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ENVS Final

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 2hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How were the Great Lakes created?

a)

by the clearing of forests

b)

by the damming of rivers

c)

by the melting of glaciers

d)

by the shrinking of oceans

2.

Which term best defined as a geographic area that includes all of the rivers and streams that flow into a lake or sea?

a)

basin

b)

landmass

c)

plateau

d)

watershed

3.

Insects feed on algae and plants that grow in the Great Lakes. Tiny fish eat insects. Larger fish feed on the small fish. Eagels and others eat the larger fish.

a)

Great Lakes habitat

b)

Great Lakes watershed

c)

Great Lakes food chain

d)

Great Lakes freshwater ecosytem

4.

Which of the following suffered the most from DDT poisoning in the Great Lakes

a)

fish-eating birds

b)

large fish

c)

small fish

d)

tiny organisms

5.

The sea lamprey and zebra mussel are a part of which of these Great Lake ecosystem problems?

a)

wetland loss

b)

invasive species

c)

algae explosions

d)

point-source pollution

6.

What is the main difference between point source and non-point source pollution

a)

how toxic the pollution is

b)

where the pollution comes from

c)

what time of the year the pollution occurs

d)

what animals are harmed by the pollution

7.

Which of these is a major reason for a growing water shortage in many countries?

a)

habitat loss

b)

invasive species

c)

shrinking glaciers

d)

population growth

8.

Which of the following is a cause of habitat loss in the Great Lakes

a)

loss of forests and wetlands to industrial activity

b)

introduction of invasive species

c)

the harm DDT inflicts on birds

d)

how smaller watersheds drain into larger watersheds

9.

Which of the following is the best definition of "food chain"?

a)

a community of all the living things and the environment in an area

b)

all of the feeding relationships within and ecosystem

c)

a geographic area that includes all of the land and waterways that drain into a body of water

d)

a series of plants and animals, each of which depends on the one below it for food

10.

Suppose the water is polluted in such a way that all of the phytoplankton die. How might this affect this food chain?

a)

The smelt would lose their food and die.

b)

The smelt and lake trout would both lose their food sources and die.

c)

The smelt, lake trout, and herring gulls would lose all their food sources.

d)

They would not affect the food chain.

11.

Which Great Lake has the longest retention time?

a)

Lake Erie

b)

Lake Superior

c)

Lake Huron

d)

Lake Michigan

12.

Which Great Lake has the shortest retention time?

a)

Lake Erie

b)

Lake Superior

c)

Lake Huron

d)

Lake Michigan

13.

Which Great Lake is the largest by volume?

a)

Lake Superior

b)

Lake Erie

c)

Lake Ontario

d)

Lake Michigan

14.

Why was Lake Erie able to recover so quickly from pollution?

a)

Because of its short retention time

b)

Because it is the smallest lake by volume

c)

Because of its long retention time and large volume

d)

Because the lake is small in volume and retention time

15.

Which direction does water flow in the Great Lakes?

a)

West to East

b)

East to West

c)

South to North

d)

North to South

16.

Which Great Lake has is the highest in elevation?

a)

Lake Superior

b)

Lake Michigan

c)

Lake Huron

d)

Lake Ontario

17.

Which Great Lake is the lowest in elevation?

a)

Lake Ontario

b)

Lake Superior

c)

Lake Michigan

d)

Lake Erie

18.

How many people die a year from water-born diseases?

a)

100,000

b)

2,000,000

c)

200,000

d)

1,000,000,000

19.

How much of Earth is covered in water?

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

70%

d)

80%

20.

What did the Green Revolution have to do with?

a)

Agriculture

b)

Industry

c)

Population

d)

Energy

21.

What is potable water?

a)

Drinking water

b)

Sewage water

c)

Agriculture runoff

d)

Unfiltered water

22.

How much did Nestle pay to extract water from the streams in Michigan?

a)

Nothing

b)

$100,000

c)

$250,000

d)

$2,500,000

23.

Is water a basic human right?

a)

Yes.

b)

No.

24.

Is bottled water safer than tap water?

a)

Yes.

b)

No.

25.

What deadly mineral was found in the water in Flint, Michigan?

a)

Lead

b)

Iron

c)

Copper

d)

Chromium

26.

Which was a side effect of the contaminated water in Flint?

a)

Discolored water/smelly

b)

Rashes/sores/aches

c)

Hair thinning

d)

All of the above.

27.

Which type of water is more difficult to treat?

a)

River water.

b)

Lake water.

28.

Which common chemical is added to drinking water to kill off E. coli?

a)

Chlorine

b)

Sulfur

c)

Phosphorous

d)

Florine

29.

Over the last ten years what common material has been showing up more and more in our oceans than over the century before us?

a)

Plastic

b)

Paper

c)

Metal

d)

Sewage

30.

Plastics can release chemicals called dioxins. What can dioxins cause?

a)

Cancer

b)

Flu

c)

Fertility

d)

All of the above.

31.

What is the ratio of plastic to plankton in the water?

a)

1:1

b)

3:1

c)

1:3

d)

0:1

32.

In water treatment, twigs, stones and other bits are removed by...

a)

Adding chlorine

b)

Adding fluorine

c)

Filtering the water

d)

Distilling the water

33.

In water treatment, bacteria and microbes are removed by adding...

a)

Sodium

b)

Bromine

c)

Chlorine

d)

Fluorine

34.

Before sewage is treated, it is screened. Why?

a)

To make the water potable

b)

To make the water safe to drink

c)

To kill bacteria and microbes

d)

To remove big bits like leaves and twigs

35.

Water directly from a river or reservoir is not safe to drink because...

a)

It contains bacteria and possibly other microbes

b)

It contains sand

c)

It contains high levels of dissolved salt

d)

It contains chemical waste

36.

Some countries, which have little rainfall, must purify sea water for drinking. This is more difficult than using river water because...

a)

Seawater contains much more dissolved salt

b)

Seawater contains more bactera

c)

Seawater contains more sand and mud

d)

Seawater is more costly to collect

37.

Runoff of sewage and agricultural wastes into coastal waters introduce

a)

algae growth

b)

rainwater

c)

surface runoff

d)

oil spill

38.
"Turbidity" is the measure of a body of water's ____________________________.
a)
cloudiness
b)
eutrophication
c)
temperature change
d)
flocculation
39.
pollutants entering waterways from a general area, such as runoff from farmland or suburban communities
a)
Pollution
b)
Point Source Pollution
c)
Non-point Source Pollution
d)
Turbidity
40.
A factory is located next to a river.  The factory has a sewage pipe running straight out of the factory and into the river.  This is an example of ________________________.
a)
point source pollution
b)
non-point pollution
c)
tertiary receiving stream
d)
primary treatment
41.
What is fecal coliform a measure of?
a)
A direct measurement of feces concentration.
b)
Number of bacteria (like E. coli) commonly found in sewage.
c)
The ability of water to transmit viruses such as influenza.
d)
The brownness of the water.
42.
Are dams a factor in climate change?
a)
Yes
b)
No
43.
Do dams destroy ecosystems?
a)
Yes
b)
No
44.

What is one one disadvantage of hydroelectric energy?

a)

It doesn't work if you don't have volcanoes nearby.

b)

It doesn't work if it is not windy.

c)

It doesn't work if you don't have rivers or moving water nearby.

d)

It doesn't work unless you have plenty of fossil fuels.

45.

Out of the choices below, which form of energy makes the most pollution?

a)

Hydroelectric

b)

Geothermal

c)

Fossil Fuels

d)

Wind Turbine

46.

Which of these hydroelectric dams has had a major impact on its surrounding ecosystems?

a)

Three Gorges Dam, China

b)

Grand Coulee Dam, WA USA

c)

Hoover Dam, NV USA

d)

All three have had a major impact on their surrounding ecosystems

47.
What is the difference between biotic and abiotic?
a)
Biotic are non-living things
b)
Abiotic are living organisms
c)
Biotic is life,
Abiotic is non-living
d)
Biotic is non-living, Abiotic is living
48.
Which biome is more biodiverse?
a)
Desert
b)
Sand
c)
Tundra
d)
Rainforest
49.
Which option is biotic?
a)
Light
b)
Water
c)
Salt in the water
d)
Angel fish
50.
 Which biome is more likely to survive a change in the environment?
a)
High (rich) biodiversity
b)
Low (poor) biodiversity
51.
What does biodiversity mean?
a)
Only one species in an area.
b)
The different amount of species in an area
c)
All abiotic life
d)
Nitrogen fixation
52.

Image "B" shows more biodiversity than image "A". Why?

a)

Because "B" shows more different species than image "A"

b)

Because image "B" has less different species than "A"

c)

"A" has a greater number of same species plants so this statement is wrong.

d)

Both images show the same biodiversity

53.

Biodiversity is important to keep an area (biome) healthy. In this example "Food Web A" is sustainable. Why is sustainability important for an ecosystem in "Food Web A".

a)

If one organism is removed the food web can still operate (work) with little or no negative effect.

b)

If an organism is removed the food web will collapse and will affect the environment.

54.

Food Web B is an example of...

a)

Low biodiversity and low sustainability. If the producer dies then all the food web will suffer.

b)

High biodiversity and high sustainability. If an organism is removed the food web will continue with no effect.

55.
The non living parts of an ecosystem
a)
abiotic factors
b)
biotic factors
c)
oxygen
d)
soil
56.
All of the different populations that live in a specific area.
a)
ecosystem
b)
habitat
c)
ecology
d)
community
57.
An abiotic part of an ecosystem; required by plants to perform photosynthesis.
a)
water
b)
soil
c)
sunlight
d)
oxygen
58.
The place where an organism lives that provides it with shelter, food and water.
a)
ecosystem
b)
population
c)
community
d)
habitat
59.
The study of the interaction of living and nonliving things in the environment.
a)
biology
b)
ecology
c)
zoology
d)
psychology
60.
All the members of one type of species in a specific area.
a)
habitat
b)
community
c)
population
d)
ecosystme
61.
the living parts of an ecosystem
a)
biotic factors
b)
biology
c)
abiotic factors
d)
animals
62.
An abiotic part of an ecosystem; made of small pieces of rock, water and decaying matter.
a)
sunlight
b)
oxygen
c)
water
d)
soil
63.
All of the different populations that live in a specific area.
a)
community
b)
habitat
c)
ecosystem
d)
village
64.
A team of ecologists observed feeding patterns of several populations in the desert. The energy pyramid shown below depicts the feeding patterns the ecologist observed. Which of the following best explains the difference in the amount of available energy in the trophic levels of the desert ecosystem?
a)
There is less energy available in the producers because their tissues are less dense than those at higher trophic levels.
b)
There is more energy available in the second trophic level because less energy is needed for hunting compared to the higher trophic levels. 
c)
There is more available energy in the birds of prey because they have greater muscle mass for storing energy than organisms in lower trophic levels have. 
d)
There is less available energy in the fourth trophic level because of the loss of energy through metabolism in each of the lower trophic levels.
65.
A diagram of a food web is shown below.Which organism receives the least amount of energy from the producers?
a)
Hawk
b)
Rabbit
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Mouse
66.
The diagram shows the cycling of nutrients in an ecosystem. The removal of which of the following groups would cause an immediate decrease in the amount of energy flowing through the system? 
a)
Producers
b)
Consumers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Inorganic nutrients
67.
Complete burning of plant material returns carbon primarily to the
a)
herbivores
b)
water
c)
vegetation
d)
atmosphere
68.
Which of these organisms would most likely be found at the top of an energy pyramid? 
a)
clams - a primary consumer
b)
sardines - a primary consumer
c)
sharks - a secondary consumer
d)
 kelp - a primary producer
69.
The framework of organic molecules essential to all organisms is composed mainly of carbon atoms. Which processes are involved in the cycling of carbon within an environment? 
a)
photosynthesis and respiration
b)
evaporation and condensation
c)
transcription and translation
d)
diffusion and transpiration
70.
Which of the following statements is true about natural systems? 
a)
Consumers form the bottom levels of both the energy pyramid and the biomass pyramid.
b)
Producers are at the bottom level of both the energy pyramid and the biomass pyramid.
c)
Producers are at the bottom of the energy pyramid, but at the top of the biomass pyramid.
d)
Producers are at the bottom of the energy pyramid, but at the top of the biomass pyramid.
71.
A connection of food chains with many food energy paths in an ecosystem is a ____________
a)
ecosystem
b)
food web
c)
environment
d)
population
72.
Where do all life forms get their energy?
a)
Earth's Core
b)
Water
c)
Plants
d)
The Sun
73.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
74.
What does a food chain represent?
a)
How all living organisms within a habitat are connected.
b)
All of the things that a particular animal eats.
c)
How plants create their own food.
d)
A single path of energy transfer within a habitat.
75.
An energy pyramid represents what?
a)
How much sunlight is available for the ecosystem to use. 
b)
How much energy a particular organism needs. 
c)
How much energy is needed to build a pyramid. 
d)
The amount of energy available to the next 'feeder' in a food web.
76.
Concentration of toxins in an organism as a result of ingesting other plants/animals in which the toxins are widely distributed
a)
biomagnification
b)
point-source pollution
c)
artificial eutrofication
d)
consumable pollution
77.
Which organism in this diagram has the highest DDT concentration?
a)
Zooplanktons
b)
small fish
c)
large fish
d)
Fish-eating birds
78.
Individuals that are well adapted to their environment will survive and produce:
a)
Fewer mutations
b)
Stronger genes
c)
More offspring
d)
Better traits
79.
You look at two species and see very similar DNA. What does this likely tell you?
a)
These are the same animal.
b)
These animals have a common ancestor.
c)
These animals are not likely related.
d)
These animals are likely becoming one species.
80.
What does sexual reproduction allow for?
a)
Increased genetic diversity
b)
Increased offspring
c)
Decreased genetic diversity
d)
Decreased rate of evolution
81.
Horse breeding for specific desired traits is an example of which type of evolutionary evidence?
a)
Artificial selection
b)
Embryology
c)
Fossils
d)
Biochemical molecules
82.
An inherited characteristic that increases an organisms ability to survive and reproduce in its specific environment is called a(n)
a)
vestigial structure
b)
speciation
c)
analogous structure
d)
adaptation
83.
According to the theory of natural selection, some individuals more likely than others to survive and reproduce because they:
a)
pass on to their offspring their newly acquired traits.
b)
are better adapted to their environment than others and will pass on those adaptations to future offspring.
c)
do not pass on newly acquired traits.
d)
produce fewer offspring than others in the same environment.
84.
When every organism of a species has died.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artificial Selection
85.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
86.
Natural selection
a)
process by which individuals that are better suited to their environment survive and reproduce most successfully; also called survival of the fittest
b)
Humans select which animals live and die
c)
both 
d)
IDK
87.
speciation
a)
Formation of new species
b)
idk
c)
Formation of old species
d)
none of the above
88.
The finches on the Galapagos island were similar in form except for variations of their beaks. Darwin observed that these variations were useful for:
a)
 attracting a mate
b)
 defending territory
c)
 building nests
d)
 gathering food
89.

What gases do volcanoes release when they erupt?

a)

Lava and ash

b)

Nitrous oxide and methane

c)

Water vapor and carbon dioxide

90.

Which is an example of a sustainable practice?

a)

Mowing your lawn

b)

planting more trees when some are cut down

c)

Using oil instead of natural gas

d)

Having more cattle to take care of the grass and weeds

91.

What two factors are affecting the oceans due to climate change?

a)

decrease in temperature and increase in pH

b)

increase in salt levels and decrease in sea levels

c)

increase in temperature and decrease in pH

92.

How is climate change affecting biodiversity?

a)

decreasing

b)

increasing

c)

it is not affecting it

93.

Why are we researching new fuel sources?

a)

so we can use more nonrenewable resources

b)

so we can make more money

c)

so we can use less nonrenewable resources

94.

What is the global temperature changes doing to certain animals?

a)

increasing food source

b)

decreasing habitats

c)

increasing access to water sources

95.

Which greenhouse gas affects the climate the most?

a)

water vapor

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

methane

d)

CFC

96.

What are some effects of global warming?

a)

increase in ice caps and lower sea levels

b)

increase in tree growth and melting of ice caps

c)

Flooding and melting of ice caps

97.
What type of growth is shown in the diagram?
a)
exponential growth
b)
logistic growth 
c)
predator-prey cycle
d)
boom-bust curve
98.
Largest number of individuals of a population that the environment can support...  
a)
carrying capacity
b)
population crash
c)
lag phase
d)
mutualism
99.
Why has the population been able to grow so quickly in such a short period of time?
a)
Doctors have developed easier and safer ways to have babies
b)
People needed more help to work their farms so they had more children
c)
Because people stayed in one place and only moved when crowded out
d)
Because of medical care, clean water and better access to nutritious food
100.
What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
101.
If the number of births in a population is the same as the number of deaths in a population, what will happen to the growth of the population?
a)
It will increase.
b)
It will decrease.
c)
It will stay the same.
d)
It will fluctuate.
102.
If the number of births is greater than the number of deaths in a population, what will happen to the growth of the population?
a)
It will increase.
b)
It will decrease.
c)
It will stay the same.
d)
It will fluctuate.
103.
What do you call a period of rapid growth?
a)
exponential growth
b)
logistic growth
c)
emigration
d)
predator-prey cycle
104.

Has the endangered species list increased or decreased?

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

105.

What is the single greatest threat to polar bears?

a)

natural predators

b)

tourism

c)

Climate Change

d)

commercial shipping

106.

Global warming is known as the gradual increase in _________________ of the atmosphere.

a)

precipitation

b)

sun spots

c)

temperature

d)

ocean currents

107.

The most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere is ___________________.

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrogen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

argon

108.

Which zones are polar zones?

a)

Zones A and B

b)

Zones A and E

c)

Zones E and D

d)

Zones A, E, and C

109.

Which zones are temperate zones?

a)

Zones B and C

b)

Zones B, C, and D

c)

Zones, D and C

d)

Zones D and B

110.

Which zone is the tropical zone?

a)

Zone B

b)

Zone C

c)

Zone D

d)

Zone E

111.

Possible human solutions for limiting global warming and climate change are...

a)

being more energy-efficient

b)

using renewable sources of energy

c)

removing carbon from fossil fuel emissions

d)

all of the above

112.
Which of the following gases DOES NOT trap heat?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
nitrogen
c)
water vapor
d)
methane
113.
Where have some of the strongest and earliest impacts of global warming occurred?  
a)
in the tropics
b)
in the northern latitudes
c)
impacts of global warming are distributed equally all over the planet
114.
Which of the following have been linked to climate change?  
a)
droughts
b)
flooding
c)
melting of polar ice caps
d)
all of the above
115.
Visible light reaches Earth’s surface while infrared light is trapped as heat. Which characteristic of Earth’s atmosphere causes this to happen?
a)
the hole in the ozone
b)
the greenhouse effect
c)
atmospheric pressure
d)
the inversion layer
116.
The average temperature of the surface of Earth has increased approximately 1°C in the past century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?
a)
lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere
b)
lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere
c)
higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d)
higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
117.
Which is a primary energy source used by power plants to generate electricity?
a)
coal
b)
wood
c)
gasoline
d)
batteries
118.
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
119.

Today the human population of Earth is

a)

more than 10 billion

b)

more than 7 billion

c)

less than 7 million

d)

less than 9.9 million

120.

In most areas of the world today

a)

people are richer than ever in human history

b)

people are smarter than ever in human history

c)

people weigh more than ever in human history

d)

people live longer than ever in human history

121.
Demography is the scientific study of
a)
parasitism and disease.
b)
modernized countries.
c)
human populations.
d)
none of these
122.
The human population experienced exponential growth just after
a)
agriculture began.
b)
plowing and irrigation began.
c)
the bubonic plague began.
d)
the Industrial Revolution began.
123.
What three factors can affect ANY population's growth rate?
a)
Birthrate, death rate, migration
b)
disease, predation, migration
c)
medicine, agriculture, industry
d)
life expectancy, sanitation, vaccines
124.

Using Figure 5–6, describe the type of growth Mexico is experiencing.

a)

Mexico is experiencing a rapid growth rate because there are more children than adults.

b)

Mexico is experiencing no growth because people are living longer.

c)

Mexico is experiencing slowed growth because there are fewer adults.

d)

Mexico is experiencing a rapid decline because there are more children than adults.

125.
Name the type of pyramid in the picture.
a)
slow growth
b)
fast growth
c)
zero growth
d)
decline
126.
Name the type of pyramid in the picture.
a)
slow growth
b)
fast growth
c)
zero growth
d)
decline
127.

What does a Population Pyramid show?

a)

Males and females in all age groups in a population group

b)

Number of immigrants to a country

c)

How many people died in a year

128.

Climates are classified according to two major factors:

a)

elevation and precipitation

b)

latitude and temperature

c)

elevation and latitude

d)

precipitation and temperature

129.

The total set of carbon emissions caused by an individual.

a)

carbon cycle

b)

carbon handprint

c)

carbon footprint

d)

carbon summary

130.

A renewable resource is:

a)

study of how humans interact with the environment

b)

state in which a human population can survive indefinitely

c)

material that can be replaced relatively quickly through natural processes

d)

material that cannot be replaced relatively quickly through natural processes

131.

Environmental science is:

a)

study of how humans interact with the environment

b)

state in which a human population can survive indefinitely

c)

material that can be replaced relatively quickly through natural processes

d)

material that cannot be replaced relatively quickly through natural processes

132.

A developed nation is:

a)

Characterized by high population rate, low energy use, and low personal wealth

b)

Characterized by low population rate, high life expectancy, and diverse industrial economies

c)

Conflict between short-term interests of individuals and long-term welfare of society

d)

State in which a human population can survive indefinitely

133.

A developing nation is:

a)

Characterized by high population rate, low energy use, and low personal wealth

b)

Characterized by low population rate, high life-expectancy, and diverse industrial economies

c)

Conflict between short-term interests of individuals and long-term welfare of society

d)

State in which a human population can survive indefinitely

134.

A non-renewable resource is:

a)

Study of how humans interact with the environment

b)

State in which a human population can survive indefinitely

c)

Material that can be replaced relatively quickly through natural processes

d)

Material that cannot be replaced relatively quickly through natural processes

135.

Which of the following sciences contribute to the field of environmental science?

a)

Physics and chemistry

b)

Biology and earth sciences

c)

Social sciences

d)

All of the above

136.

The “Tragedy of the Commons” addressed the conflicts associated with which environmental chance?

a)

Preventing pollution

b)

Preserving biodiversity

c)

Curbing overpopulation

d)

Protecting shared resources

137.

The ecological footprint of a person takes into account what requirements of supporting environmental challenges?

a)

Land use for crops

b)

Land and housing

c)

Pollution

d)

All of the above

138.

During the period of human history known as the ___________________, human populations grew rapidly because of advances in farming methods.

a)

Industrial Revolution

b)

Agricultural Revolution

c)

“Tragedy of the Commons”

d)

Hunter-Gatherer period

139.

The energy in fossil fuels is often converted into…

a)

Magnetic fields

b)

Uranium

c)

Power plants

140.

Wind, moving water, sunlight, and heat from Earth’s interior are sources of…

a)

Alternative energy

b)

Geothermal energy

c)

Renewable energy

d)

Ocean thermal energy

141.

Tidal power, hydrogen fuel cells, and ocean thermal energy conversion are sources of…

a)

Alternative energy

b)

Geothermal energy

c)

Nonrenewable energy

d)

Hydroelectric energy

142.

Coal, oil, and natural gas are _____ resources created from the remains of early plants and animals.

a)

Natural

b)

Small

c)

Large

d)

Waste

143.

What type of fossil fuel is mined from the ground?

a)

Wind

b)

Coal

c)

Biomass

d)

Air

144.

Fossil fuels are classified as nonrenewable because they.......

a)

require expensive equipment

b)

take millions of years to replace

c)

can be found all over

d)

provide all the energy we use

145.

The careful use of a resource is....

a)

Recycling

b)

Pollution

c)

Conservation

146.

Coal is a fossil fuel that is formed from…

a)

Water eroding the land

b)

Meteor hitting Earth.

c)

Repeated volcanic eruptions.

d)

The decay of dead plants and animals

147.

Fossil fuels are formed…

a)

From the remains of organisms

b)

In shallow areas over a short period of time.

c)

By high winds and temperatures

d)

In shallow areas over short periods of time.

148.

Geothermal Power is made from…

a)

pumping water into the earth to create steam that powers a turbine

b)

smashing rocks into little bits to make oil

c)

the sun

d)

burning leftover potatoes

149.

Why might birth rates in developing nations tend to be higher than those in developed nations?

a)

Birth control is more available in developing nations.

b)

Large families are needed for subsistence farming.

c)

Military concerns dictate the need for larger populations.

d)

More child-care assistance is available in developing nations.

150.

Which of the following is a true statement about the economic development of nations?

a)

Resources and technology influence the economic development and quality of life in nations.

b)

Although important, the economic development of nations has little effect on the quality of life of its people.

c)

Modern technology is so widespread today that most people around the world have an acceptable quality of life.

d)

All but a few countries are developed nations today.

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