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Northbrook Earth Science Final Review

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What layer of atmosphere is the coldest and meteoroids burn up due to friction?
a)
Thermosphere
b)
Mesosphere
c)
Troposphere
d)
Stratosphere
2.
Warm air rises and the cool air sinks demonstrates this type of heat transfer. 
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
Insolation 
3.

What type of heat transfer that travels in waves?

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

4.

What type of heat transfer happens in liquids & gases?

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

5.

What type of heat transfer that requires touch/contact?

a)

Comvection

b)

Radiation

c)

Conduction

6.

What causes wind?

a)

The rotation of the Earth.

b)

Unequal heating of the Earth's surface.

c)

The surface of the earth needs to be cooled.

d)

The movement of clouds.

7.

Which layer of the atmosphere is where you find the weather?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

8.

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone that protects from sun’s radiation?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

9.

Which layer of the atmosphere is the coldest layer?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

10.

Which layer of the atmosphere it contains most of the water?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

11.

Which layer of the atmosphere has the jet stream?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

12.

Which layer of the atmosphere burns up Meteors?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

13.

Which layer of the atmosphere is the hottest layer?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

14.

Which layer of the atmosphere is the top layer closest to space?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

15.

What type of air mass is the picture showing?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

16.

Which type of front quickly changes weather with lower temperature, heavy rain, lightening, thunder and wind and it can lead to severe weather?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

17.

Which front is shown in the picture?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

18.

Which front has gentle light rain or snow?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

19.

Which front is shown in the picture?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

20.

Which front is shown in the picture?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

21.

Which front forms where warm and cold air meet and neither air mass has the force to move the other?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

22.

Which type of front remains stationary, or “stands still?”

a)

Warm Front

b)

cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

23.

Which front brings days and days of precipitation?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Occluded Front

d)

Stationary Front

24.

How does a hurricane form?

a)

They form at a stationary front.

b)

They form when is is really warm and there is a lot of rain.

c)

They form near the equator over warm ocean waters and are fed be the energy from the warm ocean waters.

d)

They form when the wind gets really strong over the ocean during a stationary front.

25.

A _____________ is a large, rotating low-pressure system that forms over the warm waters of oceans near the equator.

a)

tornado

b)

hurricane

c)

thunderstorm

d)

flooding

26.
Hot coffee is stirred with a spoon; the spoon gets hot due to
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
27.
Near the ceiling of a room the air is warmer; the warm air rises because of
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
28.
Warm air rises and the cool air sinks demonstrates this type of heat transfer. 
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
Insolation 
29.
Ironing a shirt is an example of...
a)
condensation
b)
conduction
c)
convection
d)
radiation
30.
A microwave oven uses which of the following to heat foods.
a)
Microwave elves
b)
Radiation
c)
Convection
d)
Conduction
31.

Most of Earth’s weather occurs in the________________________.

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Thermosphere

d)

Troposphere

32.

Meteor showers occur in the

a)

troposhphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

stratosphere

d)

exosphere

33.

What protects Earth from ultraviolet rays from the sun?

a)

ozone layer

b)

mesosphere

c)

air pressure

d)

troposphere

34.
Radiation is transferred by ____
a)
flow of energy
b)
touch
c)
rays and waves 
d)
winds
35.
Conduction
a)
transfer of energy by flow
b)
transfer of energy by touch
c)
transfer of energy by waves and rays
d)
transfer of energy by wind
36.
Convection
a)
transfer of heat by flow
b)
transfer of heat by touch
c)
transfer of heat by waves and rays
d)
transfer of heat by wind
37.
Why is most of Earths freshwater is not available for human use.  
a)
because it's in the ground
b)
because it's frozen in ice caps and glaciers
c)
because of pollution
d)
because of global warmin
38.
27.  What area of the ocean floor would have the greatest amount of pressure being exerted? 
a)
trench
b)
Rift Valley
c)
seamount
39.

What source of energy below is the most important in driving the water cycle?

a)

Geothermal energy changes water to steam so condensation can occur

b)

Sunlight heats up Earth's surface water creating the process of evaporation

c)

Wind helps change surface water into water vapor during the process of evaporation

d)

Gravity is necessary to pull water downhill when it rains thus allowing water to flow into rivers and streams

40.

Lab partners are designing an experiment that shows the important steps of the water cycle. For their experimental design, which of the following procedures could best be used to demonstrate the difference between condensation and evaporation?

a)

To show condensation- increase the temperature within the cycle; to show evaporation-decrease the temperature

b)

To show condensation- decrease the temperature within the cycle; to show evaporation- increase the temperature

c)

To show condensation- maintain a constant temperature within the cycle; to show evaporation- increase the temperature

d)

To show condensation- maintain a constant temperature within the cycle; to show evaporation-decrease the temperature

41.

Refer to the diagram below of a student's lab setup of the water cycle. In this experiment, the total amount of water inside the container is measured at the beginning and then again after a full cycle has occurred.


Which of the following best predicts the outcome of the experiment and explains why?

a)

The beginning amount of water in the container would be less than the ending amount of water in the container because the water evaporated, decreasing the water level.

b)

The beginning amount of water in the container would be more than ending amount of water in the container because the process of condensation increases the water level.

c)

The beginning and ending amounts of water in the container would be equal because the water that was evaporated increased the water level but then came back as precipitation which decreased the water level again

d)

The beginning and ending amounts of water in the container would be equal because the water that was evaporated decreased the water level but then came back as precipitation which increased the water level again.

42.

Use the diagram above to answer the question.

Which of the following questions can BEST be answered by the data presented in the graph above?

a)

Is there a direct relationship between the density and salinity of ocean water?

b)

Is there an indirect relationship between the density and salinity of ocean water?

c)

Does the density of ocean water increase over time?

d)

Does the salinity of ocean water increase over time?

43.

A student was studying the ocean floor topography and began to question how pressure and temperature would differ at each feature.

What conclusions can she draw about ocean floor features F and G?

a)

Feature F is an ocean trench while Feature G is a continental shelf, which has more pressure than the ocean trench because there are more water molecules above it and a lower temperature because the sun cannot penetrate its deep waters to warm it.

b)

Feature F is a continental shelf while Feature G is a deep ocean trench, which has more pressure than the continental shelf because there are more water molecules above it and a lower temperature because the sun cannot penetrate its deep waters to warm it.

c)

Feature F is an abyssal plain, while Feature G is a mid-ocean ridge, which has more pressure than the ocean trench because there are more water molecules above it and a lower temperature because the sun cannot penetrate its deep waters to warm it.

d)

Feature F is a mid-ocean ridge, while Feature G is an abyssal plain, which has more pressure than the continental shelf because there are more water molecules above it and a lower temperature because the sun cannot penetrate its deep waters to warm it.

44.

The graph shows the distribution of water on Earth's surface.


What can be concluded from the image?

a)

Most of the freshwater on Earth is found in oceans

b)

Most of the water available on Earth is not drinkable

c)

Most of the water available on Earth is drinkable

d)

Most of the freshwater on Earth is found as groundwater

45.
What feature is E?
a)
Volcanic island
b)
Seamount
c)
Mid-ocean ridge
d)
Abyssal plain
46.
The majority of earth's fresh water is found where?
a)
in the ground
b)
in lakes and rivers
c)
in glaciers/ice
d)
on top of mountains
47.
On which kind of day would you expect the most evaporation from the surface of a pond?
a)
warm, sunny
b)
cold, sunny
c)
warm, rainy
d)
cold, rainy
48.
Which source of freshwater is not easily available for human use?
a)
oceans
b)
freshwater lakes
c)
rivers
d)
icecaps/glaciers
49.
When take shorter showers, you are conserving
a)
electricity
b)
water 
c)
soap
50.
Turning off the water while brushing your teeth is water conservation
a)
True
b)
FAlse
51.
Your beachtowel drying at the beach is an example of __________________.
a)
Transpiration
b)
Precipitation
c)
Condensation
d)
Evaporation
52.
This layer of the atmosphere contains most of the ozone.
a)
troposphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
mesosphere
d)
stratosphere
53.

What is the biggest difference between the Geocentric Model and the Heliocentric Model?

a)

the shape of the planets' orbits

b)

the movement of the moon

c)

the center of the solar system

54.
  What does "geo-" mean?
a)
Earth
b)
sun
c)
Center
55.
This image shows the:
a)
Geocentric Solar System
b)
Heliocentric Solar System
56.
The earth centered view of the universe
a)
Galaxy
b)
Geocentric
c)
Astonomy
d)
Heliocentric
57.
The sun centered view of the universe
a)
Galaxy
b)
Geocentric
c)
Astonomy
d)
Heliocentric
58.

What does the Geocentric system look like?

a)
b)
c)
d)
59.

What does the Heliocentric system look like?

a)
b)
c)
d)
60.
Which of the following is evidence of the Big Bang Theory?
a)
Cavemen heard a loud bang at the beginning of time.
b)
The universe isn't moving
c)
The universe is expanding
d)
The universe is getting smaller
61.
Which of the following is NOT true about the Big Bang Theory?
a)
It is the scientific explanation of how life began on Earth and evolved over time.
b)
It is the scientific explanation for the origin of the universe.
c)
It states that the universe expanded from a single point and is still expanding today.
d)
It states that the universe used to be much hotter and smaller.
62.
Which of the following is the best description of the Big Bang Theory?
a)
The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model about the universe’s origin and is supported by observations of the universe’s expansion.
b)
The Big Bang Theory is just one of the ideas about the universe’s origin, many of which are equally respected by the scientific community.
c)
The Big Bang Theory states that pre-existing matter was compacted into a hot and dense form and suddenly exploded into infinite, empty space.
d)
The Big Bang Theory is the scientific explanation of how the Sun, Earth, and the rest of the Solar System were formed at the beginning of time.
63.
A scientific theory...
a)
is based on lots of evidence
b)
is not valid
c)
is not reliable
d)
has not been tested many times
64.
Match the scientific theory to the correct definition:
The Big Bang Theory
a)
Animals and plants change gradually over a long period of time through a process of natural selection
b)
The planets move around the sun, not the other way around
c)
An explosion of heat that occurred 15 billion years ago and from which the Universe originated
d)
The force which makes two objects move towards each other, most commonly when an object falls to the ground
65.

Theories can change when....

a)

we discover new information and new technology

b)

whenever the scientist decides

c)

the decade changes

d)

cows jump over the moon

66.

What does helio mean?

a)

earth

b)

jupiter

c)

sun

d)

pluto

67.

What does geo mean?

a)

earth

b)

sun

c)

pluto

d)

jupiter

68.
They are small and have rocky bodies. 
a)
this describes the inner planets 
b)
this describes the outer planets 
69.
Planets that are closer to the sun
a)
take more time to orbit
b)
take less time to orbit
70.
When the Northern Hemisphere of Earth is Leaning away from the Sun, What season is the Southern Hemisphere experiencing?
a)
Summer
b)
Winter
c)
Spring
d)
Fall
71.

Which planets are made of solid surfaces and rocky cores?

a)

terrestrial

b)

gas giants

c)

outer planets

72.

Which planets are mostly made of gases?

a)

terrestrial

b)

gas giants

c)

inner planets

73.

Which planets are all outer planets?

a)

gas giants

b)

terrestrial planets

74.

Which planets are all inner planets?

a)

gas giants

b)

terrestrial planets

75.
All of the inner planets--
a)
have rings
b)
are rocky
c)
have deep atmospheres
d)
are large
76.
Gas giants
a)
Inner planets
b)
Outer planets
c)
Both
d)
Venus
77.
Small diameter
a)
Inner planets
b)
Outer planets
c)
Both
d)
Jupiter
78.
Solid, rocky surface
a)
Inner planets
b)
Outer planets
c)
Both
d)
Saturn
79.
Thick atmosphere
a)
Inner planets
b)
Outer planets
c)
 Both
d)
Mercury
80.

Which terms describe the composition of the inner planets?

a)

rocky

b)

gaseous

c)

water

d)

solid

81.

Which term describes the composition of the outer planets?

a)

rocky

b)

solid

c)

water

d)

gaseous

82.

Which statement best describes the density of the outer planets?

a)

a rock sinking in the ocean

b)

a balloon floating in a bathtub

83.

Why do the inner planets have longer days than the outer planets?

a)

Inner planets are closer to the sun.

b)

Outer planets are larger.

c)

Outer planets are farther from the sun.

d)

Inner planets are denser & rotate slower.

84.

Why do the outer planets have longer years than the inner planets?

a)

The outer planets rotate faster than the inner planets.

b)

The outer planets are farther from the sun.

c)

The inner planets are denser and rotate slower.

d)

Outer planets are made of gas.

85.

Why don't the outer planets have a separate atmosphere?

a)

Because they are so large.

b)

Because the planet's composition is the same as the atmosphere.

c)

Because of all the moons revolving around the planets cause the atmosphere to mix with the planet.

d)

Because they rotate so fast, the atmosphere blends in with the planet.

86.

Which group of planets are denser?

a)

inner

b)

outer

87.
Gravity attracts all objects towards one another.
a)
False
b)
True
c)
It depends
88.
Because of inertia, a moving object will keep ________.
a)
at rest
b)
moving
c)
in one spot
d)
inertia 
89.

A force which tries to pull two objects towards each other is

a)

gravity

b)

inertia

c)

mass

d)

speed

90.

Gravity is based on an object's

a)

mass

b)

size

c)

roundness

d)

brightness

91.

What keeps the planets in orbit around the sun?

a)

gravity and inertia together

b)

gravity

c)

inertia

d)

neither gravity or inertia

92.

What two forces affect gravity?

a)

mass and inertia

b)

mass and distance

c)

mass and force

d)

mass and weight

93.
What forces cause a planet to orbit?
a)
gravity and orbit
b)
gravity and inertia
c)
gravity and mass
d)
gravity and weight
94.
What two forces affect gravity?
a)
mass and inertia
b)
mass and distance
c)
mass and force
d)
mass and weight
95.
A lunar eclipse occurs when the line up is this:
a)
Sun -Earth-Moon
b)
Moon, Sun, Earth
c)
Earth-Sun-Moon
d)
Sun-Moon-Earth
96.
The line up for a solar eclipse is: 
a)
Sun-Earth-Moon
b)
Earth-Sun-Moon
c)
Sun-Moon-Earth
d)
Earth-Moon-Mars
97.
A solar eclipse only happens during a ________ moon.
a)
New
b)
Cresent
c)
Gibbous
d)
Full
98.
A lunar eclipse only happens during a ________ moon.
a)
New
b)
Cresent
c)
Gibbous
d)
Full
99.
During a solar eclipse...
a)
The sun is blocked by the moon
b)
The Earth is blocked moon
c)
The moon is blocked by the sun
d)
You are blocked
100.
Which type of eclipse is shown in this picture?
a)
Solar Eclipse
b)
Orbit
c)
Lunar Eclipse
d)
Total Eclipse
101.
Which type of eclipse is shown in the diagram?
a)
Solar Eclipse
b)
Lunar Eclipse
c)
Total Eclipse
d)
Partial Eclipse
102.
An eclipse in space is when....
a)
one object passes through the shadow of another object.
b)
two shadows collide.
c)
the moon is in the waxing crescent phase.
d)
the Sun and Moon are side by side.
103.
When Earth moves into the moon’s shadow, a solar eclipse takes place. Which phase represents the appearance of the moon during a solar eclipse?
a)
full moon
b)
new moon
c)
third quarter
d)
waning gibbous
104.

Another name for a shooting star is a ___________________.

a)

meteorite

b)

meteor

c)

meteoroid

105.

Meteors are made of

a)

plastic

b)

chunks or rock and metal

c)

paper

106.

Meteors are sometimes called

a)

sky stars

b)

planets

c)

shooting stars

107.

I am a rock entering a planet's atmosphere.

a)

meteor

b)

moon

c)

asteroid

d)

comet

108.
An event when the earth passes through a region having lots of debris
a)
Bolid
b)
Fireball
c)
Meteor
d)
Meteor Shower
109.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 3?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
110.
The Earth's axis is tilted _____ degrees.
a)
23.5
b)
25.3
c)
30.2
d)
24
111.
At position A, which hemisphere would have summer?
a)
Northern hemisphere
b)
Southern hemisphere
112.
Why do we experience the changing of the season on the earth?
a)
distance from the sun
b)
rotation of the earth
c)
change in solar output
d)
tilt of the earth's axix
113.
Why is the Equator warmest?
a)
Because it is closest to the sun.
b)
Because it receives the most direct sunlight
c)
Because no clouds form here.
d)
Because it is far from the sun
114.
What causes more heat,  indirect sunlight or direct sunlight?
a)
indirect
b)
direct
115.
Why is it warmer in the summer?
a)
Closer to the sun
b)
More direct light from Earth's tilt
c)
Stronger light from the sun
d)
Earth spins slower
116.
What happens when the area in which you live tilts away from the sun?
a)
It is summer.
b)
It is spring.
c)
It is winter.
d)
It is fall.
117.
The Earth's _______ is an imaginary line that goes from the North Pole to the South Pole.
a)
vernal equinox
b)
axis
c)
solar eclipse
d)
solar flare
118.
Which season is taking place in the Southern Hemisphere in Position 1?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
119.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 3?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
120.

The Southern Hemisphere is experiencing winter.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

The Southern Hemisphere is experiencing summer.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

The Northern Hemisphere is experiencing summer.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

The Northern Hemisphere is experiencing winter.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

When the Moon is directly between the Sun and the Earth, what phase would the Moon be in?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

Half Moon

d)

Waxing Crescent

125.
Name the phase of the moon for letter f
a)
Waning Gibbous
b)
Waxing Gibbous
c)
Waning Crescent
d)
Waxing Crescent
126.
How long does it take the moon to go around the Earth? 
a)
26 days 
b)
29 days 
c)
1 year
127.

What are the phases of the moon in order from New moon to Full moon?

a)

1st quarter, Waning Gibbous, Waxing Crescent

b)

Waning Gibbous, 3rd Quarter, Waning Crescent

c)

Waxing Crescent, 1st Quarter, Waxing Gibbous

d)

Waning Gibbous, 3rd Quarter, Waning Crescent

128.

What are the phases of the moon in order from Full moon to New moon?

a)

1st quarter, Waning Gibbous, Waxing Crescent

b)

Waning Gibbous, 3rd Quarter, Waning Crescent

c)

Waxing Crescent, 1st Quarter, Waxing Gibbous

d)

Waning Gibbous, 3rd Quarter, Waning Crescent

129.

What do you call the phases where the moon is growing?

a)

Waxing

b)

Waning

130.

What do you call the phases where the moon is shrinking?

a)

Waxing

b)

Waning

131.

Tide that causes the water at the beach to rise.

a)

Low Tide

b)

High Tide

132.

Tide that causes the water at the beach to fall.

a)

Low Tide

b)

High Tide

133.

What two things cause an increase in the density of water?

a)

Location

b)

Temperature

c)

Salinity

d)

Color

134.

What two situations would cause salinity to increase?

a)

Precipitation adding fresh water.

b)

Fresh water freezing out of the ocean into icebergs.

c)

Evaporation removing freshwater.

d)

Where rivers meet the ocean, adding freshwater in that area.

135.

What two situations would cause salinity to decrease?

a)

Precipitation adding fresh water.

b)

Fresh water freezing out of the ocean into icebergs.

c)

Evaporation removing freshwater.

d)

Where rivers meet the ocean, adding freshwater in that area.

136.

Why does hot water rise?

a)

More dense

b)

Less dense

137.

Why does cold water sink?

a)

More dense

b)

Less dense

138.

Why does freshwater rise?

a)

More dense

b)

Less dense

139.

Why does saltwater sink?

a)

More dense

b)

Less dense

140.

According to the chart what is the lowest point on the chart?

a)

High Tide

b)

Low Tide

141.

According to the chart what is the highest point on the chart?

a)

High Tide

b)

Low Tide