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NUR211 Perfusion, Collaboration, Intracranial Pressure, Seizures

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which assessment data does the nusre recognize as the most sensitive indicator of increased ICP?

a)

Pupillary

b)

Respiratory

c)

Level of Conciousness

d)

Cranial Nerves

2.

A patient with a history of seizures experiences lip smacking and daydreams during a seizure with no loss of conciousness. The nurse recognizes these clinical manifestations as associated with which type of seizure?

a)

Absence seizure

b)

complex partial seizure

c)

Atonic seizure

d)

Myoclonic seizure

3.

What is used to diagnose a seizure disorder? select all that apply.

a)

electroencephalogram

b)

lumbar puncture

c)

metabolic panel

d)

coagulation studies

e)

electromyogram

4.

A patient with a history of complex partial seizures has a phenytoin (dilantin) level of 3.1mcg/mL. The nurse calls the patient and instructs them to take which action?

a)

stop the medication and make an appt for the following week with MD

b)

continue the med and make an appt right away with MD

c)

take an extra dose now and continue with the current regimen

d)

skip the next dose and make an appt right away with MD

5.

A patient is scheduled for an emergency CT scan because of clinical manifestations of a CVA/stroke. The nurse recognizes which statement as true about the findings of the CT scan?

a)

Thrombolytics are contraindicated if the scan identifies a bleed

b)

Thrombolytics are indicated if the scan is positive for a bleed

c)

Thrombolytics are contraindicated if the scan reveals an occlusion

d)

Thrombolytics are indicated if the scan identifies an occlusion

6.

A patient is admitted to the neuroscience intensive care unit after a TBI. If the goal of ICP monitor insertion is to measure ICP and drain CSF to control ICP, what device should the nurse anticipate being inserted?

a)

Intraparenchymal sensor

b)

Epidural sensor

c)

Intraventricular catheter

d)

Subarachnoid bolt

7.

The nurse recognizes that which patient is at greatest risk for death secondary to stroke?

a)

36 yr old caucasian male

b)

45 yr old asian male

c)

56 yr old african american female

d)

62 year old hispanic female

8.

A patient is admitted to a unit with a diagnosis of left middle cerebral artery acute ischemic stroke and is not eligible for thrombolytic therapy. The nurse recognizes that this patient is at high risk for which complication?

a)

Delirium

b)

Aspiration

c)

Bronchospasm

d)

Palpitations

9.

What is a symptom of a stroke?

a)

Hemiplegia of one body part

b)

Aphasia of the face

c)

Numbness of the hand

d)

All of the above

10.

What acronym can help you identify a stroke?

a)

SLOW

b)

FAST

c)

STROKE

d)

SLEEP

11.

What are some common symptoms of a stroke?

a)

Paralysis of one side of body, slurring speech, facial droop

b)

Headache

c)

Chest pain

d)

Shortness of breath

12.

What is a stroke?

a)

Blocked blood vessel

b)

Bleeding in the brain from a blood vessel

c)

Loss of oxygen to part of the brain

d)

All of the above

13.

Which of these are risk factors for stroke?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Age > 55 years

c)

Low cholesterol

d)

Family history of stroke

e)

All of the above

14.

Use FAST to recognise the signs of a stroke. F is For ..........

a)

Face mask

b)

Face drooping

c)

Face injury

15.

Use FAST to recognise the signs of a stroke. A is For ..........

a)

Arm weakness

b)

Arm injury

c)

Arm fracture

16.

Use FAST to recognise the signs of a stroke. S is For .........

a)

Speechless

b)

Stroke

c)

Speech difficulty

17.

Use FAST to recognise the signs of a stroke. T is For .........

a)

Time

b)

Tell someone to help you

c)

None of the above

18.

Describe the type of headache associated with a raised intracranial pressure?

a)

Dull and generalised

b)

Worse on lying down

c)

Worse at the end of day

d)

Unilateral

19.

Which 2 of these can cause an increase in CSF and hence an increase in ICP

a)

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

b)

Cerebral oedema

c)

Subdural haemorrhage

d)

Hydrocephalus

20.

What is Brain Herniation?

a)

Parts of the brain being compressed by a increased ICP

b)

Parts if the brain no longer receiving blood supply

c)

Parts of the brain moving into different compartment

21.

What is a Traumatic Brain Injury

a)

An injury to the brain of a young child ages infant through 18 years old

b)

An event that only happens to old folks who tend to fall

c)

An injury to the brain caused by a bump, blow or jolt to the head or a penetrating head injury that disrupts the normal function of the brain

d)

A nasty bump on the head

22.

Who can get a TBI?

a)

Only children who play rough.

b)

Anyone at any age

c)

Children ages infant-18 years old

d)

Adults over 60 years old

23.

What are some symptoms of a TBI?

a)

Headache that gets worse or won't go away; Loss of coordination

b)

Repeated vomiting or nausea; slurred speech

c)

Enlargement of the pupil of one or both eyes

d)

All of the above

24.

A seizure is only caused by epilepsy

a)

True

b)

False

25.

What best describes a seizure

a)

a sudden attack that can cause spasms or convulsions.

b)

a medical condition associated with abnormal electrical activity in the brain.

c)

making short and sudden movements.

d)

not reacting or moving because of being unconscious

26.

Common causes of seizures include (Choose 3)

a)

Head injury

b)

Spinal injury

c)

Lack of oxygen

d)

Cardiac arrest

e)

constipation

27.

At what ages do febrile seizures occur?

a)

6 months to 5 years

b)

2months to 2years

c)

1years to 7years

d)

Neonatal period

28.

Treating seizures include medication, diet, and vagus nerve stimulator.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Seizure which presents with flaccidity

a)

Tonic

b)

Clonic

c)

Atonic

d)

Myoclonic

30.

Lumbar puncture is indicated for ALL patients younger than six months with fever and seizure

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Seizure presenting as shock like contraction of muscle that is often repeated

a)

Tonic

b)

Clonic

c)

Myoclonus

d)

Absence

32.

Which of the following is an example of aura?

a)

Epigastric pain

b)

Flashing lights

c)

Deja vu feeling

d)

Only flashing lights and deja vu

e)

All of the above

33.

Are Motor Seizures a form of Partial Epilepsy or Generalized Epilepsy

a)

Generalized Epilepsy

b)

Partial Epilepsy

34.
What category of disease is epilepsy?
a)
Chronic
b)
hereditary
35.

What kind of disease is epilepsy?

a)

Nonifectious

b)

Infectious

36.

What type of seizure has sustained rhymical jerking?

a)

clonic

b)

tonic

c)

clonic-tonic

d)

absence

37.

What type of epilepsy makes people fall to the ground heavily?

a)

Atonic

b)

Clonic

c)

Tonic

d)

Myonic

38.

What type of seizure causes stiffening and a tendency to fall backwards?

a)

Clonic

b)

Tonic

c)

Myonic

d)

Atonic

39.

What type of epilepsy is a combination of rhythmic jerking and the stiffening of muscles?

a)

Tonic

b)

Clonic

c)

Tonic-Clonic

d)

Atonic

40.

A previously healthy and developmentally normal 18-month-old boy presents with status epilepticus. There is no past or family history of seizures. The child is stabilized, and the seizure stopped . Subsequent physical examination reveals a playful child who has a temperature of 39.2ºC and nasal discharge. Findings on the remainder of the examination are normal. The MOST likely diagnosis is

a)

Bacterial meningitis

b)

Cortical dysplasia

c)

Febrile seizure

d)

Hypoglycemia

41.

Weight gain and alopecia are side effects of the following antiepileptic drug (AED)

a)

primidone

b)

valproicacid

c)

oxcarbazepine

d)

lamotrigine

e)

acetazolamide

42.

Antiepileptic drug is discontinued when children are free of seizures for at least

a)

1 yr

b)

2 yr

c)

3 yr

d)

4 yr

43.

Generally how many seizures does it take for someone to be diagnosed with epilepsy?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

5

d)

6

44.

When someone has seizure what is the state called once they come out of it

a)

Fight or Flight

b)

In and Out State

c)

Postictal

d)

Hyper State

45.

Generally how long does postictal state last

a)

I hour

b)

15 minutes

c)

10-20 minutes

d)

5-30 minutes

46.
88.   Phenytoin
a)
Dilantin
b)
trileptal
c)
Tegretol,Carbatrol
d)
Lamictal
e)
Depakote, Depakene
47.
89.   Valproic acid
a)
keppra
b)
trileptal
c)
Tegretol,Carbatrol
d)
Lamictal
e)
Depakote, Depakene
48.
90.   Lamotrigine
a)
keppra
b)
trileptal
c)
Tegretol,Carbatrol
d)
Lamictal
e)
Depakote, Depakene
49.
91.   Carbamazepine
a)
keppra
b)
trileptal
c)
Tegretol,Carbatrol
d)
Lamictal
e)
Depakote, Depakene
50.
93.   Levetiracetam
a)
keppra
b)
trileptal
c)
Tegretol,Carbatrol
d)
Lamictal
e)
Depakote, Depakene
51.

Select the correct objectives of therapeutic communication include:

a)

medical terminology

b)

assessing behavior

c)

taking vitals

d)

collecting information

e)

educating

52.

After being berated by your manager in front of your fellow employees, you say: "I can see some of your points, but I would have preferred that you spoke to me in private." This is an example of which of the following communication styles?

a)

Passive

b)

Agressive

c)

assertive

53.

Your teacher has not given you a grade for a paper you handed in, and you tell him or her, "I handed in that paper with everyone else. It's not my fault if you can't keep yourself organized," is an example of which of the following communication styles?

a)

Agressive

b)

Passive

c)

Assertive

54.

Do you try to push your feelings away rather than express them to others?

a)

Passive

b)

Assertive

55.

Your neighbor accidentally knocked over your garbage can. You write an angry note calling him a 'selfish jerk' and leave it on his car. This is an example of which communication style?

a)

Agressive

b)

Assertive

c)

Passive

56.

You overhear someone at work saying something mean about you. You wait until she is alone, and then let her know that you were sad to hear her say such a thing. This is an example of which communication style?

a)

Agressive

b)

Passive

c)

Assertive

57.

Someone at work is making inappropriate jokes at your expense. You use " Passive Style"

a)

Report them to Human Resources and demand they be punished.

b)

Say nothing. You don’t want to make things worse.

c)

Make inappropriate jokes at their expense.

58.

You go out to dinner and after a very long wait, your food arrives cold. You use Agressive

a)

Tell the waiter how incompetent you think he is and demand that the food be free.

b)

Tell the waiter that this is unacceptable and ask what they can do to make things right.

c)

Say nothing; you don’t want to risk having the waiter spit in your food!

59.

Which people tend to not make eye contact?

a)

Passive

b)

Aggressive

c)

Passive-Aggressive

d)

Assertive

60.

Which people tend to feel insecure or have low self-esteem ?

a)

Passive

b)

Aggressive

c)

Passive-Aggressive

d)

Assertive

61.

Which people tend to be loud and in your face, blunt, or tactless?

a)

Passive

b)

Aggressive

c)

Passive-Aggressive

d)

Assertive

62.

Which people tend to take care of themselves and their own rights only?

a)

Passive

b)

Aggressive

c)

Passive-Aggressive

d)

Assertive

63.

Which people tend to have healthy self-esteem ?

a)

Passive

b)

Aggressive

c)

Passive-Aggressive

d)

Assertive

64.

Which people tend to consider the rights of self and rights of others?

a)

Passive

b)

Aggressive

c)

Passive-Aggressive

d)

Assertive

65.

Which people tend to be honest, tactful, and respectful?

a)

Passive

b)

Aggressive

c)

Passive-Aggressive

d)

Assertive

66.

Which communication style is characterized by being loud, angry, and "in your face"?

a)

Assertive

b)

Passive

c)

Aggressive

d)

Passive aggresive

67.

Which communication style is characterized by avoiding any confrontations at all cost?

a)

Assertive

b)

Passive

c)

Aggressive

d)

Passive aggresive

68.

Which communication style is characterized by being direct while still showing respect?

a)

Assertive

b)

Passive

c)

Aggressive

d)

Passive aggresive

69.

When a person gives another person _____________ during a conversation, it establishes a level of trust with that person by allowing people to know the speaker is sincere.

a)

handshake

b)

eye-contact

c)

facial expressions

d)

proximity

70.

When people use ________________, they set the tone for the conversation and can provide feedback on the information being communicated. They can include a look of confusion, a smile or frown.

a)

Gestures

b)

Eye-Contact

c)

Facial Expressions

d)

Posture & Body Orientation

71.

A person's ________________ can communicate many messages. The way a person walks, talks, stands, or sits creates communication.

a)

posture and body orientation

b)

gesture

c)

facial expression

d)

proximity

72.

The effects of TBI may include: (there is more than one answer)

a)

Learning disabilities

b)

Information processing problems

c)

Cognitive dysfunction

d)

Visual impairment

e)

All of the above

73.

What is Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)

a)

Jolt or Blow to the head.

b)

When objects penetrate the skull.

c)

Brain cells damaged or affected by an accident.

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

74.

Who can get a TBI?

a)

Only children who play rough.

b)

Anyone at any age

c)

Children ages infant-18 years old

d)

Adults over 60 years old

75.

What are some symptoms of a TBI?

a)

Headache that gets worse or won't go away; Loss of coordination

b)

Repeated vomiting or nausea; slurred speech

c)

Enlargement of the pupil of one or both eyes

d)

All of the above

76.

Which is not a physical symptom of a Concussion

a)

Headache

b)

Blurred vision

c)

Nausea/vomiting

d)

Dizziness; lack of balance

e)

Lack of smell

77.

What type of injury is a concussion?

a)

A injury to the limbic system

b)

A mild to severe traumatic brain injury

c)

A minor headache

78.

A participant in a study of music perception listens to music with electrodes attached to her scalp while data are collected on the activity of her brain. This technique is called

a)

electroencephalography (EEG)

b)

computed tomography (CT)

c)

positron-emission tomography (PET)

d)

functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

e)

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

79.

Cancers are graded as ______________________

a)

stage 1 & 2

b)

small & big

c)

benign & malignant

80.
A person has a stroke on her occipital lobe.  What might happen to her?
a)
reduced planning abilities
b)
deafness
c)
coma
d)
blindness
81.
A tumor on the temporal lobe would most affect the career of 
a)
an architect
b)
a musician
c)
a professor
d)
a researcher
82.

Which controls personality, short term memory, & speech

a)

frontal lobe

b)

parietal lobe

c)

temporal lobe

d)

occipital lobe

83.
Speech that is jumbled and not understandable is a sign of:
a)
Wernicke's Aphasia
b)
a split brain operation
c)
Broca's aphasia
d)
sensory aphasia
84.
A  person has difficulty speaking possibly due to a stroke.
a)
Broca's Aphasia
b)
Wernicke's Aphasia
c)
Visual Agnosia
d)
Neglect Syndrome
85.
The EEG monitors
a)
injuries in the brain
b)
functioning of the hypothalamus
c)
electrical activity of the endocrine system
d)
electrical activity in the brain
86.

What do we call the linings in our brain that protect it from physical injuries?

a)

nerves

b)

linings

c)

neurons

d)

meninges

87.

Which among the brain diseases is characterized by abnormal growth of tissue inside the brain?

a)

MENINGITIS

b)

BRAIN TUMOR

c)

CONCUSSION

d)

EPILEPSY

88.

Decreased level of consciousness is a sign of

a)

photophobia

b)

increased intracranial pressure

c)

parkinsons disease

d)

paralysis

89.

A dilated artery inside the brain that may rupture is called

a)

a cerebral aneurysm

b)

transient ischemic attack

c)

hydrocephalus

d)

glaucoma

90.

Bleeding inside the skull, inflammation or a tumor could cause

a)

increased intracranial pressure

b)

postictal period

c)

ganglion cyst

d)

hyperfelxion

91.

A stroke affecting the motor area of the left side of the brain will affect

a)

movement on the same side of the body

b)

movement on the opposite side of the body

c)

decreased intracranial pressure

d)

increased intracranial pressure

92.

This medication is used as a short term anticoagulant:

a)

Lasix

b)

Humalog

c)

Heparin

d)

Amiodarone

93.

This medication is frequently given to people with AFib or history of stroke to prevent another clot

a)

Toradol

b)

Xanax

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Eliquis

94.

This medication is an antiepileptic. Also given for neuropathic pain.

a)

Lorazepam

b)

Zyloprim

c)

Metformin

d)

Gabapentin

95.

This medication is given for heart rate control

a)

Cardizem

b)

Cortisol

c)

Colace

d)

Ceftriaxone

96.

This medication should be held for a HR less than 60bpm or SBP less than 100mmHg ( or per doctors orders)

a)

Metocloperamide

b)

Atorvastatin

c)

Rocephin

d)

Metoprolol

97.

Which medication is a Statin?

a)

Lipitor

b)

Lasix

c)

Labetalol

d)

Loratadine

98.

All of the following are benzodiazepines EXCEPT:

a)

Ativan

b)

Xanax

c)

Valium

d)

Avapro

99.

Which lab values should the nurse check prior to administration of Coumadin?

a)

CBC, PT/INR

b)

ABO type and screen

c)

ALT, AST, Alkaline Phosphatase

d)

Amylase and Lipase

100.
Prevents blood from clotting
a)
Anticoagulants
b)
Thrombolytics
c)
Antiplatelets
d)
Bronchodilators
101.

antihypertensive

a)

furosemide

b)

zolpidem

c)

gabapentin

d)

lisinopril

102.

anticonvulsant

a)

gabapentin

b)

lisinopril

c)

acetaminophen

d)

atorvastatin

103.

anxiolytics (antianxiety)

a)

ibuprofen

b)

linsinopril

c)

clonidine

d)

lorazepam

104.

A client is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) 1mg by mouth QID. The client states that the objects in his room have a yellowish tinge and he is nauseated. Select the most appropriate nursing action at this time.

a)

Hold the medication and count the apical pulse before the next dose is to be given.

b)

Count the apical pulse; if it is regular and above 60, administer the drug as ordered.

c)

Administer the medication and observe the client for further nausea.

d)

Hold the drug and call the health care provider

105.

A client is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril). Which of the following is most important for the nurse to assess before administering this medication to the client?

a)

Serum electrolytes.

b)

Body temperature.

c.

c)

Peripheral edema.

d)

Breath sounds

106.

diuretic

a)

furosemide

b)

atorvastatin

c)

ciprofloxacin

d)

gabapentin

107.

antilipemic

a)

ciprofloxacin

b)

atorvastatin

c)

gabapentin

d)

acetaminophen

108.

While the major adverse effect of heparin therapy is hemorrhage, another adverse effect involves blood pooling in the skin, which is called:

a)

hematopoiesis

b)

hemarthrosis

c)

subdural hematoma

d)

ecchymosis

109.

The oral anticoagulant of choice is:

a)

ticlopidine

b)

ow-molecular-weight heparin

c)

warfarin

d)

standard heparin

110.

Besides aspirin, the preferred antiplatelet agent is:

a)

ticlopidine

b)

abciximab

c)

acetaminophen

d)

clopidogrel

111.

Antiplatelet agents may prevent arterial thrombosis, myocardial infarction, or:

a)

stroke

b)

kidney failure

c)

hemorrhage

d)

perfusion

112.

Warfarin is an antagonist of vitamin:

a)

B

b)

C

c)

K

d)

A

113.

Which of the following dissolve blood clots?

a)

Hemolytics

b)

Antiperfusion agents

c)

Platelet aggregation inhibitors

d)

Thrombolytics

114.

Warfarin is popularly marketed as:

a)

Ticlid

b)

Plavix

c)

Coumadin

d)

Streptase

115.

The trade name for clopidogrel is:

a)

Ticlid

b)

Plavix

c)

Xarelto

d)

ReoPro

116.

What is the therapeutic class for Keppra

a)

Anti-convulsant

b)

Antifungal Agent

c)

Insulin

d)

Loop Diuretic

117.

What is the generic name for Reglan

a)

Metoclopramide

b)

Eletripan

c)

Budesonide

d)

Pantoprazole

118.
Which of the following is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril)?
a)
Rash
b)
Angioedema
c)
Cough
d)
Congestion
119.
Which of the following is not a side effect of the Dieuretics (Loop diuretics)?
a)
Alkalosis
b)
Nausea
c)
Hypotension
d)
Potassium deficits
120.

Frusemide belongs to .....

a)

Loop diuretics

b)

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

c)

thiazide diuretics

121.

Which of the following is an aldosterone antagonist?

a)

Frusemide

b)

Spironolactone

c)

Mannitol