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WorksheetsAP Biology Final REVIEW
Total questions: 133
Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins
Which of the following does not result from hydrogen bonding in water molecules?
Cohesion
Adhesion
Surface Tension
Dissolving fats
Why is water considered polar?
Nonpolar covalent bonds in structure
Ionic bonds in structure
Polar covalent bonds in structure
Hydrophobic interaction in structure
Which macromolecule(s) have nitrogen?
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Nucleic Acids
Nucleic Acids & Proteins
Which macromolecule(s) have phosphorus?
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Nucleic Acids
Fats
Which macromolecule(s) have sulfur?
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Nucleic Acids
Fats
Describes the forming of a bond between monomers with the removal of a water molecule.
Hydrolysis
Dehydration
Describes the breaking of a bond within a polymer using water.
Hydrolysis
Dehydration
Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a nucleic acid?
pentose sugar
nitrogenous base
phosphate
amino acid
Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a protein?
Amine Group
R Group
Carboxyl Group
Nitrogenous Base
Describe the orientation of the phospholipids in the membrane.
Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophilic heads on exterior
Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophilic head on extracellular
Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophobic tails on exterior
Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophobic tails on extracellular
How is DNA/RNA synthesis directionally oriented?
new nucleotides are added to 5' phosphate
new nucleotides are added to 3' phosphate
new nucleotides are added to 5' hydroxyl
new nucleotides are added to 3' hydroxyl
Identify the pairing and number of bonds in DNA double helix
A pairs with T (2 bonds) & G pairs with C (3 bonds)
A pairs with G (2 bonds) & T pairs with C (3 bonds)
A pairs with T (3 bonds) & G pairs with C (2 bonds)
A pairs with G (3 bonds) & T pairs with C (2 bonds)
What component of the polypeptide is the next amino acid added forming the peptide bond?
amino group
hydrogen
carboxyl group
R groups
Which protein involves R group bonding to form the final three dimensional structure?
primary
secondary
tertiary
quaternary
Which protein structure involves the peptide bonds between amino acids?
primary
secondary
tertiary
quaternary
DNA and RNA differ on many qualities, which of the following is NOT a difference?
Sugar
Nitrogenous Base
Phosphate Group
Strandedness
Describe the difference between rough ER and smooth ER.
Rough ER compartmentalizes cell; Smooth ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis
Rough ER functions in ribosome synthesis; Smooth ER functions in lipid synthesis
Rough ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis; Smooth ER compartmentalizes cell
Rough ER functions in lipid synthesis; Smooth ER functions in ribosome synthesis
Which organelle is a membrane-bound structure that functions in correct folding/chemical modification of proteins?
Golgi complex
Lysosome
Mitochondria
Chloroplast
Which is membrane-enclosed sacs that contain hydrolytic enzymes?
Golgi complex
Lysosome
Mitochondria
Chloroplast
Which is responsible for storage and release of macromolecules and cellular waster products. In plants, aids in turgor.
Endoplasmic Reticulum
Lysosome
Mitochondria
Vacuoles
Which of the following is the location for the light-dependent reactions?
grana/thylakoid membrane
matrix
stroma
cristae
Which of the following is the location for the Krebs cycle?
grana/thylakoid membrane
matrix
stroma
cristae
Which of the following is the location for the ATP synthesis in cellular respiration?
grana/thylakoid membrane
matrix
stroma
cristae
Which of the following is the location for the ATP synthesis in photosynthesis?
grana/thylakoid membrane
matrix
stroma
cristae
Describe the relationship between cell size and SA:V ratios.
As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio increases
As cells decrease in size, the SA:V ratio decreases
As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio decreases
Cell size has no effect on the SA:V ratio
Describe the characteristics of a membrane-bound protein.
Entire protein is hydrophilic
Entire protein is hydrophobic
Hydrophilic R group exterior cell & hydrophobic R group interior membrane
Hydrophilic R group interior membrane & hydrophobic R group interior cell
Identify which of the following will easily pass through the membrane.
Water
Protein Hormone
Steroid Hormone
Charged Ion
Identify which of the following will bind to a membrane protein (and will not enter the cell).
Water
Protein Hormone
Steroid Hormone
Charged Ion
Which of the following requires an input of energy for membrane transport?
Charged ion moving against concentration gradient
Water moving into a hypertonic cell
Charged ion moving with concentration gradient
Water moving out of a hypotonic cell
What is the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis?
Endocytosis involves cytoplasm of a neighboring cell entering
Endocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to bring materials in cell
Exocytosis involves cytoplasm of a neighboring cell exiting
Exocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to remove material from cell
Which of the following correctly describe the movement of water?
Cell with 0.5M concentration will gain water from the 1.0M exterior solution
Cell with 0.5M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution
Cell with 1.0M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution
Cell with 0.5M concentration will lose water to the 0.5M exterior solution
Why is a eukaryotic cell able to be larger than a prokaryotic cell?
Membrane-bound organelles compartmentalize intracellular processes
Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell
Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell
Absence of membrane-bound organelles allows for enzymatic reactions.
Where on an enzyme does the substrate bind?
active site
allosteric site
C-terminus
N-terminus
Describe the effect on the free energy of doubling the amount of enzyme.
double the free energy
half the free energy
triple the free energy
no effect on free energy
Which structure is unaffected by denaturation?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary
Which environmental conditions can cause denaturation of the enzyme?
slight increase in temperature
extreme increase in temperature
decrease in temperature
extreme increase in temperature and pH changes
Which of the following will increase the rate of the reaction?
increase product
increase substrate
increase inhibitor
increase enzyme
Describe why an increase in temperature increases the rate of the reaction.
increase in temperature increases the speed/kinetic energy of particles
increase in temperature activates more enzyme to increase the rate
increase in temperature results in increase in substrate available
increase in temperature allows for a tighter fit in the active site
Describe the difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors.
noncompetitive binds to active site and competitive binds to other site
competitive binds to active site and noncompetitive binds to other site
competitive is irreversible and noncompetitive is reversible binding
noncompetitive is irreversible and competitive is reversible binding
In order to maintain order and power cellular processes,
energy input must exceed energy loss
energy input equals energy loss
energy loss must exceed energy input
energy loss equals energy input
What is the process of an endergonic reaction being fueled by an exergonic reaction called?
second law of thermodynamics
energy coupling
first law of thermodynamics
endergonic/exergonic switch
Where did photosynthesis first evolve?
prokaryotic organisms
alien organisms
eukaryotic organisms
abiotic processes
What are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
ATP & NADH
CO2 & H2O
NADPH & ATP
Organic Compounds & O2
What is the function of the electron transport chain between Photosystem II and Photosystem I?
establish electrochemical gradient of protons
to funnel electrons into photosystem I for the Calvin cycle
transport electrons to oxygen to make water
to synthesize ATP using ATP synthase
Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
thylakoid membrane
cristae
stroma
matrix
Where does the electron transport chain take place?
chloroplasts
prokaryotic plasma membrane
mitochondria
all of the choices
Which of the following are electron carriers for the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?
NADPH
FADH2
NADH
NADH & FADH2
Which process releases energy in glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate?
Glycolysis
Oxidative Phosphorylation
Krebs Cycle
Fermentation
What is oxidation?
loss of electrons
loss of water
gain of electrons
gain of water
In the electron transport chain of cellular respiration, where is the electrochemical gradient of protons generated?
cytosol
cristae
matrix
intermembrane space
Which process does NOT require oxygen?
Glycolysis
Oxidative Phosphorylation
Krebs Cycle
Aerobic respiration
Describe the pathway of electrons in the light reactions.
H2O → PSI → ETC → PSII → NADPH
H2O → PSII → ETC → PSI → NADPH
H2O → PSII → ETC → PSI → NADH
H2O → PSI → ETC → PSII → NADH
What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway?
reception, transduction, response
confirmation, transduction, transcription
reception, amplification, transcription
confirmation, amplification, response
Transduction step traditionally amplifies the signal, which of the following are NOT involved with transduction?
secondary messengers
protein modification
phosphorylation cascade
ligands
Which of the following is NOT a response by the cell from a signal transduction pathway?
cell growth
gene expression
secretion of molecules
all of the above are responses
Describe what occurs when the ligand binds to the receptor.
confirmation change in shape of receptor
phosphorylation of ligand
ligand passes through the membrane
receptor binds additional ligands
Describe the impact of a mutation in any domain of the protein components of the transduction signaling pathway.
receptor unable to bind to ligand
no changes in transduction due to initial signal transduction from ligand
alters response of the cell
amplification of signaling pathway to bind more ligands
Which feedback mechanism involves homeostasis of a particular condition by regulating physiological processes?
Positive Feedback
Negative Feedback
Which feedback mechanism involves amplifying responses and processes in biological organisms?
Positive Feedback
Negative Feedback
Which of the following is NOT a stage of the cell cycle?
interphase
cytokinesis
mitosis
apoptosis
Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?
G0
G1
G2
S
Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?
G0
G1
G2
S
Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis?
metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
Which of the following is NOT a role of mitosis?
gametes
tissue repair
growth
asexual reproduction
Which checkpoint is responsible for ensuring nondisjunction does not take place?
G1 checkpoint
S checkpoint
G2 checkpoint
M checkpoint
Describe the interaction between cyclin and CdK.
cyclin interacts with CdK to initiate the mitotic phase
cyclin is the precursor to CdK, when synthesized allow for mitosis proceed
cyclin acts as an inhibitor to CdK to wait for all DNA to be synthesized
cyclin binds to CdK to initiate DNA replication
Mitosis results in...
2 identical diploid cells
4 unique diploid cells
2 unique haploid cells
4 identical haploid cells
Meiosis results in _____________ because there is/are _______________.
2 identical haploid cells, 1 round of division
4 identical diploid cells, 2 rounds of division
4 unique haploid cells, 2 rounds of division
2 unique diploid cells, 1 round of division
Which of the following does NOT increase variation in gamete formation?
crossing over
fertilization of gametes
random assortment of chromosomes
condensation of chromatin
This process involves homologous chromatids exchanging genetic material to increase genetic diversity.
crossing over
random fertilization
independent assortment
gene flow
Which of the following does NOT support the concept of common ancestry for all organisms?
DNA/RNA (genetic code) are shared by all living systems
Ribosomes are found in all forms of life
Glycolysis takes place in all organisms
All organisms undergo sexual reproduction
Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of the shown pedigree?
Autosomal Dominant
Sex-Linked Dominant
Autosomal Recessive
Sex-Linked Recessive
Which of the following best describes the phenotypic ratio of 6:3:3:2:1:1?
Incomplete dominance & complete dominance on dihybrid cross
Incomplete dominance on dihybrid cross
Complete dominance on dihybrid cross
Epistasis on dihybrid cross
Describe the cause of a cross resulting in greater than 50% parental phenotypes and less then 50% recombinant phenotypes
Genes are linked on the same chromosome
Genes are located on different arms of the same chromosome
Gene are on different chromosomes
Gene are found in different gametes
In animals, traits determine by the mitochondrial DNA are inherited from the _______________.
mother
brother
father
sister
Identify the type of inheritance of the pedigree.
Sex-Linked
Mitochondrial
Autosomal
Random
Snowshoe hares are brown in summer and white in winter, describe this event.
Hares undergo phenotypic plasticity & environment influences gene express
Hares are white in winter due to the snow binding to hair follicles
Hares are brown from exposed dirt in summer
Hares remain hidden in the winter months inhibiting fur darken from sun
Describe the process of nondisjunction.
Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information
The alignment of the chromosomes on the metaphase plate
Homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids remain attached during anaphase
The process of sperm and egg fusing to create a zygote
When does the process of independent assortment take place?
prophase I
metaphase I
anaphase I
telophase I
When does the process of crossing over take place?
prophase I
metaphase I
anaphase I
telophase I
What phase of meiosis describes the law of segregation?
telophase I
anaphase I
telophase II
anaphase II
Which of the following is the predicted ratio of a testcross with a dihybrid?
9:3:3:1
9:6:1
1:2:1
1:1:1:1
Which of the following is a predicted ratio of a dihybrid cross?
9:3:3:1
9:3:4
1:2:1
1:1:1:1
Describe why a male is more likely to be affected by a sex-linked trait?
Males have only 1 Y chromosome
Females have only 1 Y chromosome
Males have only 1 X chromosome
Females have only 1 X chromosomes
How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ from a eukaryote?
Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukaryotes has linear DNA
Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA
Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukaryotes has prokaryote DNA
Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA
Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have plasmids. What are plasmids?
large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules
large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules
small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules
small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules
Identify which of the following best describes purines and pyrimidines.
Purines (C, T, & U) have single ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have double ring
Purines (C, T, & U) have double ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have single ring
Purines (A & G) have single ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have double ring
Purines (A & G) have double ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have single ring
Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'
3' - TGGAC - 5'
3' - GTCCA - 5'
5' - GTCCA - 3'
5' - CAGGT - 3'
Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork?
helicase
DNA polymerase
topoisomerase
ligase
Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA strands?
helicase
DNA polymerase
topoisomerase
ligase
Which enzyme requires RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis?
helicase
DNA polymerase
topoisomerase
ligase
Which enzyme is responsible for joining the fragments on the lagging strand?
helicase
DNA polymerase
topoisomerase
ligase
Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.
directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'
synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous
directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'
synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous
How do the three types of RNA work together?
mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome
mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information
mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome
mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose
Which of the following are NOT post-transcriptional modifications?
5' cap
intron removal
poly-A tail
TATA box
During transcription, what is the relationship between DNA and RNA?
Template DNA is the noncoding strand, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction
Template DNA is the coding strand, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction
Template DNA is the noncoding strand, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction
Template DNA is the coding strand, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction
Where does translation take place in prokaryotes & eukaryotes?
Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or nucleus
Prokaryotes - cytosol or rough ER; Eukaryotes - cytosol
Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or rough ER
Prokaryotes - cytosol or nucleus; Eukaryotes - cytosol
What is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA read in triplets called?
anticodon
codon
triplet box
wobble
How do retroviruses violate the central dogma?
Retroviruses are responsible for using DNA to synthesize more viral RNA
Retroviruses are pre-historic and existed prior to the central dogma
Retroviruses use enzymes to make DNA from RNA & integrate into host DNA
Retroviruses use host DNA to make viral RNA, then incorporate into host DNA
Which of the following describes epigenetic changes that affect gene expression?
alternative RNA splicing
post-transcriptional modification
DNA methylation or histone acetylation
operon inhibition
Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region
Ligase
Topoisomerase
DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
Identify the primary source of genetic variation
crossing over
mutations
random fertilization
independent assortment
What determines the level of effect of a mutation?
environmental context
codon-anticodon pairing
structure of protein
process of meiosis
Which of the following genetic engineering techniques is incorrectly described?
Electrophoresis separates molecules based on size & charge
Bacterial transformation introduces DNA to bacterial cells
PCR allows for DNA fragments to be stabilized for engineering processes
DNA sequencing determines the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule
In Darwin's thinking, the more closely related two different organisms are, the
more similar their habitats are.
less similar their DNA sequences are.
more recently they shared a common ancestor.
less likely they are to have the same genes in common.
more similar they are in size.
Natural selection is based on all of the following except
genetic variation exists within populations.
the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring.
individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die young.
populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support.
individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.
During drought years on the Galapagos, small, easily eaten seeds become rare, leaving mostly large, hard-cased seeds that only birds with large beaks can eat. If a drought persists for several years, what should one expect to result from natural selection?
Small birds gaining larger beaks by exercising their mouth parts.
Small birds mutating their beak genes with the result that later-generation offspring have larger beaks.
Small birds anticipating the long drought and eating more to gain weight and, consequently, growing larger beaks.
More small-beaked birds dying than larger-beaked birds. The offspring produced in subsequent generations have a higher percentage of birds with large beaks.
Larger birds eating less so smaller birds can survive.
Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, these bones having developed from very similar embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these similarities?
By identifying the bones as being analogous
By the principle of convergent evolution
By proposing that humans, bats, and dolphins share a common ancestor
By looking at where the animals live
Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing
non-random mating.
geographic isolation.
genetic drift.
mutations.
gene flow.
When we say that an individual organism has a greater fitness than another individual, we specifically mean that the organism
lives longer than others of its species.
competes for resources more successfully than others of its species.
mates more frequently than others of its species.
utilizes resources more efficiently than other species occupying similar niches.
leaves more viable offspring than others of its species.
Which describes an African butterfly species that exists in two strikingly different color patterns?
artificial selection
directional selection
stabilizing selection
disruptive selection
sexual selection
Fossil evidence indicates that horses have gradually increased in size over geologic time. Which of the following terms best describes this?
artificial selection
directional selection
stabilizing selection
disruptive selection
sexual selection
Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Those producing fewer or more than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this?
artificial selection
directional selection
stabilizing selection
disruptive selection
sexual selection
Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian islands have different elaborate courtship rituals that involve fighting other males and stylized movements that attract females. What type of reproductive isolation does this represent?
habitat isolation
temporal isolation
behavioral isolation
gametic isolation
postzygotic barriers
The greatest degree of genetic variability would be expected among organisms that reproduce via
budding
sexual recombination
vegetative propagation
mitosis
sporulation
All of the following are examples of events that can prevent breeding between species EXCEPT:
The potential mates experience geographical isolation.
The potential mates experience behavioral isolation.
The potential mates have different courtship rituals.
The potential mates have similar breeding seasons.
The gametes of potential mates have biochemical differences.
Homologous structures are often cited as evidence for evolution. All of the following are examples of homologous structures EXCEPT
the wings of a bird and with wings of a bat
the flippers of a whale and the arms of a man
the pectoral fins of a porpoise and the flippers of a seal
the forelegs of an insect and the forelimbs of a dog
the hind legs of a lizard and the legs of a chicken.
All of the following are part of Hardy Weinberg law for populations in equilibirum EXCEPT
Large population
No immigration or emigration
No natural selection
Non random mating
No genetic mutations
What does a phylogenetic tree show?
shows how living organisms are related to each other using evidences
organizes living organisms by color
shows how living organisms interact with each other in the real world
shows how certain organisms grow based on their genes
Which of the following best describes altruistic behaviors?
a defensive behavior in which organisms huddle all together
a selfless behavior to save the population but risk yourself
a protective behavior describing how organisms migrate
a reproductive behavior for attracting a mate through a ritual
A cheetah urinates on a tree. Which of the following types of signals is the cheetah using?
visual
audible
tactile
chemical
Which of the following best describes the body temperature regulation for an alligator?
ectotherm that maintains body temperature through metabolism
ectotherm that maintains body temperature through behaviors
endotherm that maintains body temperature through metabolism
endotherm that maintains body temperature through behaviors
Which of the following best describes the relationship between metabolic rate per unit body mass and the size of multicellular organisms?
the smaller the organism, the higher the metabolic rate
the larger the organism, the higher the metabolic rate
the higher the surface area to volume ratio of the cells, the higher the metabolic rate
the lower the surface area to volume ratio of the cells, the higher the metabolic rate
Which of the following best describes the changes to the trophic structure with a decrease in plant population?
increase in primary and secondary consumers
decrease in primary and secondary consumers
decrease in secondary consumer, increase in primary consumer
increase in secondary consumer, decrease in primary consumer
Which of the following is a material that heterotrophs are unable to metabolize?
carbohydrates
nucleic acids
lipids
proteins
In a population of 100 individuals, 20 individuals are born and there are 5 deaths. What is the r value?
Recall: r = per capita growth rate of population
.05
.15
.20
.25
If the population size is 100 individuals and there is a r value of 0.3, what is dN/dt?
Recall: dN/dt = rN
10
15
30
60
As the population size approaches carrying capacity, dN/dt...
increases steadily
increases slowly
decreases slowly
decreases steadily
Which of the following describes the relationship of the mistletoe that gains resources and harms the mesquite tree that it grows on?
parasitism
commensalism
mutualism
predator/prey
Which of the following describes the disadvantage of little species diversity in a community?
less likely to have immigration
more likely to be consumed by predators
more likely to have mutations
less resilient to changes in the environment
Which of the following is an organism that is disproportionate relative to their abundance and when removed from the ecosystem causes it to collapse?
dominant species
invasive species
keystone species
primary consumer
A group of bacteria are resistant to antibiotics. Which of the following describes HOW the bacteria became resistant?
the bacterial population got changed by the antibiotic in the environment
the bacterial population had random mutations making them favorable in the presence of the antibiotic
the bacterial population consumed the antibiotic providing a food source
the bacterial population uses the antibiotic for reproduction
Which of the following is NOT a reason for exponential growth of an invasive species?
outcompete other organisms
free of predators
free of competition
free of prey
