wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PH-PHR121L Cases for Midterms

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following populations are at risk of having Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

Women between ages 20-40

b)

People with a family history of autoimmune disease

c)

People who are overweight

d)

Men between ages 20-40

2.

An enzyme or drug that blocks the action of acetylcholinesterase thus increasing stimulating effect on muscles

a)

Anticholinesterase

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Nicotine

d)

Dopamine

3.

Which channels are opened due to the arrival of an action potential from the motor neuron to the presynaptic terminals?

a)

Sodium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Calcium

d)

Potassium

4.

Which ions are released upon binding of Ach to its receptors in the postsynaptic muscle fiber?

a)

Sodium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Calcium

d)

Potassium

5.

A pharmacologic agent used as a diagnostic tool for Myasthenia Gravis

a)

Atropine

b)

Edrophonium Chloride

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Pyridostigmine

6.

A symptom of MG that refers to blurred or double vision

a)

Ptosis

b)

Dysarthria

c)

Polyphagia

d)

Diplopia

7.

It is the space between the presynaptic terminal and the postsynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction

a)

Axon Terminal

b)

Synaptic Cleft

c)

Vesicles

d)

AChE Receptors

8.

Which of the following is not a common symptom of Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

Ptosis

b)

Dysarthria

c)

Polyphagia

d)

Diplopia

9.

Myasthenic Crisis is a life-threatening manifestation of MG affecting the diaphragm and breathing muscles leading to

a)

Immunodeficiency

b)

Hypoxia

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Respiratory Failure

10.

A procedure done for patients with severe symptoms of MG that involves removal of harmful antibodies in the plasma

a)

Plasmapheresis

b)

Thymectomy

c)

EMG

11.

Condition in which the body’s B-Cells produce autoantibodies that bind to Nicotinic AChE receptors thus inhibiting muscle contraction

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Myasthenia Gravis

c)

Diabetes Mellitus

d)

Parkinsons Disease

12.

A small endocrine gland located behind the sternum that is only active until puberty and is important during immune system development

a)

Parathyroid

b)

Thyroid

c)

Thymus

d)

Pancreas

13.

A surgical procedure that deals with the removal of benign or slow-growing tumors in the thymus gland

a)

Plasmapheresis

b)

Thymectomy

c)

EMG

14.

Group of drugs that suppresses autoimmunity and limits antibody production (e..g, prednisone)

a)

Immunosuppressants

b)

Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs

c)

Anticholinesterase Inhibitors

d)

Corticosteroids

15.

[BONUS - 2 MINUTES] Which Philippine politician has recently publicly announced that he is suffering from Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

Rodrigo Roa Duterte

b)

Vico Sotto

c)

Juan Ponce Enrile

d)

Franklin Drilon

16.

A chronic degenerative disease involving the cartilage that is also known as wear-and-tear arthritis

a)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Psoriatic Arthritis

d)

Gout

17.

Cells of mature cartilage that occur singly or in groups within spaces in the extracellular matrix of the bone

a)

Monocyte

b)

Osteocyte

c)

Chondrocyte

d)

Fibrocyte

18.

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

a)

Men are more likely to develop osteoarthritis than women

b)

The risk of OA increases with age

c)

Genetics play a key role in developing OA

19.

Osteoarthritis (OA) is the most common degenerative joint disorder characterized by

a)

Cartilage Degradation

b)

Tissue Hyperproliferation

c)

Autoimmunity

d)

Synovial Inflammation

20.

A group of enzymes responsible for the degradation of cartilage

a)

Interleukins (IL)

b)

TNF-Alpha

c)

TGF-Beta

d)

Metalloproteinases (MMPs)

21.

In Osteoarthritis, synthesis of MMPs is greatly _________ and the available inhibitors are overwhelmed, resulting in ___________.

a)

Decreased, net degradation

b)

Increased, net degradation

c)

Decreased, net synthesis

d)

Increased, net synthesis

22.

Bumps or swelling found on the lower joints called the proximal interphalangeal joints of the hands

a)

Bouchard’s Nodes

b)

Heberden’s Nodes

c)

Osteophytes

23.

The Synovial/Joint Fluid Test is used to rule out similar joint conditions such as

a)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

b)

Psoriatic Arthritis

c)

Gout

d)

Ankylosing Spondylitis

24.

Type of arthritis that is characterized by the build-up of uric acid crystals around the affected area

a)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

b)

Psoriatic Arthritis

c)

Gout

d)

Ankylosing Spondylitis

25.

Type of joint affected by osteoarthritis

a)

Synovial Joints

b)

Cartilaginous Joints

26.

Components of the extracellular matrix that contributes to the overall elasticity and high tensile strength of joints

a)

Type II Collagen

b)

Chondrocytes

c)

Proteoglycans

27.

The following are examples of proteoglycans except

a)

Hyaluronic Acid

b)

Chondroitin Sulfate

c)

Keratin Sulfate

d)

Type II Collagen

28.

Bony projections that develop along bone edges and often form where bones meet each other at the joints; a hallmark sign of OA

a)

Bouchard's Nodes

b)

Heberden's Nodes

c)

Osteocytes

29.

Pharmacological treatments for OA focus on:

a)

Reducing pain and inflammation

b)

Boosting immune system for antibody production

c)

Weight reduction and improvement of general mobility

d)

Nutritional supplementation

30.

Non-pharmacologic treatments for OA focus on:

a)

Reducing pain and inflammation

b)

Boosting immune system for antibody production

c)

Weight reduction and improvement of general mobility

d)

Nutritional supplementation

31.

Term used to describe slowness of movement; a hallmark feature of PD

a)

Akinesia

b)

Bradykinesia

c)

Hypomimia

d)

Micrographia

32.

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

a)

Men are more likely to develop the disease than women

b)

Young people suffer from PD more than old people.

c)

Risk of developing PD is higher if with family history of the disease

33.

PD is characterized by the loss of nerve cells in the _____________ of the brain.

a)

Diencephalon

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Substantia Nigra Pars Reticulata

d)

Substantia Nigra Pars Compacta

34.

Which region of the brain is the substantia nigra located?

a)

Pons

b)

Basal Ganglia

c)

Medulla Oblongata

d)

Brain Stem

35.

It is the neurotransmitter implicated in Parkinson’s Disease

a)

Endorphin

b)

Serotonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Enkephalins

36.

Abnormal eosinophilic cells that develop inside nerve cells of patients with PD

a)

Lewy Bodies

b)

MPPP

c)

Gaucher Cells

d)

Leukocytes

37.

A diagnosis of PD can be made with at least two of the three cardinal signs, including:

a)

Resting Tremor

b)

Bradykinesia

c)

Distonia

d)

Rigidity

38.

Aside from motor symptoms, patients with PD may also experience non-motor symptoms such as:

a)

Depression and Anxiety

b)

Micrographia

c)

Postural Instability

d)

Loss of sense of smell

39.

A parkinsonian tremor of the hand consisting of flexion and extension of the fingers in connection with adduction and abduction of the thumb.

a)

Resting Tremor

b)

Pill-Rolling Tremor

c)

Physiologic Tremor

40.

The widely used clinical rating scale for Parkinson’s Disease (Acronym not allowed)

(a)  

41.

Main strategy in pharmacologic treatment for PD

a)

Stop or arrest neurodegenration

b)

Increase dopamine signaling

c)

Repair substanti nigra cells

42.

Precursor of Dopamine that is administered to patients with PD since Dopamine is not able to cross the blood-brain barrier

a)

Levodopa

b)

Carbidopa

c)

Dopa Decarboxylase

43.

Administered together with Levodopa to avoid unwanted side-effects such as arrhythmia due to peripheral Dopa Decarboxylase Conversion

a)

Amantadine

b)

Carbidopa

c)

Bromocriptine

44.

Which of the following enzymes degrade Dopamine?

a)

Monoamine Oxidase B

b)

Catechol-O-Methyltransferase

c)

Dopa Decarboxylase

45.

[BONUS - 2 MINUTES] Which actress portrayed a character with early onset Parkinson’s Disease in the film Love and Other Drugs?

a)

Emma Watson

b)

Margot Robbie

c)

Anne Hathaway

d)

Emma Stone

46.

Type of Diabetes Mellitus characterized by insulin resistance

a)

Type 1 DM

b)

Type 2 DM

c)

Gestational Diabetes

47.

Type of Diabetes Mellitus characterized by autoantibodies that attack insulin producing cells resulting in the inability of the body to make enough insulin

a)

Type 1 DM

b)

Type 2 DM

c)

Gestational Diabetes

48.

Gestational Diabetes usually develops in pregnant women during the

a)

First Trimester

b)

Second Trimester

c)

Third Trimester

49.

A gland which has both exocrine and endocrine functions

a)

Parathyroid

b)

Thymus

c)

Pancreas

d)

Thyroid

50.

Cells in the pancreatic islets (Islets of Langerhans) responsible for the production of insulin

a)

Alpha or A Cells

b)

Beta or B Cells

c)

Delta or D Cells

d)

F Cells

51.

Term referring to excessive thirst and is considered as one of the initial symptoms of diabetes

a)

Polyphagia

b)

Polyuria

c)

Polydipsia

52.

Another initial symptom of diabetes which refers to a condition of extreme or excessive hunger

a)

Polyphagia

b)

Polyuria

c)

Polydipsia

53.

Characterized by elevated blood levels of glucose

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hypoglycemia

54.

Which of the following are risk factors for developing Type II Diabetes?

a)

Age less than 5 years old

b)

Sex

c)

Obesity

d)

Sedentary Lifestyle

55.

Hormone produced by the pancreas targets the liver and raises blood glucose levels by increasing the breakdown of glycogen into glucose (glycogenolysis)

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Somatostatin

d)

Pancreatic Polypeptide

56.

A blood test that measures the percentage of blood sugar attached to hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, and provides average levels of blood glucose over the past 3 months.

a)

Fasting Plasma Glucose Test

b)

Random Plasma Glucose Test

c)

Gylcated Hemoglobin (HbA1C) Test

d)

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

57.

Type of Diabetes Mellitus that is preventable

a)

Type 1 DM

b)

Type 2 DM

c)

Gestational Diabetes

58.

Treatment for Type 1 Diabetes since these patients, while not able to make insulin, are still reactive to insulin

a)

Surgery

b)

Lifetime Insulin

c)

SGLT-2 Inhibitors

d)

Metformin

59.

Complications of uncontrolled diabetes characterized by damages to the afferent and efferent arterioles, as well as the glomerulus

a)

Stocking Glove Distributuon

b)

Diabetic Retinopathy

c)

Nephrotic Syndrome

d)

Galucoma

60.

According to the Department of Health, Diabetes is the _________ cause of Mortality (Death) in the Philippines in 2013.

a)

Top 1

b)

Top 5

c)

Top 6

d)

Top 10