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AP Bio Unit 5 Review: Heredity

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 2hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During what phase does the process shown occur?

a)

Prophase of mitosis

b)

Prophase I of meiosis

c)

Prophase II of meiosis

d)

This is a form of non-disjunction and not a normal process in cell division

2.

The diploid number for this cells shown is 4. Identify the phase of cell division.

a)

Anaphase of mitosis

b)

Anaphase I of meiosis

c)

Anaphase II of meioisis

3.

What phase is represented in the picture?

a)

metaphase I of meiosis

b)

metaphase II of meiosis

c)

metaphase of mitosis

4.

What phase is represented?

a)

Metaphase I of meiosis

b)

Metaphase II of meiosis

c)

Metaphase of mitosis

5.

What happens during meiosis I (check ALL that apply!)

a)

sister chromatids are separated

b)

homologous chromosomes are separated

c)

diploid daughter cells are produced

d)

haploid daughter cells are produced

e)

genes are rearranged

6.

In which type of cell division does this occur:

DNA is replicated (sister chromatids form) before the process starts

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

both mitosis and meiosis

d)

neither mitosis or meiosis

7.

What does this process accomplish?

a)

This process reduces the number of chromatids per chromosome

b)

This creates new combinations of genes on a single chromosome; resulting in genetic variation

c)

This process reduces the chromosome number (diploid to haploid)

d)

This is a form of non-disjunction and not a normal process in cell division

8.

In what form are the daughter cells and chromosomes just after meiosis II has finished?

a)

haploid, tetrads (homologs w/ sister chromatids) are joined

b)

diploid, sister chromatids have separated

c)

haploid, sister chromatids have separated

d)

diploid, tetrads (homologs w/ sister chromatids) are joined

9.

What is the key difference between metaphase in Meiosis I versus metaphase in mitosis?

a)

chromosomes line up single-file in the middle in meiosis I

b)

chromosomes line up double-file in the middle in meiosis I

10.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
11.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
a)
one haploid gamete
b)
three diploid gametes
c)
four diploid gametes
d)
four haploid gametes
12.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
13.
Meiosis I separates ________, while Meiosis II separates ________.
a)
sister chromatids; tetrads
b)
homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids
c)
homologous chromosomes; tetrads
d)
tetrads; homologous chromosomes
14.
When you start with 1 cell, at the end of mitosis, how many identical cells will you have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
15.
The process on the left is:
The process on the right is:
a)
Left: meiosis
Right: meiosis
b)
Left: meiosis
Right: cloning
c)
Left: mitosis
Right: meiosis
d)
Left: mitosis
Right: mitosis
16.
forms haploid cells
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
both
17.

A cell that has a full set of chromosomes is called a______ cell.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

c)

triploid

d)

hetrolpoid

18.

A cell that has a half set of chromosomes is called a______ cell.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

c)

triploid

d)

hetrolpoid

19.
What phase is  shown in the picture?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
anaphase 2
c)
metaphase 1
d)
telophase 1
20.
Identify the phase.
a)
Metaphase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Anaphase I
d)
Anaphase II
21.
Identify the process.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis I
c)
Meiosis II
d)
Interphase
22.

Is the following cell diploid or haploid?

a)

Diploid

b)

Haploid

23.
Identify the phase.
a)
Telophase I
b)
Telophase II
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Metaphase II
24.
Meiosis is the _____.
a)
 nuclear division of gametes
b)
nuclear division of body cells
c)
division of body cells
d)
division of sex cells
25.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
26.
What is the single cell formed when the sperm and the egg join together?
a)
sex cell
b)
zygote
c)
fetus
d)
embryo
27.
What are the basic units of heredity that get passed on to children?
a)
chromosomes
b)
characteristics
c)
traits
d)
genes
28.
The sperm cell carries the 
a)
X sex chromosome
b)
Y sex chromosome
c)
X and Y sex chromosomes
d)
X or Y sex chromosome
29.
When homologous chromosomes match up, they form a structure call a ___________.
a)
tetrad
b)
triad
c)
diploid
d)
gamete
30.
What is one of the advantages, why is it better to reproduce sexually versus asexually?
a)
survival of the fittest
b)
overproduction
c)
genetic variation
d)
cloning
31.
Identify the phase.
a)
Metaphase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Prophase I
d)
Anaphase II
32.
Which diagram represents metaphase of Meiosis I?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
33.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
34.
How many cells are created during Telophase II?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
35.
During meiosis I, what happens? 
a)
Sister chromatids are split
b)
Homologous chromosomes are split
c)
Four cells are created
d)
None of the other choices are correct
36.
Meiosis results in ______.
a)
4 genetically distinct haploid gametes
b)
2 genetically distinct cells
c)
2 genetically identical cells
d)
4 genetically identical cells
37.

What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?

a)

female with Trisomy 18

b)

male with Trisomy 18

38.

If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain

a)

48

b)

24

c)

12

39.

The chromosomes that pair up at the beginning of meiosis, are called __________

a)

sister chromatids

b)

diploid pairs

c)

homologous chromosomes

40.

What is one of the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

a)

there is less of an energy cost for the organism

b)

a more rapid life cycle

c)

genetic variation allows for adaptability in the population over time

d)

genetically identical offspring means there is less chance of mutation

41.

What does "random orientation (independent assortment) of homologs" refer to

a)

how one set of homologous chromosomes is lined up compared to another set during metaphase I

b)

the random exchange of cenetic info between pieces of homologous chromsomes

c)

the fact that there are different alleles on the homologous pairs

d)

the randomness of which particular sperm will fertilize an egg

42.

Which of the following are sources of genetic diversity? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

mutation

b)

crossing over

c)

independent assortment of homologous pairs

d)

mitosis

e)

formation of sister chromatids

43.

What is one disadvantage of sexual reproduction?

a)

Only one parent is needed

b)

Offspring are exact copies of parents

c)

Energy, time and a little bit of luck needed to find and fuse with another gamete

d)

Genetic diversity in the next generation

44.
What is it called when a sperm and egg meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
45.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
46.
Eukaryotic cells store their genetic information(DNA) in __________.
a)
Chromosomes
b)
Centromeres
c)
karyotypes
d)
Proteins
47.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
48.
Asexual reproduction will result in
a)
Identical offspring to the parent
b)
Twins
c)
Meiosis
d)
Non-identical offspring to the parent
49.
A homozygous dominant dog with brown fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog with brown fur. What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
50.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
51.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
52.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
53.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
54.
the passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring.
a)
heredity
b)
trait
c)
gene
d)
allele
55.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
56.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
57.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
58.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
59.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
60.
Which answer best describes codominant alleles?
a)
Both are equally dominant
b)
Both are equally recessive
c)
Neither are dominant or recessive
61.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
62.

Meiosis happens in which of the following cells?

a)

Skin epithelial cell

b)

Macrophage

c)

Germ cell producing an egg or sperm

d)

Stem cells

63.

The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division malfunctions, and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?

a)

either anaphase I or II

b)

telophase I

c)

mitosis in her ovary

d)

metaphase II

64.

After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is

a)

diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.

b)

haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.

c)

haploid, & the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.

d)

None of these

65.

Sister chromatids separate in which phase?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Prophase II

d)

Anaphase I

66.

Homologous chromosomes separate in which phase?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Prophase II

d)

Anaphase I

67.

The random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I is due to ___.

a)

Crossing over

b)

Random fertilization

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Mitosis

68.
DNA analysis performed by a forensic scientist on blood found at a crime scene is compared to the DNA analysis of four suspects as shown below.

Which suspect was most likely present at the crime scene? 
a)
Suspect A
b)
Suspect B
c)
Suspect C
d)
Suspect D
69.
Morgan crossed a pure-breeding wild type red-eyed fly with a mutant white eyed fly, producing an F1 generation of all red eyed flies.  When he crossed his red-eyed flies with each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. However, all the white-eyed flies were male. What explains this result?   
a)
The gene involved was on the X chromosome.
b)
The gene involved was on the Y chromosome.
c)
The result is due to multifactorial inheritance.
d)
Other male-specific factors (such as hormones) influence eye color in flies. 
70.
The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the higher the probability that a crossover will occur between them.
a)
True
b)
False
71.
The different forms of a gene
a)
heredity
b)
genetics
c)
gene
d)
alleles
72.
Imagine you are performing a cross involving seed color in garden pea plants. What F1 offspring would you expect if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds and yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green.
a)
100 percent yellow-green seeds
b)
100 percent yellow seeds
c)
50 percent yellow, 50 percent green seeds
d)
25 percent green, 75 percent yellow seeds
73.
In humans, if a non-disjunction event leads to an individual that is XXY, they would
a)
be female because they have 2 X chromosomes
b)
be male because they have a Y chromosome
c)
not survive
d)
have both male and female characteristics
74.
Chromosomes that do NOT play a role in determining the sex of an individual are called
a)
sex chromosoems
b)
X and Y
c)
autosomes
d)
A and B are correct
75.

If a particular pedigree follows a sex-linked recessive trait, you would expect to see

a)

more affected females

b)

all carrier males

c)

more affected males

d)

an equal number of affected males and females

76.
In humans, hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman have a son who is affected with hemophilia, which of the following is definitely true?
a)
The mother carries an allele for hemophilia
b)
The father carries an allele for hemophilia
c)
The father is afflicted with hemophilia
d)
both parents carry an allele for hemophilia
77.
A person with Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome. This means one of their gametes was missing a chromosome.
Which of the following is why gametes sometimes lack a complete chromosome?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Nondisjunction
c)
Inversion mutation
d)
Substitution mutation
78.
Give the genotype for person III-3
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
Cannot determine
79.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
80.
The range of human skin colors is caused by a variety of genes, each of which has at least 2 alleles.  This is an example of:
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
polygenic inheritance
81.
In Drosophila, the genes for eye colour (pr), wing shape (vg), and body colour (eb) are all found on the same chromosome. The following crossover frequencies for these genes were determined by experimentation. Determine the sequence of genes on the chromosome.
a)
eb - vg - pr
b)
vg - eb - pr
c)
vg - pr - eb
d)
pr- vg - eb
82.
What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
a)
Sex-Linked Dominant
b)
Sex-Linked Recessive
c)
Autosomal Dominant
d)
Autosomal Recessive 
83.
X-linked conditions are more common in men than in women because
a)
The genes associated with the  X linked conditions are linked to the X chromosome, which determines maleness.
b)
Men need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed
c)
Women simply do not develop the disease regardless of their genetic composition
d)
The sex chromosomes are more active in men than in women
84.

What is the inheritance pattern of this trait?

a)

sex-linked recessive

b)

autosomal dominant

c)

autosomal recessive

d)

Y-linked dominant

85.
Which genes would show the highest frequency of crossing over?
a)
A-B
b)
A-D
c)
D-C
d)
B-C
86.
Suppose that in sheep, a dominant allele (B) produce black hair and a recessive allele (b) produce white hair. If you saw a black sheep, you would be able to identify
a)
its phenotype for hair color
b)
its genotype for hair color
c)
the genotype of only one of its parents
d)
the phenotype of both of its parents
87.
In mice, the homozygous mice are black and white. The heterozygous mice are gray. What pattern of inheritance is expressed in fur color in mice?
a)
complete dominance and recessiveness
b)
co-dominance
c)
incomplete dominance
d)
pleiotropy
88.
A heterozygous white pig(Ww) mate with blue pig (ww).  
Probability of getting heterozygous offspring?
a)
50%
b)
25%
c)
100%
89.
A child has type O blood, if mother has type A blood, what would the fathers blood type be
a)
A,B, or O
b)
AB or A
c)
AB or B
d)
O only
90.
In plants, tall (T) is dominant to short (t). Perform the following cross: Tt x Tt. What is the probability of producing a short plant?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
91.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
92.
What goes in box 1
a)
AABb
b)
AABB
c)
aabb
d)
AaBb
93.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
94.
If the parents of a cross are AaBcCc x aaBBcc. What is the probability of an offspring that is homozygous recessive for all 3 traits?
a)
1/64
b)
1/32
c)
1/8
d)
O
95.
If a female was a carrier for sex-linked color blindness, what percentage of her male children would also be color blind?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
96.
A man who has a sex-linked allele will pass it on to
a)
all his daughters
b)
all his sons
c)
1/2 of his daughters
d)
1/2 of his sons
97.
Which of the following statements best describes what a Barr body is and its significance?
a)
it is an inactivated Y chromosome and results in a man being sterile
b)
It is an inactivated Y chromosome, and the person who has it appears female
c)
It is an inactivated X chromosome and results in females with half their cells have one X inactivated and in the other half of their cells have the other X inactivated
d)
it is an inactivated X chromosome and results in females who are sterile
98.
In peas, the trait for tall plants is dominant (T) and the trait for short plants is recessive (t).  The trait for yellow seeds is dominant (Y) and the trait for green seeds is recessive (y).
A cross between two plants results in 292 tall, yellow plants and 103 short, green plants.  What are the most likely genotypes of the parents?
a)
TtYY x Ttyy
b)
TTYy x TTYy
c)
TTyy x TTYy
d)
TtYy x TtYy
99.
What is the genotype of the father?
a)
AA
b)
aa
c)
Aa
d)
AA or aa
100.

When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

101.

This pedigree chart is for a family, some of whose members exhibit the recessive trait, woolly hair. Affected individuals are indicated by an open square or circle. What is the likelihood that the progeny of D-3 and D-4 will have wooly hair?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

102.
Which of the following crossover events would be most difficult to detect in offspring?
a)
A crossover occurring in the region between gene A and G
b)
A crossover occurring in the region between gene G and T
c)
A crossover occurring in the region between gene T and B
d)
A crossover occurring in the region between gene A and T
103.
Map relative position of the four genes on a chromosome from the data on crossover frequencies.
a)
ABCD
b)
ADCB
c)
CABD
d)
CBAD
104.
Australian Shepherds are a breed of dogs whose coat color is directly impacted by two different genes. The gene that determines basic coat color exhibits a dominant allele (B) for black coat color and a recessive allele (b) for red coat color. Additionally, these dogs can have a solid coat color (mm) or a mixed pattern coat color called merle (Mm). The homozygous dominant coat color is called a lethal white (MM) which produces pups that are deaf and blind. What is the probability that two red Australian shepherds will produce a black pup?
a)
0
b)
1/4
c)
1/2
d)
3/4
105.
The diagram depicts an experiment in which ice packs were strapped to a hair-free patch on a species of rabbits. The new hair that grew in the patch exposed to cold was black.Which of the following statements is supported by the results of this experiment?
a)
The rabbits’ genomes have a flexible response to environmental stimuli.
b)
The rabbits change their phenotypes to attract mates.
c)
Rabbits whose coat color does not change represent a more evolved species
d)
Increased ultraviolet light can alter the genome of these rabbits.
106.
In horses, the grey coat color (G) is dominant to non-grey coat color (g). Additionally, some horses have a genetic disorder called hyperkalemic periodic paralysis or HYPP. HYPP is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder that affects the sodium channels in muscle cells. HYPP (H) is dominant to the normal condition (h). If a non-grey, normal stallion sires a foal that is not grey and does not have HYPP, which of the following genotypes are possible genotypes for the mother?
a)
GGhh and ggHH
b)
ggHH and GgHh
c)
GGHH and GGHh
d)
GgHh and gghh
107.
Many plant species are capable of producing offspring through self-pollination. In self-pollination, gametes formed by meiosis and are used to fertilize egg cells from the same plant. Which of the following statements describes why offspring produced through self-pollination can exhibit genetic diversity?
a)
The genes found in each gamete will be genetically identical to one another.
b)
The self-pollination gametes are produced through meiosis and have undergone DNA replication.
c)
Homologous chromosomes were sorted into different gamete cells causing separation of allele pairs.
d)
Gametes involved in self-pollination only travel a short distance prior to becoming involved in fertilization.
108.
A child born with blood type O could have parents with all of the following blood types except...?
a)
iAiO and iBiO
b)
iBiO and iOiO
c)
iAiO and iAiO
d)
iAiB and iOiO
109.
Blood type AB is an example of:
a)
epistasis
b)
codominance
c)
incomplete dominance
d)
hybrid vigor
110.
crossing an individual with a dominant phenotype with a homozygous recessive organism
a)
mono-hybrid cross
b)
di-hybrid cross
c)
phenotype cross
d)
test cross
111.
when an individual produces gametes, the two copies of the gene separate, so that each gamete receives only one copy
a)
law of independent assortment
b)
law of segregation
c)
law of conservation of mass
d)
law of conservation of energy

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