DNA as their genetic material
c)
Cells have cytoplasm surrounded by a membrane
d)
Cells come from pre-existing cells
90.
Which functions are carried out by all unicellular organisms?
a)
growth, homeostasis, photosynthesis, response
b)
growth homeostasis, metabolism, response
c)
metabolism, photosynthesis, reproduction, response
d)
growth, nutrition, reproduction, ventilation
91.
All living things contain maintain a stable internal environment.
a)
Homeostasis
b)
Cell Theory
c)
Prokaryotes
d)
Eukaryotes
92.
A scientific ____________ is a broad explanation for events that is widely accepted as true.
a)
law
b)
theory
c)
observation
d)
method
93.

Which type of stem cells are most controversial?

a)

Embryonic stem cells

b)

Cord blood stem cells

c)

Adult stem cells

94.

The giant alga Acetabularia has a feature that suggests it is an exception to cell theory. What feature is this?

a)

it lacks a nucleus

b)

it lacks a cell wall

c)

it has only one mitochondrion

d)

it lacks subdivision into separate cells

95.

All of the chemical reactions that occur in living things.

a)

metabolism

b)

genetics

c)

homeostasis

d)

evolution

96.

Reproduction that only involves one parent.

a)

sexual

b)

asexual

c)

impossible

d)

increases genetic diversity

97.
For cells to stay alive they require what type of SA:V?
a)
Large SA, Large V
b)
Small SA, Large V
c)
Large SA, Small V
d)
Small SA, Small V
98.
As a cell increases in size, the surface area to volume ratio _________________.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
99.

Which of the following distinguishes prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

The presence of a nucleus

b)

The presence of ribosomes

c)

The presence of a cell wall

d)

The presence of genetic material

100.

Which of the following best describes prokaryotic DNA?

a)

Prokaryotes have plasmid DNA that is floating in the cytoplasm.

b)

Prokaryotes have plasmid DNA contained within a nucleus

c)

Prokaryotes have linear DNA that is floating in the cytoplasm.

d)

Prokaryotes have linear DNA contained within a nucleus

101.

Aaniyah is examining a cell under a microscope. She notices a mitochondria inside. Which of the following is a conclusion she might draw?

a)

She is examining a eukaryotic cell.

b)

She is examining a prokaryotic cell.

c)

This cell could be either eukaryotic or prokaryotic.

102.

Where in the human body can pluripotent stem cells be found?

a)

nowhere

b)

bone marrow

c)

umbilical cord

d)

embryo

103.

Which of the following cells can be described as multipotent?

a)

An embryonic cell that can differentiate into all the cell types in the body

b)

A adult brain stem cell that can differentiate into one of several nerve cells found in the brain

c)

A zygote that can divide and differentiate into all the cell types in the body including the placenta

d)

A cell that is already specialised

104.

What process best explains how muscle cells and nerve cells can develop from the same fertilized egg?

a)

genetic engineering

b)

mitosis

c)

differentiation

d)

sexual reproduction

105.
What is the difference between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?
a)
Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than adult stem cells
b)
Adult stem cells are pluripotent, just like embryonic stem cells
c)
Adult stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic stem cells
d)
Adult stem cells grow bigger than embryonic stem cells
106.

In Stargardt's, the type of cells that are degenerated are the:

a)

retina

b)

immune

c)

embryonic

d)

stem

107.
An Amoeba is a unicellular, animal-like protist that lives in ponds and streams. According to cell theory, where did this cell come from?
a)
another pre-existing amoeba cell.
b)
energy from sun that allowed the protist to reproduce.
c)
a multicellular organism.
d)
the nonliving environment.
108.

Rocks are not living because

a)

they never move

b)

they don't get bigger

c)

they are not made of cells

d)

they don't breathe

109.

When pathogens get into our bodies, we have an immune system response that fights the pathogens until we get back to our most healthy state. The characteristic of life this describes best is...

a)

Metabolism

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Adaptation

d)

Reproduction

110.

Which statement is true about these 2 animals?

a)

The elephant has larger cells

b)

Both animals have the same size cells

c)

The mouse cells are more efficient

d)

The elephant cells divide faster

111.

What is the surface area of this cube?

a)

600 cm

b)

600 cm2

c)

60 cm

d)

60 cm2

112.

The SA:V ratio is given for 4 different cells. Which cell would be most likely to survive?

a)

48:6

b)

48:2

c)

2:48

d)

6:48

113.

Characteristics and/or abilities that only arise from the interaction of the component parts of a structure.

a)

Differentiation

b)

Hierarchy

c)

Adaptation

d)

Emergent property

114.
Adult stem cells are?
a)
mutlipotent
b)
pluripotent
c)
totipotent
d)
isopotent 
115.
Embryonic stem cells are?
a)
mutlipotent
b)
pluripotent
c)
totipotent
d)
isopotent 
116.

Striated muscle is an example of an exception to the cell theory because

a)

It has very large cells

b)

Muscle isn't made of cells

c)

The cell has many nuclei

d)

There is no cell membrane between the cells

117.

Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.

b)

Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.

c)

Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.

d)

Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.

118.
Type of cell shown?
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
Bacterial
d)
Plant
119.
What type of cell is pictured?
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic
c)
Plant
d)
Animal
120.

Some prokaryotes and eukaryotes have a cellular structure called a flagella. What is the purpose of the flagella?

a)

to transport molecules across the cell membrane

b)

to propel the cell through liquid

c)

to collect food for the cell

d)

to attach the organism to something else

121.
Which organelle is only found in a plant cell? 
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
122.
Which organelle is only found in a plant cell? 
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
123.

You would find this type of ribosome in

a)

Eukaryotic cells

b)

Prokaryotic cells

c)

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

d)

Only the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells

124.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondria
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
125.

This image shows the ________________ process of _______________________.

a)

sexual ; binary fission

b)

asexual ; binary fission

c)

sexual ; mitosis

d)

asexual ; mitosis

126.

The type of cell that stores carbohydrates as glycogen is a

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Plant and animal

d)

No cells store carbohydrates as glycogen

127.
All living things are made of cells.
a)
Endosymbiotic Theory
b)
Characteristic of life
c)
Prokaryotes
d)
Eukaryotes
128.
Bacteria, Archea, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
a)
Kingdoms of life
b)
Domains of life
c)
Prokaryotic cells
d)
Endosymbiotic Theory