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Biol 303 Dhameja

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Gain or loss of 1+ chromosomes (but not a complete set)

a)

Euploidy

b)

Aneuploidy

c)

Diploidy

d)

Trisomy

2.

Addition of complete haploid sets of chromosomes

a)

Disomy

b)

Monosomy

c)

Aneuploidy

d)

Euploidy

3.

Formula for trisomy

a)

2n-1

b)

2n

c)

3n

d)

2n+1

4.

Formula for aneuploidy

a)

2n ±\pm x

b)

2n-x

c)

2n+x

d)

n

5.

Euploidy Formula

a)

2n+1

b)

2n ±\pm x

c)

2n-1

d)

n...

6.

What are important steps of Meiosis?

a)

Lining up at the metaphase plate

b)

Spindle formation and attachment

c)

Chromosome separation

d)

All of the above

7.

Multiple copies of the same genome

a)

Polyploidy

b)

Euploidy

c)

Autopolyploidy

d)

Allopolyploidy

8.

Multiples of closely related genomes

a)

Autopolyploidy

b)

Euploidy

c)

Polyploidy

d)

Allopolyploidy

9.

Aneuploidies primarily result from...?

a)

independent assortment

b)

mutation

c)

nondisjunction in meiosis

d)

crossing over

10.

What is the number of combinations of different egg/sperm

a)

2^23

b)

2^24

c)

2^18

d)

2^20

11.

Monosomies for autosomes are usually tolerated

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Drosophila (2n-8) has a monosomic condition. What is it?

a)

Chromosome 3 (7, 3-)

b)

Chromosome 14 (7, 14-)

c)

Chromosome 8 (7, 8-)

d)

Chromosome 4 (7, 4-)

13.

Symptoms of monosomy of chromosome 4 in Drosophila

a)

Poor survival

b)

Small size

c)

Slow development

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

14.

What is the reason for low number of autosomies?

a)

Unmasking of recessive lethal alleles

b)

Haploinsufficiency

c)

Nondisjunction errors

d)

All of the above

e)

A and B only

15.

Aneuploidies better tolerated in ...

a)

Mammals

b)

Amphibians

c)

Fish

d)

Plants

16.

How many phenotypic variations did the jimson weed seed exhibit?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

10

d)

12

17.

Trisomy 13 (47, 13+)

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Patau Syndrome

c)

Warkany Syndrome 2

d)

Edwards Syndrome

18.

Trisomy 18

a)

Edwards

b)

Patau

c)

Warkany 2

d)

Down

19.

Trisomy 8

a)

Warkany 2

b)

Down

c)

Patau

d)

Edwards

20.

What causes nondisjunction?

a)

Strong centromeres

b)

Weak centrosomes

c)

Weak spindle fibers

d)

All of the above

e)

A and C

21.

Ratio of Offspring of Nondisjunction in Meiosis 1 , when fertilized by normal gamete

a)

50% normal, 50% monosomy

b)

50% monosomy, 50% trisomy

c)

50% trisomy, 50% normal

d)

25% monosomy, 25% trisomy, 50% normal

22.

Ratio of Offspring of Nondisjunction in Meiosis 2 , when fertilized by normal gamete

a)

50% normal, 50% monosomy

b)

50% monosomy, 50% trisomy

c)

50% trisomy, 50% normal

d)

25% monosomy, 25% trisomy, 50% normal

23.

___ of recorded pregnancies end in miscarriage

a)

10%

b)

5%

c)

15%

d)

20%

24.

___ of miscarriages are due to chromosomal imbalances

a)

>50%

b)

30-50%

c)

<30%

25.

What is the incidence of Down Syndrome

a)

1 in 900 live births

b)

1 in 500

c)

1 in 700-800

d)

1 in 1000-1100

26.

75% of nondisjunction errors leading to Down Syndrome occur in ...

a)

Meiosis 1

b)

Meiosis 2

c)

G1

d)

G2

27.

95% of trisomy 21 cases are due to aneuploid ...

a)

male gametes

b)

female ova

c)

autosomes

d)

testes

28.

In females all ___ have been formed by birth

a)

primary oocytes

b)

gametes

c)

chromatids

d)

chromosomes

29.

When is the 1st arrest in females life cycle

a)

Interphase 1

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Anaphase 1

d)

Telophase 1

30.

When is the youngest egg in a human female?

a)

Onset of menopause

b)

Onset of menstruation

31.

When is the oldest egg in a human female?

a)

Onset of menstruation

b)

Onset of menopause

32.

What triggers the end of the first arrest in a females oocyte life cycle

a)

Ca2+ induced cyclin degradation

b)

Progesterone

33.

What are effects of an old egg

a)

weak centromeres

b)

tangled chromatids

c)

poor spindle integrity

d)

A and B

e)

B and C

34.

What is the portion of chromosome 21 that contains genes sensitive to dosage

a)

DSCR

b)

DTSM

c)

SSCR

d)

CRTU

35.

Which is not a symptom of Down Syndrome

a)

perturbed development

b)

heart malformations

c)

flat face and round head

d)

baldness

36.

Containing 2+ haploid sets of chromosomes

a)

polyploidy

b)

aneuploidy

c)

diploidy

d)

disomy

37.

Odd plodies are not viable usually

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Polyploidy is common in all, except

a)

Lizards

b)

Mammals

c)

Amphibians

d)

Fish

e)

Plants

39.

Which one has the correct formula?

a)

2n=23

b)

3n=46

c)

4n=98

d)

3n=69

40.

Sections of 2 non homologous chromosomes swap places

a)

Reciprocal Translocation

b)

Inversion

c)

Nonreciprocal Translocation

d)

Duplication

41.

Crossing over is done with homologous chromosomes and is normal

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Sections of 1 non homologous chromosomes transferred to another

a)

Reciprocal Translocation

b)

Inversion

c)

Nonreciprocal Translocation

d)

Duplication

43.

The top of the chromosome is called?

a)

Z

b)

Q

c)

C

d)

P

44.

Deletion that occurs at chromosome ends

a)

Intercalary

b)

Nonreciprocal

c)

Terminal

d)

Reciprocal

45.

Deletion that occurs at chromosome interior

a)

Intercalary

b)

Nonreciprocal

c)

Terminal

d)

Reciprocal

46.

Chromosomes w/ deletions can NOT still synapse during meiosis

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Williams Syndrome

a)

46, 7p-

b)

46, 6q-

c)

46,5p-

d)

46,7q-

e)

46,6p-

48.

Cri du Chat Syndrome

a)

46, 7p-

b)

46, 6q-

c)

46,5p-

d)

46,7q-

e)

46,6p-

49.

Cri du Chat and Williams result from

a)

Duplications

b)

Insertions

c)

Translocations

d)

Deletions

e)

Inversions

50.

What are causes of duplications?

a)

Replication errors

b)

Unequal crossing over

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

All of the above

e)

A and B only

51.

When a chromosome with a deletion pairs with a normal one, a ____ forms

a)

Donut

b)

Deletion Loop

c)

Ring

d)

Scoop

52.

Drosophila 'bar eye' phenotype is an example of a ____

a)

Duplication

b)

Deletion

c)

Translocation

d)

Inversion

53.

A heritable change in an organism by the presence of an outside factor

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

transformation

d)

translocation

54.

Avery, MacCleod, and McCarty Experiment found what was the transforming molecule?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Protein

c)

RNA

d)

DNA

e)

C and D

55.

Which one is correct?

a)

Purines: a, t, u

b)

Purines: u, c, t

c)

Purines: c, g

d)

Pyrimidines: u, c, t

e)

Pyrimidines, a, g

56.

Which one is correct

a)

Pyrimidine : triple bond

b)

Purine: triple bond

c)

Pyrimidine: double bond

57.

Phosphodiester bonds link to...

a)

3' of one sugar and 5' of the other

b)

5' of one sugar and phosphate group

c)

1' of sugar and base

d)

base to base

58.

Where does the hydroxyl group attach to a pentose sugar

a)

1'

b)

3'

c)

5'

d)

2'

59.

Watson and Crick made these conclusions, except

a)

antiparallel strands

b)

sugar/phosphate backbone

c)

10 base pairs/turn

d)

single helix model of DNA

60.

If the percentage of adenine is 30%, then the percentage of guanine is?

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

60%

d)

40%

61.

What temperature does the right strand denature; left strand?

a)

87; 73

b)

73; 83

c)

77; 83

d)

83; 77

62.

Which method of analyzing DNA denatures it with heat, creates a complimentary RNA probe, and then cools them together

a)

molecular hybridization

b)

FISH

c)

absorption of UV light

d)

electrophoresis

63.

Which method of analyzing DNA uses fluorescence labeling in situ?

a)

molecular hybridization

b)

FISH

c)

absorption of UV light

d)

electrophoresis

64.

In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated by ?

a)

Base

b)

Size

c)

Charge

d)

All of the Above

e)

B and C

65.

DNA synthesis is ...

a)

semi-conservative

b)

conservative

66.

DNA is bidirectional (3' to 5-, anti-parallel strands)

a)

True

b)

False, 5' to 3' antiparallel strands

67.

Which protein creates the segments that direct DNA polymerase?

a)

Primase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Single-strand proteins

d)

Helicase

68.

What is placed on each strand, telling DNA polymerase where to start building?

a)

ligases

b)

Okazaki fragments

c)

RNA primers

d)

single strand proteins

69.

Which protein initiates replication?

a)

Singe stand protein

b)

topoisomerase

c)

helicase

d)

initiator protein

70.

DNA Polymerase 3 only works from 3' to 5'

a)

True

b)

False, 5' to 3'

71.

What is placed on the lagging strand only?

a)

RNA primase

b)

Ligase

c)

Okazaki fragments

d)

helicase

72.

What protein removes RNA primers

a)

DNA polymerase 3

b)

DNA polymerase 1

c)

ligase

d)

RNA primase

73.

Which proteins glues Okazaki fragments together

a)

helicase

b)

single strand proteins

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

74.

Double strand breaks are rarely clean and require homologous recombination

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Homologous Recombination Process Includes

a)

Endonuclease Nicking

b)

Strand Displacement

c)

Branch Migration

d)

Duplex Separation

e)

Rotation (Holiday Structure)

76.

DNA is organized into

a)

chromosomes

b)

chromatid

c)

chromatin

d)

histones

77.

A group of histones with DNA coiled around them

a)

Histone

b)

Looped Domain

c)

Solenoid

d)

Nucleosome

78.

Where does transcription occur

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nuclear envelope

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Cytoplasm

79.

Where does translation occur

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Ribosome

80.

Where is rRNA formed

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Ribosome

81.

Where is mRNA formed

a)

Ribosome

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Nucleolus

d)

Nucleus

82.

What are the 4 regions of DNA before transcription?

a)

Core promoter (TATA box)

b)

Proximal promoter elements

c)

Enhancer

d)

Silencer

e)

Activator

83.

What tells the RNA Polymerase where to start work?

a)

Enhancer

b)

Silencer

c)

Core promoter/TATA box

d)

Activator

84.

What is an activator + ehancer complex, used for large amounts of upregulation called

a)

Enhancosome Complex

b)

RITS

c)

RISC

d)

Silenco-Repressive Complex

85.

Which of the following are external factors that affect transcription?

a)

General transcription factors

b)

proximal promoter elements

c)

activator

d)

repressor

86.

Which strand in elongation is the same code as RNA, yet contains a different 'language'? (Uracil replaces Thymine)

a)

Coding Strand

b)

Template Strand

87.

Which strand in elongation is complimentary to RNA

a)

Coding Strand

b)

Template Strand

88.

What stops transcription

a)

repressor

b)

silencer

c)

terminator sequences

89.

Which isn't a form of RNA processing before translation?

a)

Splicing of exons

b)

Adding 5'cap

c)

Adding Poly-A Tail

d)

Splicing Introns

90.

How many different amino acids are there?

a)

15

b)

20

c)

21

d)

64

91.

What is the bond between amino acids in a polypeptide?

a)

peptide bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

covalent bonds

d)

phosphodiester bonds

92.

Which end of the tRNA binds to the amino acid?

a)

1'

b)

3'

c)

5'

93.

A tRNA with an amino acid is...

a)

charged

b)

uncharged

94.

How many coding amino acids are there?

a)

64

b)

61

c)

60

d)

20

95.

what reads mRNA message and brings correct amino acid to the ribosome?

a)

rRNA

b)

small subunit of ribosome

c)

smooth ER

d)

tRNA

96.

What is the correct order of sites that tRNA goes to?

a)

P, A, E

b)

E, P, A

c)

A, P, E

d)

P, E, A

97.

Which ones are initiator factors

a)

IF1

b)

IF2

c)

IF3

d)

IF4

98.

Which of the following are elongation factors

a)

Ef-Tu

b)

Ef-Sb

c)

Ef-Tr

d)

Ef-G

e)

Ef-Li

99.

Which is NOT a major way to classify genetic mutations

a)

Impact

b)

Location

c)

Phenotypic

d)

Molecular change

100.

What is a single base substitution ?

a)

Regulatory mutation

b)

SIlent mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation

d)

Point mutation

101.

Purine for purine / pyrimidine for pyrimidine substitution

a)

Missense

b)

Transition

c)

Transversion

d)

Nonsense

102.

Purine for pyrimidine substitution or vice versa ex: A->C

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Transversion

d)

Transition

103.

Which codon mutation creates a premature stop codon

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Silent

d)

Frameshift

104.

Which base change of DNA is an example of a transition?

a)

A to C

b)

G to C

c)

C to A

d)

A to G

e)

A to T

105.

Insertion or deletion of 1 or 2 nucleotide base pairs in DNA within a gene often results in a ___ mutation

a)

transition

b)

frameshift

c)

reversion

d)

transversion

106.

Which mutation causes a codon to code for a completely different amino acid

a)

Silent

b)

Missense

c)

Nonsense

d)

Frameshift

107.

_____ mutations produce new activites and are usually dominant

a)

Point

b)

Lethal

c)

Spontaneous

d)

Gain-of-Function

108.

___ mutation reduces/eliminates function of gene product, and most are recessive, but some can be dominant

a)

Recessive

b)

Lethal

c)

Loss-of-function

d)

Regulatory

109.

Null Loss of Function is a complete loss of function

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Which mutation affects morphological traits

a)

Loss-of-function

b)

Gain-of-function

c)

Visible

d)

Regulatory

111.

______ mutation is in gene control regions and transcription factors

a)

Regulatory

b)

Loss-of-Function

c)

Gain-of-Function

d)

Destructive

112.

____ mutation is in any cell except germ cells and isn't heritable

a)

Germ Cells

b)

Autosomal

c)

Somatic

d)

X-Linked

113.

A somatic mutation is more likely to display phenotypic effects if it happens late in development

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Germ Cell mutations can be expressed in all cells of the progeny

a)

True

b)

False

115.

____ mutation occurs on all chromosomes except sex chromosomes

a)

somatic

b)

germ cells

c)

x-linked

d)

autosomal

116.

Which mutation only occurs on sex chromosomes

a)

Germ cells

b)

somatic

c)

x-linked (y-linked)

d)

autosomal

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