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Honors Biology Final Exam

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most important lab safety rule?

a)

1. wear shoes

b)

2. eat in the lab

c)

3. follow teacher's directions

d)

4.know the location of the fire alarm

2.

A researched explanation to a problem that has not yet been tested.

a)

data

b)

theory

c)

hypothesis

d)

fact

3.

An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk. Each plant has the same amount of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same music. The growth is measured at the end of every week. In this investigation, the independent variable is ...

a)

The plant growth

b)

The amount of sunlight

c)

The type of music

d)

The type of liquid

4.

If you increase the amount of spinach you eat, then you will increase the iron in your blood.

What's the dependent variable?

a)

increase the amount of iron in your blood

b)

spinach you eat

c)

the amount you exercise

d)

the amount of sunlight you are exposed to

5.

What some functions of lipids?

a)

Quick source of energy

b)

Builds muscles, skin, enzymes

c)

Stores genetic information

d)

Stores energy, insulation, protection

6.
1. ___ combine to form DNA.
2. ___ combine to form proteins.
a)
1. amino acids
2. nucleotides
b)
1. sugars
2. amino acids
c)
1. nucleotides
2. amino acids
d)
1. lipids
2. nucleotides
7.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
8.

What is the purpose of an enzyme?

a)

give permission for the reaction

b)

raise activation energy

c)

speed up reactions without being destroyed

d)

control how many reactions occur

9.
With what 3 letters do enzymes typically end?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
10.

What are the single sugars that are the building blocks of carbohydrates?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

fatty acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

amino acids

11.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
12.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
13.

What elements are common to all 4 macromolecules we studied?

a)

Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen

b)

Carbon, Nitrogen, Phosphorus

c)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen

d)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Phosphorus

14.

When water is added to split a molecule, the reaction is known as a __ reaction.

a)

dehydration synthesis

b)

condensation

c)

hydrolysis

d)

cytokinesis

15.
Which of the 4 major macromolecules provides a quick burst of energy?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
16.
Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
b)
Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.
c)
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
d)
Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.
17.

Which word below properly describes cell membranes?

a)

impermeable

b)

permeable

c)

selectively permeable

d)

free flowing

18.
Where does photosynthesis occur?
a)
ribosomes
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplasts
d)
nucleus
19.

What process takes place in the mitochondria?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

Mitosis

d)

Protein synthesis

20.

What organelle is pictured here?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Vesicles

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Mitochondria

21.

Movement of anything from an area of high concentration to low concentration without using cellular energy.

a)

Diffusion

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Active Transport

22.
Movement of water from an area of high concentration to low concentration.  Diffusion of water.
a)
Exocytosis
b)
Osmosis
c)
Hypotonic
d)
Isotonic
23.

Process by which very large particles are brought into the cell by the plasma membrane indenting to form a vesicle.

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Endocytosis

24.
Movement of particles from high to low through a transport protein.  Form of passive transport.
a)
Facilitated diffusion
b)
Active transport
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Hypotonic
25.

Which organelle is responsible for making proteins?

a)

ribosomes

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplasts

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

26.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
27.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
28.
At the end of MEIOSIS, there are...
a)
2 identical cells
b)
2 different cells
c)
4 identical cells
d)
4 different cells
29.
W=white hair
w= non-white hair
If you cross a horse with WW and a horse with ww what fraction of the offspring would be expected to have white hair?
a)
none
b)
3/4
c)
1/2
d)
all
30.
What is the genotype for a pea plant heterozygous for round seeds (R), and homozygous recessive for green seeds (y)?
a)
Ry
b)
RRyy
c)
RrYy
d)
Rryy
31.
If a female sea otter (Aa) mates with a male otter (Aa),  what percent of the offspring will be (aa)?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
32.
In pea plants, the tall allele is dominant to the short allele. What key would demonstrate this?
a)
Tall = T
Short = S
b)
Tall = T
Short = t
c)
Tall = t
Short = T
d)
Tall = TT
Short = tt
33.
Georgette wants to breed her pet phoenixes, but she isn't sure if the babies will burst into blue flames or red flames. Her documents show that her female phoenix is homozygous dominant for red flames, while her male phoenix is homozygous recessive for blue flames. What color flames will the babies have?
a)
Red
b)
Blue
c)
Purple
d)
50% Red, 50% Blue
34.
Identify the homozygous dominant genotype:
a)
FF
b)
Ff
c)
ff
35.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
36.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
37.
Convert AGTCGCTTA into mRNA.
a)
AGTCGCTTA
b)
TCAGCGAAT
c)
UCAGCAAT
d)
UCAGCGUUA
38.
Where does translation occur?
a)
nucleus
b)
ribosome
c)
cytoplasm
d)
mitochondria
39.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
40.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
41.

A mutation is any change in the _________ of a gene or chromosome.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

tRNA

42.

Why are frameshift mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

43.

The process where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.

a)

Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Extinction

d)

Artifical Selection

44.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant genes.

c)

Because they come from recessive genes.

d)

Because the trait is an acquired trait.

45.
When every organism of a species has died.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artificial Selection
46.
Which organisms are most likely to survive?
a)
the best adapted
b)
the fastest
c)
the strongest
d)
the most domesticated (tamed)
47.
Which of the following does NOT provide evidence for evolution?
a)
homologous structures
b)
deforestation
c)
DNA similarities
d)
fossil research
48.

What is the process in which humans breed organisms for certain traits?

a)

natural selection

b)

inheritance

c)

artificial selection

d)

descent with modification

49.

Any preserved trace of an organism that has lived in the past is a(n)

a)

Adapt

b)

Fossil

c)

Rock

d)

Gene

50.

Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________.

a)

increase in number

b)

become extinct

c)

decrease in number

d)

have unpredictable changes in future populations

51.
Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar structures.  These are known as
a)
vestigial structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil structures
52.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
53.

A species of cave beetle that lives in total darkness is blind but has remnants of what looks like eyes. These “eyes” are...

a)

adaptations

b)

vestigial structures

c)

homologous structures

d)

embryology

54.

Two different species may have similar features because of

a)

convergent evolution

b)

fossil record

c)

genetic drift

d)

genetic engineering

55.

Convergent evolution occurs when natural selection causes distantly related organisms to

a)

merge into one continuous population because of reversals in continental drift.

b)

evolve both analogous and homologous characteristics.

c)

evolve similar structures in response to similar environmental challenges.

d)

go extinct

56.

Individual organisms evolve, not populations.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

What is the positive particle found in an atom called?

a)

Electron

b)

Neutron

c)

Proton

d)

Quark

58.

The chemicals entering a chemical reaction are called

a)

Reactants

b)

Ions

c)

Molecules

d)

Products

59.

In the formula 3N2 + 9H2→ 6NH3, how many molecules enter the reaction

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

12

60.

In the formula 3N2 + 9H2→ 6NH3, how many atoms of nitrogen enter the reaction

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

12

61.

Which organelle modifies, stores, and packages proteins

a)

Ribosome

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Lysosome

62.

Which organelle would by used by white blood cells to destroy a virus like COVID-19?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Lysosome

63.

Which organelle would be used for internal structural support?

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Vacuole

64.

Which organelle would be used for external structural support?

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Vacuole

65.

Which organelle would be used to detoxify poisons?

a)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Lysosome

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

66.

When during the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

Mitosis

67.

When during the cell cycle do sister chromatids separate?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

68.

During cell division, DNA is moved by

a)

Centromeres

b)

Kinetochores

c)

Centrioles

d)

Spindle Fibers

69.

When does crossing-over occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase II

d)

Anaphase II

70.

Division of the cytoplasm is known as

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Cell Plate

d)

Cytokinesis

71.

Huntington's Disease is caused by a dominant allele (H). If a mother is Hh and the father is hh, what is the chance their first child will be a carrier for Huntington's Disease?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0%

72.

Both Cystic Fibrosis (f) and Celiac Disease (d) are caused by recessive alleles. A mother has DdFf and the father has DDff. What is are the possible gamete options for both parents?

a)

Mom - DF, Df, dF, df; Dad - Df, Df, Df, Df

b)

Mom - DD, Df, dF, Ff; Dad - DD, Df, Df, ff

c)

Mom - Dd, Ff; Dad - DD, ff

d)

Mom - Fd, Ff, fD, Dd; Dad - fD, DD, fD, ff

73.

If flower color has incomplete dominance, what would be the color of the offspring when a plant with red flowers is cross-pollinated with a plant with yellow flowers?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Orange

d)

Red and yellow spotted

74.

If flower color has codominance, what would be the color of the offspring when a plant with red flowers is cross-pollinated with a plant with yellow flowers?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Orange

d)

Red and yellow spotted

75.

What would be the mRNA sequence made from the DNA sequence TGGTACAAAGGGACT?

a)

ACCATGTTTCCCTGA

b)

UCCUAGUUUCCCUGA

c)

TGGTACAAAGGGACT

d)

ACCAUGUUUCCCUGA

76.

What would be the amino sequence made from the DNA sequence TGGTACAAAGGGACT?

a)

Threonine - Methionine - Proline

b)

Methionine - Proline

c)

Tryptophan - Tyrosine - Lysine - Glycine - Threonine

d)

CAACGGTGGGAAAGATC

77.

What would be the complementary DNA sequence made from the DNA sequence TGGTACAAAGGGACT?

a)

ACCATGTTTCCCTGA

b)

UCCUAGUUUCCCUGA

c)

TGGTACAAAGGGACT

d)

ACCAUGUUUCCCUGA

78.

Maintaining relatively constant internal conditions is known as

a)

Metabolism

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Evolution

d)

Response

79.

Anything that causes an organism to change its behaviors is

a)

Metabolism

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Evolution

d)

Stimulus

80.

The sum of all chemical reactions in an organism is known as

a)

Metabolism

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Evolution

d)

Stimulus

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