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A2 Term 3 revision quiz 2023

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What happens to capacitance if you decrease the area of the metal plates?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

remains the same

d)

depends on charge present

2.

What is the voltage across the plates of the capacitor if the capacitance is 10 uF and the Charge stored is 30 uC?

a)

0.333 V

b)

3 V

c)

300 V

d)

30 V

3.

If the capacitor is CONNECTED to the battery, what remains constant if the area of the metal plates is increased?

a)

Voltage across the metal plates

b)

Capacitance

c)

Charge stored in the capacitor

d)

Energy stored in the capacitor

4.

When 3 capacitors are added in series each with a value 25μF the combined capacitance will be

a)

8.3μF

b)

75μF

c)

25μF

d)

more data is needed

5.

When 3 capacitors are added in parallel, each with value 15μF

a)

45μF

b)

5μF

c)

15μF

d)

150μF

6.

The total capacitance for this circuit

a)

3.4μF

b)

0.29μF

c)

12.8μF

d)

12.2μF

7.

The 3 capacitors shown each have a value of 20μF. The total capacitance of this combo is

a)

60μF

b)

6.7μF

c)

16.7μF

d)

20μF

8.

Definition of Farad

a)

1 Farad is the capacitance of a conductor, which has potential difference of 1 volt when it carries a charge of 1 coulomb

b)

1 Farad is the capacitance of a capacitor, which has potential difference of 1 volt when it carries a charge of 1 coulomb

c)

1 Farad is the capacitance of a conductor, which has potential difference of 1 volt when it allows a current of 1 ampere to flow

d)

none of these statements is correct

9.

If an object is in oscillatory motion, what must be true if it's in simple harmonic motion?

a)

Its motion is along the path of a circle

b)

acceleration is proportional to the displacement and always directed to the fixed point

c)

Its potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy

d)

acceleration is proportional to the displacement

10.

Which of the following is not an example of SHM?

a)

A simple pendulum

b)

A vibrating spring

c)

A marble on a concave surface

d)

Bouncing on a trampoline

11.

In any system in SHM, the restoring force acting on the mass in the system is directly proportional to

a)

the displacement

b)

the length of the pendulum

c)

the mass

d)

the frequency

12.

What does the gradient equal for an Acceleration - Displacement graph, for an object doing SHM?

a)

–ωt2

b)

periodx2π

c)

-ω2

d)

velocity

13.

An object undergoes SHM and its motion is modeled by this equation: x = 2.2sin(0.04t)

a)

the period is 2.2

b)

the amplitude is 0.04

c)

the frequency is 0.0064

d)

the angular frequency is 2.2x0.04

14.

What force acts on a satellite?

a)

centrifugal force

b)

gravitational force

c)

tangential force

d)

no net force

15.

An object is moved from A to B in the gravitational field of Earth. The distance between the centre of Earth and B is twice that of A. If the gravitational potential energy of the object at A is –2.0 MJ, what is the gravitational potential energy of the object at B?

a)

zero

b)

-0.5MJ

c)

-1.0MJ

d)

-4.0MJ

16.

A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of radius R around Earth. The time required to complete one revolution is T. What would be the kinetic energy of the satellite?

a)

GMm/R

b)

GMm/2R

c)

mR/T

d)

2m(R/T)2

17.

The equation for gravitational potential

a)

-GM/r

b)

GM/r2

c)

ΔGMm/r

d)

-ΔGMm/r

18.

The velocity for a satellite in orbit

a)

√(GM/r)

b)

GM/r2

c)

GM/r

d)

√(GM/r2)

19.

The relationship between gravitational potential energy and gravitational potential

a)

ΔEp=mΦ

b)

Ep=mΦ2

c)

ΔEp=Gm/Φ

d)

ΔEp=-GmΦ

20.

Given that the Earth has a mass = 6.0 x 1024 kg and G = 6.67 x 10-11 how far away would you have to be in order for the gravitational field strength to be 5.0 Nkg-1?

a)

6400 km

b)

8900 km

c)

80 billion metres

d)

7500 km

21.

How far from the right charge will the electrostatic force be zero?

Left charge is 4Q. Right charge is Q. d1= 20cm

a)

6.7 cm

b)

10.0 cm

c)

13.3 cm

d)

16.7 cm

22.
What will happen to the Electrostatic Force between 2 objects if the distance between them is is quadrupled?
a)
the force will decrease to 1/16 the original strength
b)
the force will increase by 1/16
c)
the force will increase by 4
d)
the force will decrease to 1/4 the original strength
23.

The relationship between work and potential

a)

W=VQ

b)

W=ΔE

c)

W=kQ1Q2/r2

d)

V=q/4πεor2

24.

If two identical charges are placed 4 m apart, what would the electric field be at the point directly between them?

a)

8 N/C

b)

more information is needed

c)

0 N/C

d)

16 N/C

25.
Which represents the acceleration of the ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
26.
What is the force that causes centripetal acceleration when a car goes around a curve?
a)
Friction
b)
Gravity 
c)
Normal
d)
Tension
27.
Assuming Andromeda rotates at a uniform rate, which stars are moving the fastest?
a)
Stars closest to center
b)
Stars furthest from the center
c)
Stars with the hottest temperature
d)
Stars with the coldest temperature
28.
When a ball attached to string is swung in a vertical circle
a)
the tension is always equal to the centripetal force
b)
the tension is greatest at the top
c)
the tension is greatest at the bottom
d)
the tension is greatest halfway up
29.
If the radius of the string is .3 meters long and the stopper makes 5 revolutions per second, what is the speed of the stopper? 
a)
9.4 m/s
b)
6.8 m/s
c)
11.7 m/s
d)
3.5 m/s
30.

A satellite is said to be in geosynchronous orbit if it rotates around the earth once every day. For the earth, all satellites in geosynchronous orbit must rotate at a distance of 4.23×107 meters from the earth's center. What is the magnitude of the acceleration felt by a geosynchronous satellite?

a)

9.8 ms-2

b)

8.9 ms-2

c)

0.224 ms-2

d)

0.563 ms-2

31.

ω is defined as

a)

the angular impulse

b)

the angular momentum

c)

the angular change in position

d)

the change in angular displacement per unit time

32.

The definition of the radian

a)

the angle subtended at the centre of a circle by an arc length equal in length to the radius

b)

the angle suspended at the centre of a circle by an arc length equal in length to the pendulum

c)

the angle subtended at the centre of a square by an arc length equal in length to the radius

d)

the angle subtended by an arc length equal in length to the diameter of a circle

33.

25 °C in kelvins

a)

298.45 K

b)

248.15 K

c)

298.15 K

34.

What is 50.00 °C in Kelvin?

a)

223.16

b)

323.15

c)

100.15

d)

50.15

35.

A resistance thermometer measures 2 ohms at ice point and 540 ohms at steam point. What temperature is determined if it registers 92 ohms?

a)

190C

b)

170C

c)

230C

d)

220C

36.

An advantage of the platinum resistance thermometer is that

a)

it may used to measure steady temperatures with very high accuracy

b)

it has a linear scale, because the resistance of a piece of platinum varies directly as thermodynamic temperature

c)

it may be used to measure rapidly changing temperatures

37.

The kelvin, the SI unit of thermodynamic temperature, is defined as

a)

the fraction 1/273.16 of the thermodynamic temperature of triple-point of water

b)

one-hundredth of the temperature difference between the triple-point of water and the steam-point

c)

the fraction 1/373.15 of the thermodynamic temperature of the steam-point

d)

one-hundredth of the temperature difference between the ice-point and the steam-point

38.

When one junction X of a thermocouple is placed in melting ice and the other junction Y in steam at 100°C, the e.m.f. is 5.0 mV. Junction Y is removed from the steam and is placed in a liquid bath at a constant temperature, junction X remaining in the ice. The e.m.f. is now –3.8 mV. What is the temperature of the bath on the centigrade scale of this thermocouple?

a)

−76oC-76^oC  

b)

−89oC-89^oC

c)

−63oC-63^oC

d)

−69oC-69^oC

39.

An electron is moving north in a region where the magnetic field is south. The size of the magnetic force exerted on the electron is:

a)

zero

b)

Bev

c)

Bqv

d)

ma

40.
A magnetic field exerts a force on a charged particle:
a)
always 
b)
never 
c)
if the particle is moving across the field lines
d)
if the particle is moving along the field lines 
41.

The SI unit of magnetic field is

a)

Weber

b)

Gauss

c)

Tesla

d)

Farad

42.

A wire carries a current out of the page. When viewed from above, what direction is the magnetic field?

a)

out of the page

b)

left

c)

clockwise

d)

anti-clockwise

43.
What does the following represent?
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
a)
A crowd with binoculars
b)
A bunch of coaxial cables 
c)
Uniform magnetic field directed into the screen away from you
d)
Uniform magnetic field directed out of your screen at you
44.
What does the following represent?
⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗
⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗
⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗
a)
A crowd with binoculars
b)
A bunch of coaxial cables 
c)
Uniform magnetic field directed into the screen away from you
d)
Uniform magnetic field directed out of your screen at you
45.

μoI/2πr is the formula for magnetic flux density near a current carrying conductor. μo stands for

a)

permeability of free space

b)

permittivity of free space

c)

permission of free space

d)

production of magnetism in free space

46.

The correct formula for magnetic field strength near a current carrying conductor that is L metres long

a)

F/IL

b)

FIL

c)

IL

d)

BIL

47.

For an ideal gas several assumptions are made about the particles including

a)

they collide elastically with each other and the container wall

b)

they experience significant intermolecular forces

c)

the volume they occupy as individual particles is insignificant compared to the volume of the container

d)

there are a very large number of particles inside the container

48.

In the equation of state for an ideal gas pV = nRT

a)

n = number of particles in the gas

b)

p = pressure of the gas

c)

R = the molar gas constant 8.31 JK-1mol-1

d)

T = temperature in degrees celcius

49.

This is the

a)

root mean square speed

b)

mean square speed

c)

mean square root speed

d)

squared root mean speed

50.

Rewriting the equation of state gives : pV = NkT

where:

a)

N = the number of moles x 6.022 x 1023

b)

V = volume occupied by the gas

c)

T = temperature in degrees celsius

d)

k = 1.38 x 10-2 JK-1

51.

Given the equation Ek = 3/2 kT, calculate the temperature of Helium atoms that are able to leave the atmosphere with a speed of 1.1 x 104ms-1. The mass of an individual Helium atom is 6.6 x 10-27kg. (k = 1.38x10-23)

a)

1.9 x 104 K

b)

1.9 x 103 o C

c)

1.5 x 102 K

d)

200 K

52.

The mean square speed of atoms of Neon gas at 273 K with density 0.900 kgm-3 is 3.4 x 105 ms-1. Calculate the r.m.s. of the same gas at 546 K.

a)

820 ms-1

b)

680 000 ms-1

c)

240 ms-1

d)

340 000 ms-1

53.

For an ideal gas at constant temperature and pressure p at volume V, what affect would halving the pressure have on the volume?

a)

volume would double

b)

volume would halve

c)

volume would triple

d)

none

54.

Select all true statements

a)

nR = Nk

b)

NA = 6.022 x 1023

c)

k = R/NA

d)

3/2RT = NAEk

55.

What percentage of rubidium-87 atoms will be left after four half lives?

a)

25.0%

b)

12.5%

c)

6.25%

d)

3.125%

56.

How old is a bone that has 12.5% of the original amount of radioactive carbon-14 remaining? (half-life of C-14 is 5730 years)

a)

5,700 years

b)

11,400 years

c)

17,200 years

d)

22,800 years

57.

A fossil formed 11,400 years ago. Which percentage of the original amount of carbon-14 remains in the fossil? (half-life of C-14 : 5730 years)

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

12.5%

58.

This type of particle is a high speed electron released from a nucleus that turns a neutron into a proton

a)

α particle\alpha\ particle  

b)

β−particle\beta^-particle  

c)

β+particle\beta^+particle  

d)

Gamma ray

59.
Sound travels at 1400m/s in water. If a ship sends a sonar signal to map the bottom of the ocean and it returns after 2 seconds, how deep is the ocean?
a)
700m
b)
1400m
c)
2800m
d)
6000m
60.

What is the Piezo-Electric effect?

a)

Causing a crystal to shrink and expand at the same frequency using direct current

b)

Causing a crystal to shrink and expand at the same frequency using alternating current

c)

Causing a crystal to shrink and expand at the same frequency using alternating voltages

d)

Passing electricity through a body and giving it a charge

61.

Which of the following ideas make up the Big Bang Theory?

a)

The Universe is currently expanding.

b)

The Universe was once hot and dense.

c)

The Universe has a finite size.

d)

The Universe is unbounded.

62.

In which list are celestial features correctly shown in order of increasing size?

a)

galaxy, solar system, universe, planet

b)

solar system, galaxy, planet, universe

c)

planet, solar system, galaxy, universe

d)

universe, galaxy, solar system, planet

63.

How old do we estimate the universe to be?

a)

13.8 billion years old

b)

25 million years old

c)

13.8 million years old

d)

8 billion years old

64.

Is Galaxy A moving

a)

Away

b)

Towards

c)

Stationary

65.
What best describes the doppler effect?
a)
An apparent change in frequency of a wave due to the relative motion between a wave source and an observer
b)
When sound changes pitch
c)
When light changes color
d)
An apparent change in the amplitude of a wave due to the relative motion between a wave source and an observer.
66.

What is meant by luminosity of a star?

a)

The total energy of radiation emitted by a star.

b)

The total power of radiation emitted by a star.

c)

The intensity per unit area emitted by a star.

d)

The total power per unit area emitted by a star.

67.

What is the unit of luminosity?

a)

W

b)

J

c)

W m-2

d)

J m-2

68.

Define radiant flux intensity.

a)

The radiant power passing normally through a surface per unit area.

b)

The total power of radiation emitted by a star.

c)

Astronomical object of known luminosity.

d)

The distance travelled by electromagnetic waves throug vacuum in one year.

69.

What is the term used to describe an astronomical object that has known luminosity?

a)

cepheid variable

b)

standard candle

c)

blackbody

d)

supernova

70.

Our supercluster is called...

a)

The Virgo Supercluster

b)

The Andromeda Supercluster

c)

The Alliance Supercluster

d)

The Capricorn Supercluster

71.

Cosmic Background Radiation is...

a)

Alpha Particles from the nearest black hole

b)

The light from our sun

c)

The leftover energy from the formation of our sun

d)

The leftover energy from the Big Bang

72.

Galaxy D has a velocity of 150 Km/S, Galaxy E has a velocity of 3000 Km/S. Which galaxy is further away?

a)

Galaxy D

b)

Galaxy E

c)

Neither, they will run into each other.

d)

not enough information, Velocity is the speed of rotation.

73.

One absorption line observed from a distant star has a wavelength of 722 nm. This line has a wavelength of 705 nm in the lab. What is the speed of the star?

a)

7.2×1067.2\times10^6 m s-1

b)

3.6×1063.6\times10^6 m s-1

c)

4.2×1064.2\times10^6 m s-1

d)

7.6×1067.6\times10^6 m s-1

74.
The color of a star depends on its
a)
size
b)
temperature
c)
shape
d)
magnitude
75.
Put the stars in order from coolest to hottest.
a)
Blue, White, Yellow, Orange, Red
b)
Red, Orange, Yellow, White, Blue
c)
Red, Orange, Yellow, Blue, White
d)
Red, Yellow, Orange, White, Blue
76.

A distant star has an estimated luminosity (by comparison to a standard candle) of 3.8x1031W. On Earth the flux intensity is measured to be 1.4x10-17Wm-2. How far from Earth is this star?

a)

2.2x1047m

b)

4.6x1023m

c)

7.4x1039m

d)

1.5x1019m

77.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

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