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Mendel to Central Dogma (12-16)

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 20hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What enzymes are involved in DNA replication? 
a)
primase, polymerase
b)
primase, polymerase, ligase
c)
helicase, primase, ligase
d)
helicase, primase, polymerase, ligase
2.
DNA and RNA are made up of subunits known as...
a)
nucleotides
b)
codons
c)
nitrogen bases
d)
ribose molecules
3.
The process of turning the message of mRNA into a protein is called...
a)
transcription
b)
translation
4.
The ___ molecule brings amino acids to the ribosome. 
a)
mRNA
b)
rRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
DNA
5.
A set of 3 nucleotides that codes for an amino acid is called a(n)...
a)
codon
b)
uricil
c)
leading strand
d)
nitrogenous bases
6.
The rungs of the DNA ladder are made up of...
a)
sugars
b)
phosphates
c)
sugars and phosphates
d)
nitrogenous bases
7.
A gene is...
a)
part of a cell where DNA Is located
b)
a segment of DNA that codes for a protein
c)
the subunits that make up DNA 
d)
a partial moledule of mRNA
8.

Which of these correctly states the central dogma?

a)

protein synthesis, transcription, translation

b)

protein synthesis, translation, transcription

c)

translation, transcription, protein synthesis

d)

transcription, translation, protein synthesis

9.
A DNA segment is changed from AATTAG to AAATAG. This is a ___.
a)
Frameshift
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
10.
What type of mutation occurs when a nucleotide is complete removes from a codon? 
a)
substitution
b)
frameshift
c)
lethal
d)
insertion
11.
In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until 
a)
the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
b)
several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
c)
the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
d)
the DNA introns are removed from the template.
12.
The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is 
a)
complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
b)
complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
c)
the part of tRNA that bonds with a specific amino acid.
d)
catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.
13.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the genotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
14.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the Punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
15.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
16.
Why is the gene for a disease or disorder more likely to be found on the X chromosome than Y?
a)
The X chromosome has many more genes
b)
The Y chromosome has many more genes
17.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
18.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
19.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X R X r ?

a)

male with white eyes

b)

female with red eyes

c)

male with red eyes

d)

female with white eyes

20.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X R Y ?

a)

male with white eyes

b)

female with white eyes

c)

male with red eyes

d)

female with red eyes

21.

What are the genotypes of these flies:


white eyed, male ?

a)

X R X r

b)

X R X R

c)

Xr X r

d)

X r Y

e)

XR Y

22.

In a cross between a pure red eyed female and a white eyed male, what would the genotypes of the parents be?

a)

XRXr with XR Y

b)

XRXr with Xr Y

c)

XRXR with XR Y

d)

XRXR with Xr Y

e)

XrXr with Xr Y

23.

Look at this cross: XBXb x XBY


What proportion of the male children are colorblind?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

24.

Look at this cross: XB XB x Xb Y

What proportion/percent of the male children are colorblind?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

25%

d)

0%

25.
A dihybrid cross shows the possible outcomes of _______ 
a)
two alleles
b)
two parents
c)
two traits/characters
d)
a self pollination
26.
A male beetle has the genotype Ttbb. If this beetle mates with a female with genotype TTBb, what is the chance their offspring will have the genotype TtBb?
a)
12.5%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
27.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
28.
Having two of the SAME alleles for a trait (example HH or hh):
a)
homozygous
b)
heterozygous
c)
recessive
d)
whack, dawg.
29.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits, like the old theory of blending
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
recessive pattern
30.
This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring:
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
co-dominance
d)
Indomitable 
31.
When two or more genes control one single trait.
a)
Multiple Alleles
b)
Several Genes
c)
Polygenetic Traits
d)
Genotype
32.
When two or more alleles for a trait exist in a population.  Ex: Different hair colors or blood types
a)
SHAZAM!
b)
Multiple Genes
c)
Multiple Alleles
d)
Polysaccharide
33.
What factors can affect a person's height?
a)
genes only
b)
both genes and environmental factors
c)
a person's blood type
d)
a person's karyotype
34.
This pattern of inheritance is demonstrated when a gene from one locus can prevent the full expression of another gene at a different locus. 
a)
Multiple alleles
b)
Polygenic Inheritance
c)
Codominance 
d)
Epistasis
35.
This pattern of inheritance is when one gene or mutation can have multiple phenotypic effects
a)
Multiple alleles
b)
Polygenic inheritance
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Codominance
36.
On a karyotype, a male with Klinefelter's Syndrome is indicated by which set of sex chromosomes?
a)
XYY
b)
XXY
c)
XXX
d)
XO
37.
On a karyotype, a female with Turner Syndrome is indicated by which set of sex chromosomes?
a)
XYY
b)
XXY
c)
XXX
d)
XO
38.
On a karyotype, a male with Jacob's Syndrome is indicated by which set of sex chromosomes?
a)
XYY
b)
XXY
c)
XXX
d)
XO
39.
In the case of Down syndrome, nondisjunction occurs with this chromosome pair:
a)
2
b)
13
c)
18
d)
21
40.
Which genetic abnormality does this baby have?
a)
Partial Deletion
b)
Partial Addition
c)
Trisomy
d)
Monosomy
41.
A person with Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome. This means one of their gametes was missing a chromosome.
Which of the following is why gametes sometimes lack a complete chromosome?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Nondisjunction
c)
Inversion mutation
d)
Substitution mutation
42.
Give the genotype for person III-3
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
Cannot determine
43.
What is the genotype of the great-grandfather? (Individual 2)
a)
A_
b)
aa
c)
Aa
d)
AA
44.
When an extra base has been added  to the sequence of bases, this is what type of mutation?
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Inversion
d)
Insertion
45.
DNA molecule segment is: TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ______ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Insertion
c)
Inversion
d)
Translocation
46.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ______ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
47.
The SRY gene codes primarily for...
a)
female traits
b)
male traits
c)
autosomal traits in both sexes
d)
sex linked traits in both sexes
48.
X-linked genes in males are known as __________ b/c males have 1 X not 2.
a)
heterozygous
b)
homozygous
c)
hemizygous
d)
homogametic
49.
Which sequence of complementary DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG?
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
50.

pre-mRNA must be edited before it can be used to make proteins, what happens during this editing process?

a)

A spliceosome cuts out exons

b)

A spliceosome cuts out the introns

c)

A splicesome pairs nucleotides with the DNA base pairs

d)

The RNA is checked for typos

51.

What is the function of promoter sequences

a)

Recognition by RNA polymerase

b)

Recognition by transcription factors

c)

Recognition by primase factor

d)

All

52.

What are introns?

a)

Sequences of nucleotides that are removed to form mature RNA in eukaryotes

b)

Sequences of nucleotides that are removed to form mature RNA in prokaryotes

c)

Sequences that remain in mature RNA after exons have been removed

d)

Small pieces of circular DNA that are found in prokaryotes

53.

What is a feature of transcription?

a)

Both strands of a DNA molecule act as a template for mRNA.

b)

Nucleoside triphosphates become nucleotides by losing three phosphates.

c)

RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region.

d)

The sense strand acts as a template for mRNA.

54.

What does post-transcriptional modification of eukaryotic mRNA include?

I. Introns are removed from mRNA.

II. Exons are joined together to form mature mRNA.

III. A 5' cap and 3' poly-A tail are added to mRNA.

a)

I only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

55.

The sequence of DNA that serves as the attachment point for RNA polymerase is called what?

a)

promoter

b)

enhancer

c)

inducer

d)

terminator

56.

State the direction of transcription

a)

5' --> 3'

b)

3' --> 5'

57.

Transcription occurs along a ____ template forming an mRNA in the ____ direction.

a)

5' to 3'; 5' to 3'

b)

5' to 3'; 3' to 5'

c)

3' to 5'; 5' to 3'

d)

3' to 5'; 3' to 5'

58.

What is added to the 3'-end of many eukaryotic mRNAs after transcription?

a)

intron

b)

exon

c)

poly tail A

d)

capping

59.

Using the genetic code, what are the amino acids encoded by the sequence AUGUCAACGUGA?

a)

Met, Ser, Thr, (Stop)

b)

Tyr, Ser, Cys, Thr

c)

Ser, Tyr, Leu, Val

d)

Met, Val, Asp, Met

60.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
61.
In the lac operon model the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
glucose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
62.

In bacteria, a group of genes that code for functionally related enzymes, their promoter site, and the operator that controls them all function together as a(n)

a)

exon

b)

intron

c)

operon

d)

ribosome

63.

The function of the operator is to

a)

regulate access of RNA polymerase to specific genes

b)

turn on and off the molecules of tRNA

c)

control the process of transcription within the nucleus

d)

generate amino acids for protein synthesis

64.

A repressor protein

a)

prevents DNA synthesis

b)

attaches to ribosomes during translation

c)

destroys amino acids before protein synthesis occurs

d)

blocks movement of RNA polymerase

65.
Which of the follwoing best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?
a)
it is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor
b)
it sets the reading frame of the mRNA
c)
it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding
d)
it signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene
66.
A chemical modification of DNA that does not affect the nucleotide sequence of a gene but makes that gene less likely to be expressed.
a)
methylation
b)
acetylation
c)
transcription
d)
translation
67.

Which site of the ribosome receives incoming tRNA during translation?

a)

A site

b)

P site

c)

E site

d)

C site

68.
The lac operon genes only become expressed if:
a)
lactose binds to the repressor
b)
glucose binds to the repressor
c)
lactose binds to the operator
d)
the repressor binds to the operator
69.

Which of the following statements regarding the trp operon is true?

a)

The operator region produces the mRNA that codes for the repressor.

b)

The regulatory gene is not transcribed in the presence of the repressor.

c)

Repressor proteins are inactivated by the presence of the repressor. .

d)

The trp operon is always activated unless deactivated by a repressor

70.

Why is the transcription of structural genes of the trp operon turned off in the presence of tryptophan?

a)

Tryptophan is the repressor that binds to the operator, preventing transcription.

b)

The structural genes are used to make tryptophan, which would not be needed if tryptophan is available.

c)

Tryptophan has no effect on the transcription of the structural genes.

d)

Tryptophan RNA polymerase from finding the promoter of the trp operon, preventing structural gene transcription.

71.
When a gene does not transcribe unless turned on by activator , it is considered _____ control
a)
positive
b)
negative
72.
When a gene transcribes unless turned off by a repressor, it is considered _____ control
a)
negative
b)
positive
73.
What is an example of positive control?
a)
The lac operon being transcribed when lactose is present
b)
The trp operon being transcribed when tryptophan is absent
c)
the lac promoter being activated by CAP when cAMP levels rise
d)
control is all just an illusion
74.
All of the following are true about histone acetylation EXCEPT
a)
takes place on the histone
b)
enzymes add a acetyl group
c)
when it occurs, transcription is more likely to occur
d)
chromatin becomes more tightly packed
75.
What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
76.

What happens when adding ubiquitin?

a)

Protein is destroyed

b)

It increases transcription

c)

It increases protein synthesis

d)

It is a short term modification

77.
Cri-du-Chat Syndrome is caused by what kind of mutation?
a)
translocation
b)
inversion
c)
deletion
d)
addition
78.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
79.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
80.
Which enzyme seals okazaki fragments together on the lagging strand?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
Helicase
c)
Polymerase
d)
Ligase
81.

This enzyme helps helicase unzip DNA by relieving supercoiling

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

Exonuclease

c)

DNA Primase

d)

DNA Polymerase

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