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Year 10 Triple Sci - Cycle 3 Baseline Assessment

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What do you call the cell that forms from fertilization?

a)

fertilized egg

b)

sperm cell

c)

zygote

d)

egg cell

2.

What do you call the type of reproduction in which the genetic materials from two different cells combine, producing an offspring?

a)

pollination

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

fertilization

d)

asexual reproduction

3.

In this cell division, one diploid cell divides and makes four haploid sex cells. What do you call this special kind of cell division?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

fertilization

d)

pollination

4.

Which of the following is an advantage of sexual reproduction?

a)

Genetic variation

b)

Down syndrome

c)

Mutation

d)

New trait formed

5.

What type of reproduction takes place when one parent organism produces offspring without meiosis and fertilization?

a)

pollination

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

asexual reproduction

d)

fertilization

6.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction?

a)

All organisms have genetic variation

b)

Parents produces identical off spring which is not suitable for survival in a changing environment

c)

Finding a mate is not needed

d)

It can produce a lot of offspring

7.

What is a dominant allele

a)

An allele which if present will give the organism that characteristic

b)

A bossy allele

c)

You need two of these to give that characteristic

d)

A strong one

8.

What is the genotype of the organism?

a)

How the organism looks

b)

The type of jeans a human wears

c)

The arrangement of genes in the organism

d)

The way it is affected by its environment

9.

Which of these is a possible homozygous genotype

a)

Bbb

b)

CC

c)

Dd

d)

aAaA

10.

Why might 2 parents who do not have cystic fibrosis have a child with it?

a)

The disease relies on a dominant allele

b)

Its all random

c)

They are unlucky

d)

They could be carriers

11.

Name another hereditary condition

a)

Salmonella

b)

Measles

c)

HIV

d)

Polydactyly

12.

What is the shape of DNA?

a)

A long rope

b)

A genetic cross

c)

A double helix

d)

Three strands with complementary base pairs

13.
What stores the code for making an individual protein?
a)
DNA
b)
a gene
c)
a chromosome
d)
transfer RNA
14.

The diagram below represents a portion of a DNA molecule. The letters represent different types of

a)

sugar molecules

b)

nitrogenous bases

c)

enzymes

d)

proteins

15.
How many base pairs would be needed to chain together 3 amino acids?
a)
3
b)
6
c)
9
d)
12
16.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
17.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
18.
Which best describes the role of mRNA in protein synthesis? 
a)
mRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome where they are connected to construct a protein.
b)
mRNA forms the peptide bonds connecting amino acids together to construct a protein 
c)
mRNA decodes the sequence of tRNA into the amino acids used to construct a protein
d)
mRNA brings the code of DNA to the ribosome where it is used to construct a protein
19.
Which one of the following is an inherited variation?
a)
Blood group
b)
Long hair
c)
Scar on your knee
d)
Speaking English
20.
Which one of the following is an environmental variation?
a)
Attached ear lobes
b)
Eye colour
c)
Male or female
d)
Short hair
21.
The gradual change in species over time is...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
22.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
23.
The purpose of selective breeding is to 
a)
Get bigger animals
b)
get smaller animals
c)
create animals with desirable traits
d)
create animals with bad traits
24.
A farmer has bred his pineapple plants from the sweetest pineapples from his last harvest to get even sweeter pineapple plants. What is this an example of?
a)
Selective breeding
b)
Natural selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Mutagenesis
25.
Making changes in the DNA of an organism is
a)
selective breeding
b)
artificial selection
c)
genetic engineering
d)
genetic transformation
26.

What is one of the processes involved in selective breeding?

a)

allowing organisms to reproduce without interference

b)

choosing individuals with desirable characteristics to be parents of the next generation

27.
When the DNA of an organism is altered it is referred to as…
a)
Mutation
b)
Gene Flow
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Sexual Selection
28.
Which is a use genetically modified bacteria?
a)
Identifying the remains of an unknown person.
b)
developing a DNA fingerprint for blood left at a crime scene
c)
making human insulin for diabetics
d)
producing corn that is resistant to herbicides
29.
Traits that help an organism survive are called....
a)
evolution
b)
natural selection
c)
adaptations
d)
habitats
30.
Differences that exist naturally among members of a population or species___?
a)
mutation
b)
adaptation
c)
variations
d)
evolution
31.
Sources of variations include _______ and ______?
a)
sexual reproduction, mutations
b)
asexual reproduction, mutations
c)
biological evolution, genetics
d)
biological evolution, genetics
32.
Species with ______variation are ______likely to survive.
a)
more, less
b)
less,less
c)
less,more
d)
more,more
33.
What term is used to express creating an identical copy of a gene or organism?
a)
hybridization
b)
inbreeding 
c)
cloning 
d)
gene splicing 
34.
What process is shown in the picture?
a)
Gene therapy
b)
Cloning
c)
DNA Fingerprinting
d)
Gene Splicing
35.
Which of these is a step to do a genetic modification?
a)
Selection of the desired characteristic
b)
Isolation of the gene responsible for the characteristic
c)
Insertion of the gene into another organism
d)
All are correct
36.
Taking small groups of cells from part of a plant and growing them under special conditions is known as.
a)
Embryonic cloning
b)
Genetic modification
c)
Tissue culture
d)
Adult cell cloning
37.
Which of the following is an advantage of using tissue culture rather than cuttings to increase the numbers of a plant.
a)
It is cheaper
b)
It is easier
c)
It can produce more plants more quickly
d)
All of the above
38.
What is the name of the process described below:
1. An embryo is split into smaller groups of cells.
2. Each group of cells develops into an embryo and is transplanted into a host animal.
3. The host animals give birth to offspring that are all genetically identical to each other.
a)
Embryo cloning
b)
Adult cell cloning
c)
Genetic modification
d)
Tissue culture
39.
What is the name of the process described below?
1. The nucleus is removed from an unfertilised egg cell and is replaced with a nucleus that has been removed from a skin cell. 
2. The new cell is given an electric shock which causes it to start dividing.
3. The embryo is inserted into a host mother.
4. The offspring will be genetically identical to the adult skin cell.
a)
Embryo cloning
b)
Adult cell cloning
c)
Genetic engineering
d)
Tissue culture
40.
Which of the following are benefits of cloning?
a)
Can be used to increase numbers of animals with a desired characteristic.
b)
Could be used to save animals from extinction.
c)
Development of cloned animals that have been genetically modified to produce valuable proteins in milk.
d)
All of the above
41.
group of the same type of organisms that may breed and produce fertile offspring
a)
species
b)
evolution
c)
plate techtonics
d)
crust
42.
the process by which different kinds of living organisms are thought to have developed and diversified from earlier forms during the history of the earth.
a)
species
b)
Darwin
c)
evolution
d)
taxonomy
43.
According to Mendel's work, one trait will appear more often.  This trait is called the:  ________   trait
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
c)
purebred
d)
hybrid
44.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
45.
Which of the following explains how natural selection causes a trait to become predominant in a population?
a)
Individuals with traits that are favorable to the environment reproduce more.
b)
Traits of an individual change in order to adapt to changes in enviornment.
c)
organisms select which traits they wish to inherit
d)
all of these answers
46.
Which best describes fossils?
a)
They are the preserved remains or evidence of ancient living things
b)
They are the preserved remains or evidence of ancient living and nonliving things
c)
They are the preserved bones of ancient animals
d)
They are impressions of plant leaves in ancient rocks
47.
Why don't all living things become fossils?
a)
because some living things are too small
b)
because some living things are too big
c)
because some are subject to catastrophism and others are not
d)
because environmental conditions have to be just right to prevent decay
48.
Lamarck’s ideas about evolution include the concept that differences among the traits of organisms arise as a result of
a)
continual increases in population size.
b)
the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.
c)
an unchanging local environment.
d)
the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.
49.
Who organized living things by creating binomial nomenclature?
a)
Carolus Linnaeus
b)
Robert Hooke
c)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
d)
James Watson
50.
What are the 8 levels of classification of living things from most general to most specific?
a)
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
b)
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genius, species
c)
domain, kingdom, phamily, class, order, family, genus, species
d)
domain, king, phillip, class, order, family, genus, species
51.
The scientific name for water bear is Hypsibius dujardini.  What is its genus?
a)
Hypsibius 
b)
dujardini
c)
water 
d)
tardigrade
52.
In a properly written scientific name, which part is lowercase?
a)
species
b)
genus
53.

Explain why there are no fossils of many early forms of life

a)

Early forms of life where too soft to form fossils

b)

Early forms of life were very, very small so finding fossilised remains is very difficult.

c)

Most dead organisms do not form fossils they decay

d)

All of the above

54.

Lily sees a skeleton of a dinosaur at a museum. What is true about the bones that make up the skeleton?

a)

The bones are made up of minerals.

b)

The bones are those of the dinosaur itself.

c)

The bones were formed from mud that hardened.

d)

The bones are made up of amber.

55.

Which of these are causes of extinction

a)

Habitat Destruction

b)

A New Predator

c)

A New Disease

d)

A New Competing Species

e)

All of the above

56.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
57.

Known as the father of modern genetics:

a)

Watson

b)

Crick

c)

Darwin

d)

Mendel

58.
T3 - Which of the following genotypes is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
59.

How does a catalyst work in speeding up a reaction?

a)

By lowering the activation energy or reaction

b)

by giving them more energy

c)

by making them more available

60.
Which factors increase the rate of a reaction.
a)
increasing temperature
b)
increasing concentration
c)
increasing surface area
d)
all of these
61.
Define chemical equilibrium.
a)
A reaction is reversible.
b)
The concentration of the reactants is equal to the concentration of the products.
c)
The rate of a forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
d)
The reaction stops and no further change in concentration occurs.
62.
This symbol indicates that a reaction is ____________
a)
reversible
b)
irreversible
63.
A substance that increases speed of chemical reaction without being changed is called:
a)
Catalyst
b)
Acid
c)
Base
d)
pressure
64.
A substance that increases speed of chemical reaction without being changed is called:
a)
Catalyst
b)
Acid
c)
Base
d)
pressure
65.
Identify where the reaction has finished
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
66.
Order the letters from highest to lowest rate of reaction.
a)
A > B > C > D
b)
A > BC > D (B and C have the same rate)
c)
A > B > CD (C and D have the same rate)
d)
D > C > B > A
67.
What does NOT happen when the temperature is increased?
a)
Particles collide more often
b)
Particles collide with more energy
c)
Particles move faster
d)
More particles collide in the correct orientation
68.

The speed at which a chemical reaction occurs

a)

Fast

b)

Slow

c)

Rate

d)

Ratio

69.

The amount of something; how many particles in a volume of a mixture

a)

Rate

b)

Collision

c)

Catalyst

d)

Concentration

70.

2SO2(g)+O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Adding SO2(g) will

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase rate of reaction

d)

have no change

71.
The following factors affect the position of equilibrium EXCEPT
a)
Concentration
b)
Pressure
c)
Temperature
d)
States of matter
72.

2SO2(g)+O2(g)⇌2SO3(g)

Removing O2(g) will

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase pressure

d)

have no change

73.
2SO2(g)+O2(g)⇌2SO3(g)
Adding SO3(g) will
a)
shift equilibrium right
b)
shift equilibrium left
c)
increase K
d)
have no change
74.
Which of the following compounds is an example of hydrocarbon?
a)
CO2
b)
C2H6
c)
C2H5OH
d)
CH3COOH
75.
How does the temperature change from top to bottom?
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
It does not change
d)
Cannot be determined
76.
At which pipe: M or N are hydrocarbons with lower boiling points collected?
a)
M
b)
N
77.
How many carbon atoms are in ethane?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
78.

If an alkane has 10 carbon atoms, how many hydrogen atoms will it have?

a)

20

b)

22

c)

40

d)

42

79.
In fractional distillation, longer length hydrocarbons are found where in the distillation column?
a)
Top
b)
Bottom
80.
What kind of molecule is this?
a)
alkane
b)
alkene
c)
alkyne
d)
cycloalkane
81.
Is this hydrocarbon saturated or unsaturated? 
a)
saturated
b)
unsaturated
82.
Give the name of this compound...
C3H8
a)
Propene
b)
Butyne
c)
Butene
d)
Propane
83.
If an alkane has 20 carbon atoms, how many hydrogen atoms will it have?
a)
20
b)
22
c)
40
d)
42
84.
The longer the hydrocarbon, the _______ the boiling point
a)
Lower
b)
Higher
85.
What is the general formula of an alkane
a)
2n+2
b)
CnH2n+2
c)
CnH2n
d)
CnHn
86.

Which homolgous series contains a C=C double bond?

a)

alkanes

b)

alkenes

c)

alcohols

d)

carboxylic acids

87.

-COOH is the functional group for...

a)

alcohols

b)

esters

c)

carboxylic acids

d)

amides

88.

-COO is the functional group for...

a)

alcohols

b)

esters

c)

carboxylic acids

d)

amides

89.

-OH is the functional group for...

a)

alcohols

b)

esters

c)

carboxylic acids

d)

amides

90.

An alcohol can be __________________ to form a carboxylic acid

a)

oxidised

b)

reduced

c)

polymerised

d)

broken down

91.

Name this carboxylic acid

a)

ethanoic acid

b)

prpoanoic acid

c)

butyl butanoate

d)

butanoic acid

92.

carboxylic acid + ? --> ester

a)

water

b)

alkene

c)

alcohol

d)

alkane

93.
Classify the compound based on the functional group present.
a)
carboxylic acid
b)
aldehyde
c)
alcohol
d)
ether
94.
Classify the compound based on the functional group present.
a)
alkane
b)
alkene
c)
alkyne
d)
aromatic
95.
Is this hydrocarbon saturated or unsaturated? 
a)
saturated
b)
unsaturated
96.
What is the general formula of an alkene
a)
2n+2
b)
CnH2n+2
c)
CnH2n
d)
CnHn
97.
Classify the compound based on the functional group present.
a)
ether
b)
ester
c)
carboxylic acid
d)
ketone
98.
Esters are known for......
a)
the bright colours
b)
flammability
c)
exploding
d)
smell
99.

What does the Reaction of Alkenes and Steam form?

a)

Alcohols

b)

Carboxylic Acid

100.
How do you test for an alkene?
a)
React it with oxygen
b)
React it with litmus paper
c)
React it with bromine water
d)
pH test
101.
What is the colour change when an alkene reacts with bromine water?
a)
Turns clear
b)
Turns orange
c)
From colourless to orange
d)
From orange to colourless
e)
Turns colourless
102.
What are the first 3 alkenes?
a)
Methene, ethene, propene
b)
Ethene, propene, pentene
c)
Ethene, propene, butene
d)
Butene, ethene, propene
e)
Methene, ethene, propane
103.
What are the products of a combustion reaction involving an alcohol and oxygen?
a)
Polymers
b)
Hydrogen monoxide
c)
Carbon dioxide
d)
Carbon dioxide and water
e)
Methane & water
104.

A chain of repeating units (called monomers)

a)

monomer

b)

dimer

c)

replicate

d)

polymer

105.

What happens in a Condensation Polymerisation reaction?

a)

Two different functional groups bond together and expel a small molecule (often water)

b)

A small molecule is added

c)

All atoms used up when monomers join together

106.

What happens in an Addition Polymerisation

a)

Two different functional groups bond together and expel a small molecule (often water)

b)

A small molecule is added

c)

All atoms used up when monomers join together

107.

Which functional groups do amino acids have? (2 answers)

a)

NH2

b)

H2O

c)

OH

d)

COOH

108.

What do amino acids form during a condensation reaction?

a)

Alkenes

b)

Polypeptides

c)

Amines

d)

Cellulose

109.

What is formed from different amino acids joined in a long chain?

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Sugars

110.

What is the structure of DNA?

a)

One monomer chain made from nucleotides in the form of a single helix

b)

One polymer chain made from nucleotides in the form of a single helix

c)

Two monomer chains made from nucleotides in the form of a double helix

d)

Two polymer chains made from nucleotides in the form of a double helix

111.

What monomers are starch and cellulose made of?

a)

Glucose

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Lipids

112.

Butene is made into a polymer. the polymers name would be....

a)

Poly(butane)

b)

Poly(butene)

c)

Poly(pocket)

d)

Poly(putakettleon)

113.

Polymerisation of alkenes is classed as a .....

a)

condensation polymerisation

b)

addition polymerisation

114.

Polymerisation to form poly(esters) is classed as a .....

a)

condensation polymerisation

b)

addition polymerisation

115.
What is a polymer?
a)
a group of atoms
b)
a long chain of many monomers joined together
c)
a long chain of carbons
d)
long chain of different elements
116.

Which is not a natural polymer?

a)

kevlar

b)

protein

c)

cellulose

d)

DNA

117.
How are polymers made?
a)
by closing double bonds
b)
by opening up double bonds

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