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2019-20 Spring Semester Study Set

Total questions: 156

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of land-form results from continental plates pushing together?

a)

rift valley

b)

folded mountain

c)

mesa

d)

plateau

2.

What landform is both a tectonic landform and a non-tectonic landform?

a)

fault-block mountain

b)

rift valley

c)

volcano

d)

mid-ocean ridge

3.

What term is used to describe the chain of convergent plate boundaries around the Pacific Ocean where many volcanoes occur?

a)

Chain of volcanoes

b)

Ring of Volcanoes

c)

Chain of Fire

d)

Ring of Fire

4.

Which type of volcano is the smallest?

a)

Shield Volcano

b)

Cinder Cone Volcano

c)

Composite Volcano

d)

Super Volcano

5.

What does the VEI scale measure?

a)

The size of volcanoes.

b)

The type of lava a volcano produces.

c)

How explosive a volcano is.

d)

How long until a volcano might explode again.

6.

What is the equilibrium between continental crust and the denser mantle below it?

a)

subsidence

b)

uplift

c)

isostasy

d)

topography

7.

The Swiss Alps are a series of rows of mountains covering a large area and are therefore an example of a ________________.

a)

tectonic plate.

b)

mountain range.

c)

Mountain system.

d)

landform grouping.

8.

Which of the following is true?

a)

Both earthquakes and volcanoes can be predicted.

b)

Neither earthquakes nor volcanoes can be predicted.

c)

Earthquakes can be predicted, but volcanoes cannot be predicted.

d)

Volcanoes can be predicted, but earthquakes cannot be predicted.

9.

Glaciers form ________________________.

a)

moraines, eskers, and kames.

b)

sand dunes and sand stone.

c)

mesas, buttes, and pinnacles.

d)

plateaus and domes.

10.

What is NOT a type of tectonic landform?

a)

volcanic

b)

erosional

c)

subsidence

d)

convergent

11.

Which process takes rock down into Earth?

a)

erosion

b)

uplift

c)

weathering

d)

subsidence

12.

A mountain, like Panola Mountain, that was created when molten rock formed a dome chamber, and later the softer sedimentary rock around it eroded, leaving the rock mountain is called a ____________________.

a)

dome.

b)

pinnacle.

c)

fault-block mountain.

d)

monadnock.

13.

What type of volcanoes are large, steep-sided volcanoes that result from alternating ejections of lava and pyroclastic materials?

a)

shield volcanoes

b)

composite volcanoes

c)

cinder volcanoes

d)

hot spot volcanoes

14.

A volcano begins to form when magma collects underground in a _______________ and starts to build up pressure.

a)

dome

b)

sill

c)

conduit

d)

magma chamber

15.

A volcano begins to erupt when magma forces its way to the surface and breaks through, forming a hole or __________ to come out of.

a)

vent

b)

sill

c)

chamber

d)

tephra

16.

_______________ is/are made up of particles of pulverized rock and glass.

a)

Magma

b)

Volcanic ash

c)

Lava

d)

Cinders

17.

Which of these structure types is the most common for volcanoes?

a)

seamounts

b)

shield volcano

c)

composite volcano or stratovolcano

d)

cinder cone

18.

What are “hot spots”?

a)

A “Hot Spot” is any hole in a volcano where lava is coming out.

b)

“Hot Spots” are a term used for any volcano.

c)

“Hot Spots” are volcanoes not associated with tectonic plate boundaries.

d)

“Hot Spots” are magma chambers or domes under volcanoes.

19.

A geyser is a ____________________.

a)

pool formed by minerals in hot springs.

b)

spring that periodically ejects large quantities of hot water and steam high into the air.

c)

a muddy, bubbling spring.

d)

pool of heated water that rose to the earth’s surface.

20.

Geothermal power plants __________.

a)

can be used for heating homes and businesses, and for generating electricity.

b)

are very common, producing most of the electricity in the United States.

c)

can be built just about anywhere.

d)

are very new because geothermal power has only recently been discovered.

21.

Wind-formed and glacier-formed landforms are types of _______________ landforms.

a)

erosional

b)

tectonic

c)

uplift

d)

deposional

22.

______________ explains how the entire surface of the earth was covered by water during the Great Flood. It also explains why coastal cities haven’t been flooded due to global warming.

a)

Uplift

b)

Subsidence

c)

Topography

d)

Isostasy

23.

According to the USGS, a(n) __________ volcano is currently erupting or has been observed erupting.

a)

extinct

b)

active

c)

dormant

d)

explosive

24.

The internal energy of the earth, particularly evident in areas where hot springs and geysers exist, is sometimes harnessed for man's use. This is called __________________ energy.

a)

heat energy

b)

subsurface

c)

geothermal

d)

hot mineral energy

25.

Molten rock that reaches the earth's surface is called ____________.

a)

lava

b)

magma

c)

ash

d)

extrusive

26.

The bowl shaped hole in the top of a volcano caused when the rocks have been blown out of the top of the volcano.

a)

cinder

b)

lava

c)

crater

d)

composite

27.

The largest type of volcano having gentle slopes is called a ___________.

a)

composite volcano

b)

shield volcano

c)

cinder cone

d)

super volcano

28.

What type of landform is broad regions of relatively undisturbed sedimentary deposits lifted up by some tectonic process.

a)

pinnacle

b)

folded mountain

c)

monadnock

d)

plateau

29.

What type of landform is small columns of rock left in place when water and/or wind erodes the dirt around them.

a)

pinnacle

b)

plateau

c)

mesa

d)

monadnock

30.

Formed when large regions fall vertically due to lack of support underground.

a)

butte

b)

basin

c)

rift valley

d)

plateau

31.

The vertical distance between sea level and the top of a landform, like a mountain top, is call ____________.

a)

peak

b)

relief

c)

elevation

d)

height

32.

Minerals can be identified based on their ____________ & ___________ properties.

a)

color and hardness

b)

usefulness and physical

c)

physical and chemical

d)

size and texture

33.

Metallic and non-metallic are types of ____________.

a)

color

b)

luster

c)

hardness

d)

diaphaniety

34.

Rocks that have a desired substance which can be mined for a profit are called ______________.

a)

igneous

b)

ore

c)

native

d)

elements

35.

All minerals form through ____________.

a)

erosion

b)

cementation

c)

crystallization

d)

deposition

36.

Which of the following scientists would most likely study minerals professionally?

a)

an archaeologist

b)

a petrologist

c)

a paleontologist

d)

a mineralogist

37.

Minerals are comprised of one or more ____.

a)

impurity

b)

grains

c)

atomic elements

d)

clasts

38.

Which of the following best represents a native element?

a)

Silver (Ag)

b)

Liquid Water (H2O)

c)

gibbsite (Al(OH)3)

d)

silica (SiO2)

39.

The softest mineral on the Mohs scale is ____.

a)

talc

b)

topaz

c)

quartz

d)

diamond

40.

Chemical Impurities can cause a mineral to have different _________________.

a)

hardnesses

b)

crystal shapes

c)

colors

d)

textures

41.

When calcite crystals break, it has flat sides. The is an example of the physical characteristic called __________.

a)

luster

b)

fracture

c)

cleavage

d)

diaphanity

42.

Emerald can be scratched by a ruby, but not by mica. Which of these gives the only possible hardness values for mica, emerald, and ruby?

a)

mica = 2.5 emerald = 9.0 ruby = 7.5

b)

mica = 7.5 emerald 2.5 ruby = 9.0

c)

mica = 2.5 emerald = 7.5 ruby = 9.0

d)

mica = 9.0 emerald = 7.5 ruby = 2.5

43.

When light can pass through a mineral unchanged it is called ________________.

a)

transparent

b)

translucent

c)

opaque

d)

florescent

44.

The streak of a mineral is ____________________.

a)

the resistance of that mineral to being scratched.

b)

the quality of being transparent.

c)

the color of a mineral in power form.

d)

the ability of that mineral to glow under ultraviolet light.

45.

What are grains in a rock?

a)

The individual rock particles, crystals, and fossils that combine to give a rock its texture.

b)

The broken pieces of rock fragments called clasts.

c)

The lines that some rocks have.

d)

The individual atoms or molecules of a rock.

46.

What classification of rock is one formed strictly from minerals crystallizing as water evaporates? (An example is sea salt.)

a)

clastic sedimentary rocks

b)

non-clastic sedimentary rocks

c)

igneous

d)

regional metamorphic rocks

47.

Which statement is NOT correct regarding metamorphic rock formation?

a)

Can be formed from contact, regional, or dynamic action

b)

Heat, pressure and/or chemical fluids act on a rock.

c)

Is sub-categorized as intrusive or extrusive.

d)

Can be made from Igneous, Sedimentary, or Metamorphic rock.

48.

Intrusive and extrusive are categories of _____________.

a)

clastic sedimentary rock.

b)

non-clastic sedimentary rock.

c)

metamorphic rock.

d)

igneous rock.

49.

When a rock has mineral grains arranged in lines, or has flaky layers, it is a(n) ______________________.

a)

non-clastic sedimentary rock.

b)

intrusive igneous rock.

c)

non-foliated metamorphic rock.

d)

foliated metamorphic rock.

50.

When lava cools and hardens above Earth's surface ___________________ igneous rocks are formed.

a)

intrusive

b)

extrusive

c)

foliated

d)

non-foliated

51.

When sedimentary rocks form from the remains of once living things, what sub-category of sedimentary rock is it?

a)

clastic

b)

chemical

c)

organic

d)

inorganic

52.

What type of sedimentary rock is coarse-grained with many sizes of rounded fragments?

a)

foliated

b)

non-foliated

c)

conglomerate

d)

breccia

53.

Which of the following best describes what contact metamorphism is?

a)

a rock at a tectonic plate boundary which is exposed to high heat and pressure

b)

using magma to turn existing rock, close to the magma, into metamorphic rock

c)

rock put under pressure and frictional heat inside a fault during an earthquake

d)

rock that forms quickly from magma erupting from a volcano

54.

Most fossils are found in __________.

a)

intrusive igneous rock.

b)

extrusive igneous rock.

c)

sedimentary rock.

d)

metamorphic rock.

55.

What is the name for the study of fossils?

a)

paleontology

b)

mineralogy

c)

petrology

d)

archaeology

56.

Secular scientists believe the layers of the fossil record occur __________.

a)

in the order in which they evolved.

b)

in the order in which they were buried at a given location.

c)

from the largest to the smallest organisms.

d)

in an order that is based on where they lived.

57.

Biblical scientists believe the layers of the fossil record occur __________.

a)

in the order in which they evolved.

b)

in the order in which they were buried at a given location.

c)

from the largest to the smallest organisms.

d)

in an order that is based on where they lived.

58.

Fossil fuels do not include __________.

a)

dried bones in sedimentary rock

b)

natural gas

c)

petroleum

d)

coal

59.

Coal comes from __________.

a)

minerals in very old rocks

b)

fossilized marine organisms

c)

fossilized plants

d)

fossilized animals

60.

Soil is a mixture of decayed organic matter, weathered rock, mineral fragments, water and ____.

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

clay

d)

air

61.

All of the following can cause mechanical weathering EXCEPT ____.

a)

wind blowing around a pinnacle

b)

water in a stream running over a rock

c)

a rain puddle on a rock

d)

sunlight heating a rock

62.

Chemical weathering _______________________.

a)

only occurs with acid rain.

b)

occurs when chemical reactions dissolve or change the materials in rocks into new materials.

c)

breaks apart rocks by physical processes.

d)

breaks a rock by heating it up.

63.

The process where once living material is broken down into dark colored organic material is called __________.

a)

the rock cycle.

b)

decomposition.

c)

subduction.

d)

weathering.

64.

Which type of processes reshape Earth’s surface by tearing down landforms?

a)

constructive

b)

destructive

c)

both constructive and destructive

d)

neither constructive nor destructive

65.

Any fertile soil must contain __________.

a)

organic material

b)

sand

c)

silt

d)

clay

66.

Why are fossils not being formed today when so many organisms continue to die?

a)

A) When animals and plants die, they decompose and the pieces move into the soil.

b)

B) Dead animals and plants do not get buried quick enough to remain intact and fossilize.

c)

C) It takes millions of years for animals and plants to become fossils.

d)

Both A & B

e)

A, B, & C combined

67.

Which layer of the soil is dark brown and contains many nutrients for growing plants?

a)

O-Horizon - Organic

b)

A-Horizon - Top Soil

c)

B-Horizon - Sub Soil

d)

C-Horizon - Small Rocks

e)

R-Horizon - Bedrock

68.

Why do geologists usually have to use a combination of tests to figure out the identity of a mineral?

a)

A) Geologist rules say you have to do more than one test.

b)

B) Some minerals can have the same characteristic like the same type of luster.

c)

C) Some minerals can have different results for a mineral characteristic like different colors due to impurities.

d)

Answers A, B, and C

e)

Answers B and c

69.

What does the Rock Cycle diagram show?

a)

The three types of rock

b)

The processes necessary to change rock minerals from one type of rock into another type of rock

c)

The different paths that rock forming minerals can take to change into different types of rock

d)

All of the other answers combined

70.

What is NOT a type of soil conservation?

a)

planting trees along the edges of fields to block wind erosion

b)

contour plowing

c)

crop rotation

d)

leaving a field of bare dirt to "air out" after you harvest a crop

71.

About what percentage of the earth's surface is covered by water?

a)

30%

b)

35%

c)

50%

d)

71%

72.

Earth is unique in that it has ____________ state(s) of water at normal temperatures.

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

solid, liquid, and gas

73.

Coral reefs are formed from __________.

a)

the joined calcium carbonate skeletons of millions of small animals.

b)

the collected shells of dead clams and oysters.

c)

the hard shells of underwater plants.

d)

a special form of sedimentary rock.

74.

How much of the earth’s water is in oceans and salt lakes?

a)

2.5%

b)

30%

c)

71%

d)

97.5%

75.

Which of the following does NOT belong with the others?

a)

upwelling

b)

longshore

c)

trench

d)

rip

76.

The part of the continent that sticks out under the oceans and gulfs for miles is called the ___________.

a)

abyssal plain

b)

continental shelf

c)

trench

d)

seamount

77.

Cuts into the continental shelf and slopes caused by erosion are called _________________.

a)

ocean trenches.

b)

submarine canyons.

c)

mid-ocean ridges.

d)

sea mounts.

78.

What percentage of fresh water is "surface and other fresh water"?

a)

1%

b)

2%

c)

11%

d)

30%

e)

69%

79.

Ocean tides are caused by _____________.

a)

the earth's rotation.

b)

the wind.

c)

the gravitational pull of the moon and sun.

d)

the ocean's currents.

80.

In general, the ocean’s temperature _____ from the surface to the bottom.

a)

decreases and then increases as you go deeper

b)

decreases as you go deeper

c)

increases as you go deeper

d)

stays the same as you go deeper

81.

What causes surface currents to flow in the direction they do?

a)

the earth's rotation

b)

the wind

c)

the shape of the continents

d)

All of the other answers combined

82.

The Corriolis effect explains that __________.

a)

ocean currents in the northern hemisphere rotate clockwise because of the earth's rotation.

b)

ocean currents in the northern hemisphere rotate clockwise because of the wind.

c)

ocean currents in the southern hemisphere rotate clockwise because of the earth's rotation.

d)

ocean currents in the southern hemisphere rotate clockwise because of the wind.

83.

Annie is swimming in the ocean, and she finds herself being pulled farther and farther out to sea from the point she entered the water. The force pushing her is caused by a _________________.

a)

longshore current

b)

rip current

c)

gulf stream current

d)

downwelling current

84.

The Great Ocean Conveyor Belt is _____________.

a)

describing the looping currents caused by the Corriolis Effect.

b)

a set of currents that ships use to pull them along and save fuel.

c)

a series of connected currents moving water all around the world.

d)

caused by the rotation of the earth.

85.

Most ocean waves are caused by ______________.

a)

tides

b)

the earth's rotation

c)

ocean currents

d)

wind

86.

The distance between wave crests is called the ____________.

a)

wavewidth

b)

height

c)

trough

d)

wavelength

87.

The highest part of a wave is called the ___________.

a)

crest

b)

wavelength

c)

trough

d)

height

88.

What percentage of the earth’s surface water is in groundwater?

a)

87%

b)

30%

c)

11%

d)

2%

89.

The end of a stream where the water exits into a lake or the ocean is called the ______________.

a)

mouth

b)

source

c)

tributary

d)

watershed

90.

A __________ _________ empties surface water from a drainage basin.

a)

basin divide

b)

flood plain

c)

water table

d)

stream system

91.

Streams in the continental United States that are east of the North American Great Continental Divide and west of the Eastern Continental Divide drain into the _____________.

a)

Gulf of Mexico

b)

Atlantic Ocean

c)

Pacific Ocean

d)

Arctic Ocean

92.

Where does the energy for the Water Cycle originate?

a)

The earth's rotation

b)

Wind and the earth's gravity

c)

The sun and gravity

d)

The gravitational pull of the sun and moon.

93.

The Water Table refers to _________________.

a)

underground lakes

b)

the top of the groundwater reservoir

c)

the top of underground aquifers

d)

all the underground water

94.

The science of all forms of water is __________________.

a)

Limnology

b)

Hydrology

c)

Waterology

d)

Geology

95.

Irrigation is used in _________________________.

a)

transportation

b)

recreation

c)

agriculture

d)

generating hydroelectric power

96.

The process of water vapor rising and cooling to create clouds is called ______________.

a)

transpiration

b)

precipitation

c)

condensation

d)

evaporation

e)

percolation

97.

The part of the water cycle where rainwater and snow-melt flow along the surface of the earth weathering and eroding rocks and soil on its way to streams is called _____________.

a)

transpiration

b)

percolation

c)

runoff

d)

groundwater

e)

aquifer

98.

The part of the water cycle where acidic rainwater might form solution caves is called ______________.

a)

transpiration

b)

condensation

c)

evaporation

d)

runoff

e)

groundwater

99.

The place where a river or stream regularly overflows its banks onto the ground is called _______________.

a)

a flood plain

b)

a runoff area

c)

a groundwater area

d)

a meandering area

100.

The place where a river or stream slows down and has wide sweeping curves is called _______________.

a)

a flood plain

b)

a meander

c)

an oxbow lake

d)

rapid

101.

Caves that are formed by water running through soluble rocks are called ___________ caves.

a)

underground river

b)

weathered and eroded

c)

solution

d)

speleothem

102.

The type of cave formation that hangs like an icicle from the roof of a cave that is made from minerals deposited from dripping water is called a ______________.

a)

mineral icicle

b)

stalactite

c)

stalagmite

d)

column

103.

Gases are layered according to their density in the ______________.

a)

homosphere

b)

heterosphere

c)

stratosphere

d)

troposphere

104.

________________is/are the result of too much exposure to ultraviolet light.

a)

Dehydration

b)

Freckles

c)

Heat Stroke

d)

Skin Cancer

105.

In general, atmospheric pressure is greatest near Earth's surface and ____ as you move upward away from sea level.

a)

stays the same

b)

doubles

c)

increases

d)

decreases

106.

The ____ is the layer of the atmosphere immediately below the mesosphere.

a)

stratosphere

b)

troposphere

c)

exosphere

d)

thermosphere

107.

The two gas cycles that move gases from living things to the soil and oceans, into the atmosphere, and back to living things are the ____________________________ cycles.

a)

carbon and nitrogen

b)

water and oxygen

c)

oxygen and nitrogen

d)

carbon and oxygen

108.

The ____ is where the weather occurs.

a)

thermosphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

troposphere

d)

exosphere

109.

The stratosphere contains the highest concentration of __________.

a)

carbon

b)

nitrogen

c)

ozone

d)

hydrogen

110.

If the ozone layer got thinner, life on Earth would be exposed to ____ concentrations of ultraviolet radiation.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

no change in

d)

none of the above

111.

As you go higher in the troposphere, the temperature ____________________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

d)

decreases, then increases, then decreases again

112.

The layers of gases surrounding the Earth is the ______________.

a)

atmosphere

b)

hydrosphere

c)

astrosphere

d)

ozonesphere

113.

___________ makes up 78 percent of the atmosphere.

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Argon

e)

Ozone

114.

If the amount of greenhouse gases is increased by air pollution, which statement describes what will happen?

a)

Earth's temperature will increase because the greenhouse gases will prevent energy from escaping the earth.

b)

Earth's temperature will not change significantly because the greenhouse will prevent energy from escaping from the earth.

c)

Earth's temperature will decrease because the greenhouse gases will prevent the Sun's energy from heating up the earth.

d)

Earth's temperature will increase because the greenhouse gases will prevent the Sun's energy from heating up the earth.

115.

If the amount of clouds is increased by numerous volcanic eruptions, which statement describes what will happen?

a)

Earth's temperature will increase because the clouds will prevent energy from escaping the earth.

b)

Earth's temperature will not change significantly because the clouds will prevent energy from escaping from the earth.

c)

Earth's temperature will decrease because the clouds will prevent the Sun's energy from heating up the earth.

d)

Earth's temperature will increase because the clouds will prevent the Sun's energy from heating up the earth.

116.

What instrument measures the wind speed?

a)

anemometer

b)

wind vane

c)

thermometer

d)

hygrometer

e)

barometer

117.

What instrument measures the atmospheric pressure?

a)

hygrometer

b)

barometer

c)

thermometer

d)

anemometer

e)

pressureometer

118.

The energy that causes the movement of air called wind originates __________________.

a)

with Earth's gravity.

b)

heat from Earth's mantle.

c)

magnetic field of the earth.

d)

at the sun.

119.

As air heats up ____________________________.

a)

it falls because it becomes less dense.

b)

it falls because it becomes more dense.

c)

it rises because it becomes less dense.

d)

it rises because it becomes more dense.

120.

The global winds that move most weather across the United States are the __________.

a)

north-easterlies

b)

prevailing westerlies

c)

prevailing southernlies

d)

trade winds

121.

The jet stream is ______________________________.

a)

fast trade winds that ships used to use for trade routes.

b)

fast easterly winds that airplanes use to fly to the west coast faster.

c)

winds at the top of the troposphere that move cold air from the poles south.

d)

winds caused by the Coriolis effect.

122.

Sea and land breezes are caused because ____.

a)

the land heats and cools more slowly than the water

b)

the land heats and cools more quickly than the water

c)

air moves more easily over water than over land

d)

air moves more easily over land than over water

123.

The Coriolis effect causes wind to _______________.

a)

turn to the left in the northern hemisphere due to the earth's rotation.

b)

turn to the right in the northern hemisphere due to the earth's rotation.

c)

turn to the left in the northern hemisphere due to the earth's gravity.

d)

turn to the right in the northern hemisphere due to the earth's gravity.

124.

The trade winds are steady winds that flow from _____________________________________________.

a)

west to east between 30˚N latitudes and 60˚N latitudes.

b)

east to west between 30˚N latitudes and 60˚N latitudes.

c)

west to east between 30˚N latitudes and 30˚S latitudes.

d)

east to west between 30˚N latitudes and 30˚S latitudes.

125.

When the national Weather Service sees that severe weather is occurring in a certain area, they issue a ______________.

a)

weather notice.

b)

weather warning.

c)

weather watch.

d)

weather caution.

126.

Climate is _________________________.

a)

the condition of earth's atmosphere at any given time and place.

b)

how you "feel" at a given time due to the current temperature and wind speed.

c)

the average atmospheric conditions for an area over a long period of time

d)

how "sticky" it feels at a given time due to the humidity.

127.

____ is the ratio of the amount of water vapor the air does hold to the amount of water vapor that the air can hold at a specific temperature.

a)

Humidity Ratio

b)

Relative humidity

c)

Humidity

d)

Fractional humidity

128.

Wind always moves from _______________________.

a)

areas of low pressure to areas of high pressure.

b)

areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure.

c)

areas of low temperature to areas of high temperature.

d)

areas of high temperature to areas of low temperature.

129.

___________________ is the temperature it “feels like” due to the wind.

a)

Humidity

b)

Relative Thmperature

c)

Wind Chill

d)

Dew Point

130.

Which of the symbols above is used to indicate a warm front?

a)

a series of red semicircles on the side of a line pointing in the direction that the front is moving

b)

a series of blue triangles on the side of a line pointing in the direction that the front is moving

c)

a series of red semicircles on one side of a line alternating with a series of blue triangles on the other side of the same line

d)

a series of purple alternating semicircles and triangles on the side of a line pointing in the direction that the front is moving

131.

Why does the Earth have seasons?

a)

The earth gets closer and farther away from the sun as it revolves in its orbit around the sun.

b)

The earth's axis moves back ans forth getting the northern and southern hemispheres farther away or closer to the sun.

c)

The sun gets warmer and cooler which makes the earth warmer and cooler.

d)

The Earth's axis is tilted at 23.5 degrees in one direction all the time, and as the earth orbits the sun, this results in more direct sunlight part of the year, and less direct sunlight part of the year.

132.

Why aren't there solar and lunar eclipses every time the moon orbits the earth?

a)

The earth is tilted 23.5 degrees causing the sun, earth, and moon to NOT line up most of the year. An eclipse only occurs when they line up.

b)

The moon's orbit is tilted 5.4 degrees causing the sun, earth, and moon to NOT line up most of the year. An eclipse only occurs when they line up.

c)

The moon's orbit is elliptical causing the moon's shadow to fall on the earth sometimes, but not all the time.

d)

The earth's orbit is elliptical causing the earth's shadow to fall on the moon sometimes, but not all the time.

133.

Why is it warmer at the earth's equator than at the North and South Poles?

a)

The earth's equator is closer to the sun than the North and South poles.

b)

The North and South poles have ice that make them colder than the equator.

c)

The equator gets direct sunlight and the sunlight hitting the poles is spread out, causing the equator to heat up much more than the poles.

d)

The earth is tilted 23.5 degrees causing the North and South poles to be farther away from the sun than the equator at certain parts of the year which makes them colder than the equator.

134.

Which of the following statements is not correct about the sun's electromagnetic energy?

a)

About 93% of the sun's emitted energy is electromagnetic energy.

b)

The visible spectrum contains only those waves we can see.

c)

Some animals can see all wavelengths of electromagnetic energy.

d)

It forms a continuous spectrum that includes radio waves and gamma rays.

135.

The moon's surface gravity is what fraction of the earth's surface gravity?

a)

1/8

b)

1/6

c)

1/3

d)

1/2

136.

The moon has a very thin atmosphere because it __________.

a)

is too hot

b)

rotates too fast

c)

has too little mass (gravity)

d)

has a large escape velocity

137.

Most lunar craters appear to have formed __________.

a)

from numerous volcanic eruptions

b)

as a result of meteoroid and asteroid impacts

c)

at Creation

d)

petrified bubbles of magma after they burst

138.

How many times does the moon rotate during one revolution around the earth?

a)

once

b)

twice

c)

28 times

d)

365 1/4 times

139.

During the last half of the lunar month the moon is said to be __________.

a)

new

b)

gibbous

c)

waxing

d)

waning

140.

What do we call the lunar phase that comes right after the full moon?

a)

first quarter

b)

waxing gibbous

c)

waning gibbous

d)

last quarter

141.

The longest day of the year is called the ______________.

a)

Vernal Equinox

b)

Autumnal Equinox

c)

Summer Solstice

d)

Winter Solstice

142.

The vernal equinox occurs near __________.

a)

March 20 in the Spring

b)

June 21 in the Summer

c)

September 23 in the Fall

d)

December 21 in the Winter

143.

In what phase of its cycle must the moon be for a total lunar eclipse to take place?

a)

first quarter

b)

last quarter

c)

new moon

d)

full moon

144.

What type of electromagnetic waves causes skin cancer?

a)

infrared

b)

ultraviolet

c)

visible

d)

microwaves

145.

What type of tide occurs when the sun, moon, and earth are aligned?

a)

Spring Tides

b)

Neap Tides

c)

There are no tides

d)

Normal high and low tides

146.

The Secular Scientists' theory that the moon and earth formed from the same Nebular cloud is called the ________________.

a)

Capture Theory

b)

Fission Theory

c)

Accretion theory

d)

Giant Impact Hypothesis

147.

The motion of an astronomical object around another astronomical object is called ______________________.

a)

revolution

b)

rotation

c)

perigee

d)

apogee

148.

What has the most influence on Earth's ocean tides?

a)

The moon

b)

The sun

c)

The Earth's gravity

d)

The season of the year

149.

What type of eclipse is visible to the most people?

a)

an earth eclipse

b)

a tidal eclipse

c)

a solar eclipse

d)

a lunar eclipse

150.

What is the daily rise and fall of local ocean height at a given location?

a)

tides

b)

waves

c)

phases

d)

eclipses

151.

The solar __________ contains the entire range of electromagnetic waves released by the sun.

a)

waves

b)

spectrum

c)

winds

d)

flares

152.

A solar eclipse occurs when the earth, moon, and sun are lined up in the following order:

a)

earth - sun - moon

b)

sun - moon - earth

c)

sun - earth - moon

d)

moon - sun - earth

153.

Which of the pictures (attached) shows a Waxing Gibbous moon phase as seen in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

154.

Which of the pictures (attached) shows a Last Quarter moon phase as seen in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

155.

According to the Bible, why did God create the sun, moon, and stars? Check all that apply.

a)

To be for signs and for seasons.

b)

To indicate days and years.

c)

To give light upon the earth.

d)

To separate the light from the darkness.

156.

When is there 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of night time? Check all that apply.

a)

Summer Solstice.

b)

Winter Solstice.

c)

Vernal Equinox.

d)

Autumnal Equinox.