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Unit 4 Test Review

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is a G protein?
a)
specific type of membrane-receptor protein
b)
protein on the cytoplasmic side of a membrane
c)
membrane-bound enzyme
d)
relay protein
2.
What do second messengers do?
a)
transport a signal through the lipid bilayer
b)
relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell
c)
relay message from the inside of the mebrane throughout the cytoplasm
d)
dampen the message
3.
Signal amplification is most often achieved by
a)
an enzyme cascade
b)
binding of multiple signals
c)
branching pathways
d)
action of adenylyl cyclase
4.
Hormones are used in ____ signaling.
a)
endocrine
b)
juxtacrine
c)
autocrine
d)
paracrine
5.
The 3 steps of signal transduction in order are
a)
reception, transduction, response
b)
response, transduction, reception
c)
reception, response, transduction
d)
transduction, reception, response
6.
Protein kinases activate other relay proteins by adding a(n) ____ to them.
a)
phosphate
b)
ATP molecule
c)
cAMP
d)
GTP
7.
What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular signal molecule?
a)
phosphorylation cascade
b)
cAMP
c)
signal receptors
d)
phosphatase
8.
Each of the following numbered processes are involved in signal transduction pathways:  
 I.  Response  
II.  Amplification  
 III.  Reception  
IV.  Transduction
 Which of the following represents the sequence of events in a typical signal transduction pathway?
a)
I, II, III, IV
b)
III, I, IV, II
c)
II, IV, I, III
d)
III, IV, II, I
9.
Do plant cells communicate using hormones?
a)
yes
b)
no
10.
This is an example of
a)
paracrine signaling
b)
synaptic signaling
c)
long-distance signaling
d)
all of the above
11.
Which of the following is involved in many human medicines for disease?
a)
cAMP
b)
Calcium concentration
c)
G-protein pathways
d)
receptor tyrosine kinases
12.

What type of protein helps start mitosis and gene expression and is illustrated in the image?

a)

Receptor Tyrosine Kinases

b)

G-Proteins

c)

Ligand Mediated Ion Channels

d)

Enzymatic Protein Kinases

13.

What is being depicted in the image?

a)

Amplification of the signal molecule

b)

Enzymatic proteins inhibiting process of the signal transduction pathway

c)

Kinase groups adding dimer groups to other enzymes

d)

Diffusion of molecules within the cell due to the signaling molecule

14.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
G-protein receptor
b)
tyrosine kinase receptor
c)
gated ion channel
15.
What determines whether a signal molecule binds on the surface or enters the cell?
a)
size
b)
polarity
c)
ability to cross the membrane
d)
all of these are correct
16.

An example of LOCAL cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

17.

An example of DIRECT cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

18.

Name the structure labeled 'B' (see image)

a)

Post synaptic terminal

b)

Receptor

c)

Ligand

d)

Neurotransmitter

19.

The structure labeled 'E' is called _____ and is filled with ______

a)

Vacuole; lipids

b)

Synapse; neurotransmitters

c)

Membrane; lipids

d)

Vesicle; neurotransmitters

20.

Any signal molecule that binds to a receptor is called a _______.

a)

Neurotransmitter

b)

Ligand

c)

Receptor

d)

Acetylcholine

21.

cAMP is considered a "secondary messenger" which takes the original message (from the ligand) and _____________.

a)

amplifies it (spreads/grows it)

b)

shuts it off

c)

simply transfers the message to one kinase molecule

22.

Reflexes are much quicker than other actions, because the signal _______.

a)

Bypasses the brain

b)

Goes to the brain faster

23.

Which part of a neuron RECEIVES a signal?

a)

Dendrites

b)

Axon Terminals

24.
Which of the following would be an example of paracrine signaling in animals?
a)
neurotransmitter acetylcholine
b)
hormone epinephrine
c)
neurotransmitter norepinephrine
d)
growth factor
25.
Which of the following can activate a protein by transferring a phosphate group to it?
a)
cAMP
b)
G Protein
c)
protein kinase
d)
protein phosphatase
26.
What is a function of the second messenger IP3?
a)
bind to and activate protein kinase A
b)
activate transcription factors
c)
convert ATP to cAMP
d)
bind to and open ligand-gated channels
27.
Which of the following is a chemical message that usually travels through the bloodstream to target cells?
a)
hormone
b)
local regulator
c)
endocrine cell
28.
The two types of feedback systems that help organisms maintain homeostasis are:
a)
positive and negative 
b)
receptor and effector
c)
static and dynamic
d)
minor and major
29.
Maintaining body temperature is an example of a:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
30.

When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels. This is an example of a:

a)

Positive Feedback Loop

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

31.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
d)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
32.
What type of feedback loop is shown?
a)
negative
b)
neutral 
c)
positive
33.
What type of feedback loop is shown?
a)
Positive
b)
Neutral
c)
Negative
34.

When you get cut, your skin cells release hormones that signal platelets to come and stop the bleeding. Platelets then release more hormones that signal even more platelets to help stop bleeding. The hormone signals continue until the cut is closed. This is an example of what type of feedback?

a)

Positive Feedback Response

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

35.

As you get dehydrated, your blood becomes thicker and harder to pump. Your kidneys will respond by stopping urine production, sending the water from urine into your bloodstream to thin your blood back to normal level. This is an example of what type of feedback?

a)

Positive Feedback Response

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

36.

reverses the direction of change

a)

positive feedback

b)

effector

c)

hypothalamus

d)

negative feedback

37.

increases or speeds up original change

a)

negative feedback

b)

positive feedback

c)

endotherm

d)

ectotherm

38.
What is a series of events a cell goes through as they grow and divide?
a)
Cell Division
b)
Cell Cycle
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Mitosis
39.
What is the longest stage of the cell cycle called?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
M phase
c)
Interphase
d)
G1 Phase
40.
During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
41.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
42.

Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis?

a)

In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.

b)

In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.

c)

In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.

d)

In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.

43.
The division of the nucleus is known as:
a)
Synthesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
G1
d)
G2
44.

Humans have ________ chromosomes.

a)

21

b)

23

c)

46

d)

None of the above

45.
Eukaryotic cells store their genetic information(DNA) in __________.
a)
Chromosomes
b)
Centromeres
c)
karyotypes
d)
Proteins
46.

Loose, uncoiled DNA is called ________________.

a)

Centromere

b)

Chromatid

c)

Karyotype

d)

Chromatin

47.
Uncontrollable cell growth is known as _____
a)
obesity
b)
cancer
c)
diabetes
d)
hepatitis
48.
The structure labeled A is a(n)
a)
chromatid
b)
centriole
c)
centromere
d)
chromophere
49.

When a plant cell goes through cytokinesis, _____________.

a)

the 2 new nuclei are separated by the cell membrane pinching off.

b)

4 new cells are formed

c)

a cell plate forms, dividing the 2 new nuclei and cytoplasm to form 2 new daughter cells

d)

None of the above

50.
A human cell has 46 chromosomes before mitotic division.  How many chromosomes will the daughter cells after mitosis.
a)
12
b)
23
c)
46
d)
92
51.

Which cell cycle checkpoint verifies cell size and checks the DNA for damage?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

S checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

M checkpoint

52.

Which cell cycle checkpoint makes sure that chromosomes are duplicated and checks for damage of the replicated DNA?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

S checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

M checkpoint

53.

What type of gene prevents the cells with damage from continuing through the cell cycle?

a)

tumor supressor

b)

tumor initiator

c)

stem cell suppressor

d)

stem cell initiator

54.
Cell division is represented by what letter?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
55.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
56.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
57.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
58.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
59.
The cell carries out normal functions during..
a)
interphase
b)
cytokinesis
c)
mitosis
60.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
61.
the uncontrolled division of cells that results in malignant growth 
a)
tissues
b)
cancer
c)
mitosis
d)
anaphase
62.
Which of the following statements is true of cytokinesis
a)
takes place in plant cells only
b)
completes the cell cycle
c)
organizes DNA
d)
occurs in prophase
63.
Which of the following is NOT a reason we need mitosis.
a)
Growth
b)
Recovering from injuries
c)
Replacement of dead cells
d)
Sexual reproduction
64.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
 G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
65.
The individual strands on duplicated chromosomes are called_____________
a)
Centromeres
b)
daughters
c)
Chromatids
d)
Karyotypes
66.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
67.
When an animal cell goes through cytokinesis,__________
a)
a cell plate forms dividing the 2 new nuclei.
b)
the cell membrane pinches off the 2 new cells.
c)
4 new cells are formed.
d)
None of the above
68.
Cells of organism must replicate for ?
a)
growth
b)
repair of damaged cells
c)
replacement of dying cells.
d)
All of the above
69.
Name the phase:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
70.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
71.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
72.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
73.
The structures labeled B are
a)
centrioles
b)
chromatids
c)
centromeres
d)
chromopheres
74.
The chromosome in the diagram 
a)
has been replilcated
b)
consists of 2 copies of 1 chromosome
c)
is about to go through cell division
d)
all of the above.
75.
If a fruit fly has 8 chromosomes in each of its body cells, how many chromosomes will be in each daughter cell after mitosis? 
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
16
76.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
77.
An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a 
a)
tumor
b)
cyst
c)
lesion
d)
polyp
78.
Any substance that is known to cause cancer is called a
a)
carcinogen
b)
nicolyte
c)
pathogen
d)
retrovirus
79.
Metastasis is
a)
the spread of cancer from one part of the body to another.
b)
the growth of tumors in the lungs
c)
cancer of the blood cells
d)
cancer that is found in connective tissues
80.
Using drugs or medicines to destroy cancer cells.
a)
chemotherapy
b)
radiation therapy
c)
cancer surgery
d)
mitotic spindling
81.

What is a mutation?

a)

A mistake in DNA which can lead to cancer

b)

A complete copy of DNA

c)

A change in DNA which doesn't cause an issue

d)

A mistake in your body that is caught and removed

82.
Cancer harms the body by destroying healthy body tissues.
a)
True
b)
False
83.

Most prokaryotic organisms reproduce mainly by the process of

a)

regeneration

b)

binary fission

c)

budding

d)

production of spores

84.

Proteins that bind to cells and stimulate cell division are called

a)

enzymes.

b)

kinases

c)

growth factors.

d)

carcinogens.

85.

What is the term for the programmed death of cells?

a)

kinase

b)

cyclin

c)

carcinogen

d)

apoptosis

86.

Two internal factors that are important in advancing the cell cycle are

a)

kinases and cyclins.

b)

hormones and enzymes.

c)

phosphates and enzymes.

d)

proteins and platelets

87.

Which one of these is characteristic of cancer cells?

a)

They undergo apoptosis.

b)

They do not respond to growth inhibitors

c)

They respond to growth inhibitors.

88.

Which is a function of cyclins?

a)

Cyclins are carbohydrates that regulate DNA replication during the mitosis phase of the cell cycle.

b)

Cyclins are glycoproteins that repair DNA in the beginning of cell cycle.

c)

Cyclins are proteins that regulate when and how often a cell divides.

89.

Which of the following external factors will promote Mitosis after a wound?

a)

Growth factors

b)

Density Dependent Inhibition

c)

Anchorage dependence

d)

Cyclin-Dependent Kinases

90.

Which of the following external factors prevent cells from entering Mitosis if the cell is not attached to the extracellular matrix?

a)

Growth factors

b)

Density Dependent Inhibition

c)

Anchorage dependence

d)

Cyclin-Dependent Kinases

91.

Which of the following external factors prevent cells from entering Mitosis if they are touching other cells?

a)

Growth factors

b)

Density Dependent Inhibition

c)

Anchorage dependence

d)

Cyclin-Dependent Kinases

92.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
sex cells
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
93.
This produces 2 identical cells.
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
94.
What is it called when a sperm and egg meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
95.
What phase is  shown in the picture?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
anaphase 2
c)
metaphase 1
d)
telophase 1
96.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
97.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
98.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
a)
one haploid gamete
b)
three diploid gametes
c)
four diploid gametes
d)
four haploid gametes
99.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
100.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid Gametes
b)
Diploid Somatic Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
101.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
102.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
103.
Goes through P.M.A.T two rounds 
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Osmosis
d)
Transcription
104.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
105.
If a somatic cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
106.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
107.
Which of these cells would be produced through meiosis?
a)
skin cells
b)
liver cells
c)
brain cells
d)
sperm cells
108.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
109.
When homologous chromosomes match up, they form a structure call a ___________.
a)
tetrad
b)
triad
c)
diploid
d)
gamete
110.
Crossing over helps promote 
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
111.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
112.
What is another reason we need meiosis?
a)
So the offspring has genes from both parents
b)
So the offspring has genes from one parent
c)
So the offspring has genes from neither parents
d)
So the offspring makes its own genes
113.
Why do we need meiosis?
a)
To double the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
b)
To halve the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
c)
To triple the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
d)
To not change the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
114.
Chromosomes exchange genetic material during 
a)
crossing over
b)
replication
c)
synthesis
d)
translation
115.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
116.

What is a locus?

a)

a structure that appears during prophase I and consists of two paired genes

b)

the precise location of a gene on a chromosome

c)

the precise DNA sequence of a gene

d)

a cell with two chromosome sets

117.

Sexual and asexual reproduction are alike in that __________.

a)

they can both occur in multicellular organisms

b)

they both require meiosis to complete the reproductive cycle

c)

in both cases, every parent transmits all of its genes to its progeny

d)

they both involve two parents

118.

A karyotype is __________.

a)

a photograph of all the chromosomes in a single cell from an individual

b)

a list of all the genes a person carries

c)

all the possible gametes a person could produce

d)

a method of identifying crossover events

119.

Which, if any, of the following statements is true?

a)

Haploid cells cannot divide by meiosis.

b)

Haploid cells can divide by mitosis.

c)

Diploid cells can divide by mitosis.

d)

All of the above responses are correct.

120.

Which of the following is part of the life cycle called alternation of generations?

a)

zygote

b)

multicellular haploid stage (gametophyte)

c)

spores

d)

All of the listed responses are correct.

121.

Which of the following is part of the life cycle called alternation of generations?

a)

zygote

b)

multicellular haploid stage (gametophyte)

c)

spores

d)

All of the listed responses are correct.

122.

How many pairs of autosomes do humans have?

a)

23

b)

22

c)

2

d)

1

123.

Sister chromatids __________.

a)

have the same gene loci but may have different alleles of some genes

b)

are involved in mitosis only

c)

are involved in meiosis only

d)

are identical copies of each other formed through DNA synthesis

124.

Which of the following statements about homologous chromosomes is correct?

a)

They pair up in prophase II.

b)

They are found in the cells of human females but not in those of human males.

c)

They are found in haploid cells.

d)

They have genes for the same traits at the same loci.

125.

Somatic cells in humans contain __________ set(s) of chromosomes and are therefore termed __________.

a)

one ... diploid

b)

two ... haploid

c)

one ... haploid

d)

two ... diploid

126.

Nearly all life cycles have both haploid and diploid phases. Usually, the transition from haploid to diploid takes place __________.

a)

at fertilization, when gametes fuse

b)

during embryonic development

c)

when mitotic cytokinesis occurs

d)

when DNA is replicated during the S phase of the cell cycle

127.

Which of the following contributes to genetic variation in sexually reproducing species?

a)

crossing over, internal fertilization, independent assortment

b)

random fertilization, independent assortment, crossing over

c)

internal fertilization, spindle formation, crossing over

d)

random fertilization, DNA synthesis, independent assortment

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