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AP Environmental Science Review Quizizz

Total questions: 129

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The study of environmental science primarily considers

a)

interactions among human systems and those found in Earth

b)

the effect of human systems

c)

abiotic factors that influence the state of our environment

d)

factors that affect global climate change

2.

An ecosystem is a location on Earth that includes

a)

only biotic components

b)

only abiotic components

c)

interacting biotic and abiotic components

d)

positive and negative feedback loops

3.

Living in a sustainable way refers to

a)

recycling all paper, plastic, and metals

b)

using resources in a way that does not deprive future generations

c)

using Earth's resources efficiently

d)

eating locally whenever possible

4.

Place the ecology levels of organization in proper order (smallest to largest)

a)

organism > population > community > ecosystem > biosphere

b)

community > organism > ecosystem > biosphere > population

c)

organism > community > biosphere > population > ecosystem

d)

population > biosphere > ecosystem > community > organism

5.

A tapeworm lives in the small intestines where it feeds and grows, robbing the human of essential nutrients. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

6.

The cattle egret follows herds of cattle and eat the insects that the cattle stir up as they move through the grassland. The cattle appear to be unaffected by the egrets. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

7.

A positive feedback loop occurs

a)

when a system responds to a change by returning to its original state

b)

when feedback into a system decreases a rate of response

c)

when a system is in a steady state

d)

when feedback into a system increases a rate of response

8.

Which is a biotic factor?

a)

producers

b)

pH

c)

energy

d)

humidity

9.

What law best relates to energy loss within an ecosystem?

a)

First law of thermodynamics

b)

Second law of thermodynamics

c)

Third law of thermodynamics

d)

Law of conservation of matter

10.

Which best describes the concept of net primary production?

a)

total amount of energy available from the Sun

b)

total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

c)

energy captured minus energy lost

d)

total amount of energy available from the producer

11.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 10oC and 200 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Temperate seasonal forest

b)

Temperate rainforest

c)

Woodland/shrubland

d)

Tropical seasonal forest

12.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 4oC and 50 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Tundra

b)

Boreal forest

c)

Temperate grassland/cold desert

d)

Woodland/shrubland

13.

What factors are used to classify a biome?

a)

average temperature

b)

average precipitation

c)

distinctive plants adapted to area

d)

all of these are correct

14.

Terrestrial biomes are defined by ____ and ____ variables.

a)

temperature; precipitation

b)

temperature; animals

c)

precipitation; plants

d)

animals; plants

15.

What is a herbivore?

a)

receives energy from the sun

b)

only eats meat

c)

only eats plants

d)

eats both plants and meat

16.

A keystone species is best defined as

a)

an organism that eats all others

b)

an organism that runs the fastest

c)

an organism that keeps the food web stable

d)

an organism that has the most advantages

17.

Which of the following are examples of wetlands?

a)

swamps

b)

marshes

c)

bogs

d)

all of these are correct

18.

Which biome has warm temperatures, high precipitation, and little seasonal variation due to its location near the equator?

a)

Boreal forest

b)

Tropical rainforest

c)

Woodland/shrubland

d)

Subtropical desert

19.

The direction of an arrow in a food chain represents

a)

the flow of energy from organism B to A

b)

the movement of organisms

c)

the directionality of the sun

d)

the flow of energy from organism A to B

20.

All of the following is true about a niche generalist EXCEPT

a)

thrives in multiple environments

b)

feeds on specific food only

c)

lives in various habitats

d)

feeds on various food

21.

What is an omnivore?

a)

receives energy from the sun

b)

only eats meat

c)

only eats plants

d)

eats both plants and meat

22.

Which of the following biogeochemical cycles does not have an atmospheric phase?

a)

Hydrolic Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Sulfur Cycle

d)

Carbon Cycle

e)

Phosphorous Cycle

23.

The length and complexity of a food web in the Arctic would be ____ when compared to one in the tropical rainforest.

a)

Short and less complex

b)

short and more complex

c)

long and less complex

d)

long and more complex

24.

Producers rely on _____ to release chemical energy and consumers rely on ____ to release chemical energy.

a)

Cellular Respiration; photosynthesis

b)

Cellular Respiration; cellular respiration

c)

photosynthesis; cellular respiration

d)

photosynthesis; photosynthesis

25.

In the Nitrogen cycle, what is one Natural way that Nitrogen gets into our soil?

a)

Fertilizers

b)

Human Waste through septic tanks

c)

Decomposing animals

d)

Industrial waste

26.

There are less nutrient rich soils in the Rain Forest due to the dense tree canopy and water runoff.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Which biome has the lowest average Temperature, and the lowest Precipitation?

a)

Tundra

b)

Savanna

c)

Rainforest

d)

Taiga

28.

Which is the only biogeochemical cycle that doesn't occur in our atmosphere?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon

29.

Which of the following is an example of a biotic factor?

a)

Temperature

b)

Light

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Population

e)

Water

30.

Intraspecific Competition is between the same species. true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Diurnal and Nocturnal creatures share their resources through the use of which of the following processes?

a)

Competition

b)

Resource Partitioning

c)

Different trophic levels

d)

Coevolution

32.

In a food pyramid, which organism can be found on the bottom?

a)

Primary Consumers

b)

producers

c)

Secondary Consumers

d)

Herbivores

33.

Human activities such as the ____ release large amounts of Carbon into our atmosphere.

a)

Burning of fossil fuels

b)

burning of wood

c)

use of synthetic fertilizers

d)

use of detergents

34.

Which of the following biogeochemical cycles does not have an atmospheric phase?

a)

Hydrolic Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Sulfur Cycle

d)

Carbon Cycle

e)

Phosphorous Cycle

35.
The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere 
a)
 is increasing in part due to fossil fuel use
b)
has not significantly changed in the past 100 years.
c)
is decreasing in part due to deforestation.
d)
cannot be reliably measured.
36.
An ecological footprint considers 
a)
per capita resource use of a nation. 
b)
resources that an entire nation consumes in an average year.
c)
how much an individual consumes in terms of land area. 
d)
he ratio of resources consumed in developed nations to less developed nations. 
37.
Which is an example of a sustainable practice?
 I. Replanting a logged forest
II. Developing substitutes for nonrenewable resources I
II. Banning the use of all fossil fuels
 
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
I and III
d)
I and II 
38.
Most energy on Earth comes from 
a)
Sun 
b)
Water
c)
Trees
d)
Fire
39.
Energy is measured in 
a)
hertz. 
b)
joules or calories.
c)
kilowatts. 
d)
wavelengths.
40.
Which organic molecules are the basis of biological molecules important to life?
a)
Carbohydrates, methane, nucleic acids, and lipids
b)
Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids 
c)
Organelles, proteins, nucleic acids, and lipids
d)
Carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, and organophosphates 
41.
The second law of thermodynamics states that 
a)
no energy is lost in an energy conversion. 
b)
all systems move toward increased entropy.
c)
new energy is available in all systems.
d)
 matter can be neither created nor destroyed.
42.
A negative feedback loop occurs 
a)
when feedback into a system increases a rate of response.
b)
when feedback into a system decreases a rate of response.
c)
when a system is in a steady state. 
d)
when a system responds to a change by returning it to its original state.
43.
If the amount of food or resources available increases, the carrying capacity for an animal:
a)
Stays the same
b)
Increases
c)
Decreases
d)
Fluctuates
44.
The Coriolis effect causes global winds to 
a)
rotate
b)
change directions
c)
become stronger
d)
curve
45.
What are three types of rocks?
a)
sedimentary, igneous, metamorphic
b)
mantle, igneous, sedimentary
c)
crust, core, mantle
46.
What shape does the curve on an exponential growth chart have?
a)
V
b)
S
c)
J
d)
U
47.

__________ primary productivity is the total amount of energy that producers convert to chemical energy in organic molecules per unit of time.

a)

Net

b)

Total

c)

Gross

d)

Secondary

48.

__________ primary productivity = the organic materials that remain after photosynthetic organisms in the ecosystem have used some of these compounds for their cellular energy needs (cellular respiration).

a)

Gross

b)

Total

c)

Net

d)

Secondary

49.

In which process are nitrate ions and nitrite ions converted into nitrous oxide gas and nitrogen gas?

a)

Nitrification

b)

Denitrification

c)

Assimilation

d)

Ammonification

e)

Nitrogen fixation

50.

A biome is defined by its characteristic vegetation and overall productivity. What two factors determine these characteristics?

a)

Temperature

b)

Longitude

c)

Precipitation

d)

Animal life

e)

Proximity to humans

51.

Which trophic level has the MOST biomass?

a)

Producers

b)

Primary Consumers

c)

Secondary Consumers

d)

Tertiary Consumers

52.

Of the following organisms, which occupies the highest (tertiary) trophic level?

a)

Hawk

b)

Snake

c)

Mouse

d)

Grass

53.

How much energy is LOST between trophic levels?

a)

10%

b)

90%

c)

100%

d)

50%

e)

75%

54.

What level of productivity is in this image?

a)

Euphotic

b)

Oligotrophic

c)

Mesotrophic

55.

Assimilation

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

56.

Nitrification

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

57.

Why can't producers assimilate nitrogen directly from the atmosphere?

a)

Nitrogen must be 'fixed' into an organic form (usually by bacteria)

b)

Nitrogen CAN be assimilated, it's just easier for plants to pull nitrogen from the soil/fertilizer

c)

Nitrogen is not needed by plants

d)

Very little nitrogen is stored in the atmopshere

58.

A forest has a GPP of 4.9 kg C/m2/yr & the respiration rate is 3.1 kg C/m2/yr. What is the NPP?

a)

1.8 kg C/m2/yr

b)

8.0 kg C/m2/yr

c)

2.8 kg C/m2/yr

d)

7.0 kg C/m2/yr

59.

Two species that have a high degree of niche overlap will ___

a)

compete intensely

b)

immediately speciate

c)

interbreed

d)

coexist peacefully

60.

How is the majority of energy within an ecosystem lost?

a)

Heat loss (second law of thermodynamics)

b)

Cellular respiration (first law of thermodynamics)

c)

Energy used to capture prey (first law of thermodynamics)

d)

Energy used to grow biomass (second law of thermodynamics)

61.
a)

Boreal forest

b)

Temperate Grassland

c)

Temperate Seasonal Forest

d)

Subtropical Desert

e)

Tundra

62.

Fragmenting one large park or preserve into many small parks with human habitation in between them is most likely to lead to which of the following?

a)

Reduction in species diversity

b)

Stabilization of microclimates

c)

Decrease in the proportion of edge habitat

d)

Increase in population size of carnivores

63.

The factor that likely poses the greatest threat of extinction of species worldwide is

a)

black market trade in endangered species

b)

aggressive collecting of specimens by museums and zoos

c)

increasing loss of habitat

d)

weakening of environmental legislation

64.

Which of the following best shows the process of evolution?

a)

A population of mosquitoes develops resistance to a pesticide

b)

A bear goes into hibernation

c)

A lizard’s color becomes brown as it sits on a log

d)

A population of foxes increases as more prey becomes available

65.

Characteristics that tend to increase the risk of a species becoming endangered include which of the following?

a)

Having a very limited distribution

b)

Being a specialist at the end of a long food chain

c)

Having a small population size

d)

All of these are correct

66.

In general, which of the following is the best long-term method of preventing extinctions?

a)

Protecting the habitats of endangered species

b)

Paying people not to kill endangered species

c)

Removing predators from areas that contain endangered species

d)

Providing food to endangered species in the wild

67.

If mean global temperature keeps on increasing as predicted by contemporary scientists, which of the following is most likely?

a)

There will be fewer insect pests and disease-carrying organisms

b)

Specialist species living in fragile ecosystems will risk extinction

c)

There will be an increase in the reproductive rate of mammals

d)

The geographical range of many plants will move toward the equator

68.

Gradual transition over time from one type of biological community to another.

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Law of tolerance

c)

Ecological succession

d)

Energy pyramid

69.

The theory of island biogeography suggests that species richness is affected by which of the following factors?

a)

Island distance from mainland

b)

How the island is formed

c)

Island size

d)

All of these are correct

70.

Which of the following statements about ecological succession is correct?

a)

Secondary succession is followed by primary succession.

b)

Primary succession occurs over a shorter time span than secondary succession.

c)

Succession is influenced by competition for limiting resources such as available soil, moisture, and nutrients.

d)

In forest succession, less shade-tolerant trees replace more shade-tolerant trees.

71.

After a severe drought, the productivity in an ecosystem took many years to return to pre-drought conditions. This observation indicates that the ecosystem has

a)

low resilience.

b)

high resilience.

c)

high resistance.

d)

low resistance.

72.

According to the first law of thermodynamics

a)

energy can never leave or enter the system.

b)

energy can never change form.

c)

energy is not created or destroyed.

d)

none of these are correct

73.

Which of the following are needed for photosynthesis?

a)

Water, solar energy, and carbon dioxide

b)

Water, solar energy, and glucose

c)

Oxygen and glucose

d)

Oxygen, water, and solar energy

74.

After a forest fire, a badly damaged ecosystem recovered rapidly. This ecosystem has

a)

high resistance.

b)

low resistance.

c)

high resilience.

d)

low resilience.

75.

Which best describes the concept of gross primary production?

a)

Total amount of energy available to primary consumers

b)

Total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

c)

Total amount of energy available within an ecosystem

d)

Total amount of solar energy that producers capture via photosynthesis

76.

Which is another name for a producer?

a)

Heterotroph

b)

Autotroph

c)

Decomposer

d)

Scavenger

77.

The number of individuals per unit area determines the population's __________.

a)

density

b)

mortality

c)

age distribution

d)

survivorship

78.

The mortality rate of organisms following a type I survivorship curve is __________.

a)

fairly constant throughout life

b)

higher in post-reproductive years

c)

lower after the organisms become established

d)

unrelated to age

79.

What type of reproductive pattern would this organism have?

a)

K-strategist

b)

R-strategist

80.

What point on the graph represents carrying capacity?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

81.

What point on the graph represents carrying capacity?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

82.

What type of spatial dispersion do dandelions in your yard typically exhibit? (Remember seeds are wind dispersed.)

a)

Clumped

b)

Random

c)

Uniform

83.

What point on the graph represents exponential growth?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

84.
When some species coexist despite apparent competition by having slightly different niches is called:
a)
Ecological Niche
b)
Batesian Mimicry
c)
Gause's Principle
d)
Resource Partitioning
85.

Type of symbiosis: Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers. The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.

a)

commensalism

b)

mutualism

c)

parasitism

d)

predation

86.
True or False: Limiting factors can be population dependent and population independent.
a)
True/Cierto
b)
False/Falso
87.
North Fremont’s population growth rate is 5%.  What is the doubling time for North Fremont?
a)
1.4 years
b)
14 years
c)
140 years
d)
35 years
88.
If a country were doubling its population every 35 years, what would its growth rate be?
a)
1%
b)
2%
c)
4%
d)
8%
89.
People leaving a country
a)
Immigration
b)
Emigration
c)
Birth
d)
Death
90.
VOCAB: Number of babies out of 1000 that die during their first year of life
a)
infant mortality
b)
child mortality
c)
life expectancy
d)
growth rate
91.
Which of the following leads to a decrease in birthrates among women?
a)
Higher Education
b)
High Infant Mortality Rate
c)
No Prenatal Care
d)
No contraceptives
92.

The human population is approaching

a)

100 million

b)

1 billion

c)

5 billion

d)

8 billion

93.
Which region of the world has the fastest growing population?
a)
Southeast Asia
b)
Eastern Europe
c)
Sub-Saharan Africa
d)
Latin America
94.

If a population grows larger than its environmental carrying capacity, then

a)

death rate may rise.

b)

death rate may fall significantly.

c)

birth rate may rise significantly.

d)

immigration rate may increase.

95.
Use Figure 7-1.  Population A is most likely:
a)
rapidly growing
b)
rapidly declining
c)
stable or close to stable
d)
going to decline in a few decades
96.
Which of the following does NOT drive ocean currents?
a)
Precipitation
b)
salinity
c)
prevailing winds
d)
gravity
97.
The Coriolis effect is responsible for
a)
the convergence of two ascending Hadley cells
b)
the location of atmospheric currents caused by the unequal heating of Earth
c)
the cooling effect of air as it rises and expands
d)
the deflection of atmospheric currents
98.
The maximum amount of water vapor air can hold at a given temperature is called the
a)
saturation point
b)
latent heat capacity
c)
absolute humidity
d)
dew point
99.
Temperature changes in adiabatic heating occurs due to 
a)
water vapor condensing
b)
a pressure increase
c)
absorption of sunlight
d)
a pressure decrease
100.
Which of the following has the highest albedo?
a)
soil
b)
snow
c)
water
d)
pavement
101.
Which allows more rapid evolution?
a)
long generation times
b)
rapid environmental change
c)
large population sizes
d)
high genetic variation
102.
46. Which formula can be used to estimate population size?
a)
CBR + Immigration + CDR + Emigration
b)
CBR + Immigration – CDR – Emigration
c)
CBR + Immigration + CDR – Emigration
d)
CBR – Immigration – CDR – Emigration
103.
47. Which factor is NOT considered when estimating world population?
a)
CBR
b)
CDR
c)
total fertility rates
d)
immigration
104.
50. Populations with a column-shaped age structure diagram have
a)
high crude death rates.
b)
a similar number of individuals in each age group.
c)
a declining population.
d)
low crude death rates.
105.
51. Human population growth has increased dramatically in the last 100 years because of
a)
modern medicine.
b)
genetically modified crops.
c)
access to reliable birth control.
d)
climate change.
106.
56. Which is NOT a reason that the population of the United States continues to grow?
a)
net migration
b)
advances in medical technology
c)
the baby boom of the 1940s through 1960s
d)
high emigration
107.

60. Which population is larger?

a)

Population A is larger than population B.

b)

Population B is larger than population A.

c)

Currently, the populations are roughly the same size, but population B will soon be larger.

d)

Currently, the populations are roughly the same size, but population A will soon be larger.

108.

61. Population A is most likely

a)

growing rapidly.

b)

growing slowly.

c)

stable.

d)

going to decline in the next 20 years.

109.
70. Family planning has been beneficial in many developing countries because it
a)
restricts information about birth control.
b)
increases crude birth rates.
c)
decreases total fertility rates.
d)
discourages contraceptive use.
110.

80. In phase 3 of a demographic transition, _________________ increases while _____________ decreases.

a)

family income; education funding

b)

the crude death rate; the crude birth rate

c)

the crude birth rate; the crude death rate

d)

affluence; the crude birth rate

111.
53. Population growth rates are high in developing countries because
a)
infant mortality rates are low.
b)
women tend to have children late in life.
c)
family planning is common.
d)
children are often an economic advantage.
112.
44. Under which of the following conditions would a population grow?
a)
The birth rate and the death rate are equal.
b)
The birth rate exceeds the death rate and there is no immigration or emigration.
c)
Emigration exceeds immigration and the birth rate equals the death rate.
d)
The birth rate equals the death rate and immigration is equal to emigration.
113.
42. Which factor is NOT likely to affect the size of a country’s population over time?
a)
the amount of immigration and emigration
b)
the crude death rate
c)
the average age of females when they begin to bear children
d)
the current carrying capacity
114.
Which is NOT a service provided by soil?
a)
provides a habitat for various organisms
b)
filters water
c)
recycles nutrients
d)
breaks down inorganic material
115.

According to the soil texture chart, what is the percentage of sand, silt, and clay at the point indicated?

a)

50, 40, 10

b)

70, 30, 0

c)

30, 20, 50

d)

80, 10, 10

116.
What is the difference between weathering and erosion?
a)
Weathering is a chemical process; erosion is strictly physical.
b)
Weathering refers to the breakdown of rock; erosion refers to the removal of rock from its landscape.
c)
Erosion refers to the breakdown of rock; weathering refers to the removal of rock from its landscape.
d)
Weathering happens in the tropics; erosion happens in temperate climates.
117.
The freeze-thaw cycle is an example of
a)
chemical weathering.
b)
physical erosion.
c)
physical weathering.
d)
chemical erosion.
118.
What role do lichens play in weathering?
a)
Lichens play a role in chemical weathering because they produce weak acids.
b)
Lichens play a role in chemical weathering only when they are in contact with limestone.
c)
Lichens play a role in chemical weathering because they create carbon dioxide.
d)
Lichens play a role in physical weathering because their roots contribute to erosion.
119.

The E horizon is

a)

the least weathered zone.

b)

the zone through which iron and aluminum pass from overlying horizons.

c)

the zone which receives dissolved organic acids that pass from overlying horizons.

d)

present in all soils.

120.

Topsoil is the

a)

A horizon.

b)

O horizon.

c)

B horizon.

d)

C horizon.

121.

Identify the zone labeled 5 in the figure.

a)

A horizon

b)

O horizon

c)

B horizon

d)

C horizon

122.
Select the correct order of physical size of sediment particles from largest to smallest.
a)
sand, silt, clay
b)
silt, sand, clay
c)
loam, silt, clay
d)
loam, sand, silt
123.
The porosity of soil is a measure of
a)
its cation exchange capacity.
b)
the depth of its topsoil layer.
c)
how much biological material it contains.
d)
how quickly it drains.
124.
Soil drains most rapidly when it is made up of
a)
primarily sand.
b)
roughly equal proportions of silt and clay.
c)
primarily clay.
d)
roughly equal proportions of sand, silt, and clay.
125.
The soil that is best for growing most plants is composed of
a)
sand, because water drains most easily.
b)
silt, because it is a medium sized particle.
c)
a mixture of sand for drainage and clay to hold nutrients.
d)
a mixture of sand, silt, and clay that promotes water drainage and retention.
126.

In the figure, what is the percentage of sand, silt, and clay at point A?

a)

40 percent sand, 20 percent silt, 40 percent clay

b)

40 percent sand, 30 percent silt, 10 percent clay

c)

30 percent sand, 40 percent silt, 30 percent clay

d)

40 percent sand, 40 percent silt, 20 percent clay

127.
Repeated plowing and tilling of the same plot of land leads to
a)
lower chances of soil erosion.
b)
porous and permeable soil.
c)
decreased soil productivity.
d)
larger quality crop harvests.
128.
What causes warm air to rise? 
a)
The fact that it's less dense than cold air
b)
The fact that it weighs more than cold air
c)
The fact that it has higher pressure than cold air
d)
The fact that it's more dense than cold air
129.
The apparent curving of a path of wind from its straight path due to Earth's rotation.
a)
Jet streams
b)
Global winds
c)
Air pressure
d)
Coriolis Effect

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