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Worksheets

Unit VIII Exam

Total questions: 198

Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All of the following statements about nuclear reactions are true except

a)

the nucleus gains stability by undergoing a reaction

b)

pressure affects nuclear reactions

c)

temperature does not affect a nuclear reaction

d)

energies released in nuclear reactions are much larger than energies in chemical reactions

2.

Nuclear reactions

a)

require energy input to take place

b)

are non-spontaneous

c)

cause one nuclide to change into another nuclide

d)

occur with all isotopes

3.

Nuclear reactions are strongly influenced by environmental factors.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Some elements have no stable isotopes.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The mass of the helium atom equals

a)

the mass of two protons and two neutrons

b)

the mass of two protons, two neutrons and two electrons

c)

more than the mass of two protons, two neutrons, and two electrons

d)

less than the mass of two protons, two neutrons, and two electrons

6.

Einstein's equation states

a)

E = mc

b)

E = mc2

c)

E = m/c

d)

E = m/c2

7.

The nuclear binding energy is measured in

a)

J

b)

J/K

c)

J-mol

d)

J/sec

8.

In Einstein's equation, c stands for the speed of light.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The mass of particles is measured in micrograms.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Avogadro's number is used in nuclear binding energy calculations.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

No stable nuclides exist beyond the element

a)

79-Au

b)

63-Eu

c)

82-Pb

d)

86-Rn

12.

The ______ _______ _____ holds the nuclei of atoms together

a)

electrostatic force

b)

nuclear force

c)

strong nuclear force

d)

strong electrostatic force

13.

Unstable nuclei decompose rapidly.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Neutrons help provide stability to nuclei.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

An alpha particle is a

a)

He nucleus with one neutron and two protons

b)

H nucleus with one proton and one neutron

c)

H nucleus with one proton and two neutrons

d)

He nucleus with two protons and two neutrons

16.

In beta decay the following occurs:

a)

atomic number increases by one

b)

mass number increases by one

c)

atomic number decreases by one

d)

mass number decreases by one

17.

The positron has the same mass as

a)

a proton

b)

an electron

c)

a neutron

d)

an alpha particle

18.

Gamma radiation does not affect the atomic number of a product.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

A neutron becomes a proton in beta emission.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Radioactive decay takes place more rapidly for

a)

more stable nuclei

b)

larger nuclei

c)

less stable nuclei

d)

smaller nuclei

21.

The rate of decay for an isotope depends on

a)

temperature

b)

pressure

c)

size of sample

d)

identity of isotope

22.

After four half-lives, _____ of the radioisotope remains

a)

25%

b)

6.25%

c)

3.125%

d)

12.5%

23.

The decay curve for a radioisotope plots

a)

percent remaining vs. elapsed time

b)

change in mass vs. elapsed time

c)

percent remaining vs. half-life

d)

percent time change vs. percent remaining

24.

Fr-220 has a half-life of 27.5 seconds.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The abbreviation for half-life is t1.5

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Carbon-14 decays by beta emission.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

In two half-lives, 50% of the mass of the nuclide is lost.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

The isotope that is used to measure the age of organic material is

a)

C-12

b)

C-14

c)

C-13

d)

C-11

29.

The carbon-14 isotope can be used to measure the ages of

a)

organisms

b)

rocks

c)

water

d)

air

30.

The ratio of radioactive carbon to stable carbon does not change.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Uranium isotopes have been used to date the age of rocks.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

The product of a decay event is referred to as

a)

parent nuclide

b)

mother nuclide

c)

product nuclide

d)

daughter nuclide

33.

U-238 decays by alpha emission to form Th-234.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Pb-214 is formed by beta-emission of Po-218

a)

True

b)

False

35.

One of the following does not serve as a particle for carrying out artificial transmutation

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

alpha particles

36.

An example of a transuranium element is

a)

protactinium

b)

uranium

c)

curium

d)

dysprosium

37.

Mendelevium has been found in nature.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Formation of transuranium elements is accompanied by emission of a particle.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

U-235 can form U-236 when hit with a

a)

slow-moving electron

b)

slow-moving neutron

c)

slow-moving proton

d)

fast-moving neutron

40.

The most stable nuclei are those of

a)

large mass

b)

small mass

c)

mass > 200

d)

intermediate mass

41.

The burning of fossil fuels is a method of energy production.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

The fission process produces a large amount of energy.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

The fission process produces

a)

neutrons

b)

protons

c)

electrons

d)

positrons

44.

The radionuclide used in atomic bombs is

a)

uranium

b)

plutonium

c)

polonium

d)

beryllium

45.

U-235 splits into Kr and Ba.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Power plant control rods are often made of sodium.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

A fusion process that takes place in the sun involves:

a)

hydrogen forming lithium

b)

hydrogen forming helium

c)

hydrogen forming carbon + energy

d)

hydrogen forming helium + energy

48.

One disadvantage of using fusion reactions for energy is

a)

need for pure hydrogen

b)

combustibility of hydrogen

c)

high temperatures needed for fusion reactions

d)

reactivity of hydrogen as high temperatures

49.

Fusion can take place at room temperature and normal pressures.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Average exposure to background radiation is

a)

0.1 rem/yr

b)

0.5 rem/yr

c)

0.2 rem/yr

d)

0.8 rem/yr

51.

Tissue damage from radiation can result in all of the following except

a)

DNA mutations

b)

damage to living tissue

c)

cancer

d)

depression

52.

A Geiger counter detects tissue damage due to radiation.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

All of the following are problems associated with the use of radiation for cancer treatment except

a)

healthy tissue might be destroyed

b)

some cancer cells can become resistant

c)

there are no good radionuclides to use

d)

not all the cancer cells may be killed

54.

Nuclear radiation provides all the following benefits except

a)

killing food bacteria

b)

protecting crops from pesticide damage

c)

killing insects in food

d)

measuring fertilizer usage by plants

55.

Technetium-99 is used to detect skin cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

I-131 can be used to study thyroid problems.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Carbon has ____ valence electrons

a)

two

b)

four

c)

three

d)

five

58.

Carbon can readily form covalent bonds with all of the following except

a)

Li

b)

Cl

c)

H

d)

N

59.

Methionine contains sulfur covalently bonded to carbon.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Only living things can synthesize organic compounds.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

A hydrocarbon contains

a)

C, H, and O

b)

C, H, and N

c)

C and H

d)

C and O

62.

Hydrocarbons can be divided into three major classes.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

All of the following except one are ways to depict organic molecules

a)

ball-and-stick

b)

orbital-filling

c)

structural

d)

space-filling

64.

The molecule with the structure CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 is named

a)

ethane

b)

heptane

c)

butane

d)

pentane

65.

In naming branched-chain hydrocarbons, the first step is to

a)

identify the substituents

b)

find the longest chain

c)

number the carbon atoms

d)

list substituents in alphabetical order

66.

A chain with nine carbons is named nonane.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

The name 6-methyl-5-chloro-3-ethyldecane follows the IUPAC nomenclature rules.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

An unsaturated hydrocarbon contains less than the maximum number of

a)

carbon atoms

b)

hydrogen atoms

c)

halogen atoms

d)

oxygen atoms

69.

Carbon atoms in double bonds display trigonal planar geometry.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Alkynes with one triple bond have the general formula

a)

CnH2n-2

b)

CnH2n+2

c)

CnH2n

d)

CnH2n-1

71.

Carbon atoms in triple bonds are sp2 hybridized.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Geometric isomers have

a)

different molecular formulas

b)

different structural formulas

c)

different arrangement of atoms in space

d)

numbers of carbons

73.

Optical isomers are

a)

mirror images

b)

non-superimposable images

c)

non-superimposable mirror images

d)

superimposable mirror images

74.

Simple alkynes have geometric isomers.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

The physical and chemical properties of geometric isomers are usually different.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

The smallest cyclic hydrocarbon is

a)

cyclohexane

b)

cyclopropane

c)

cycloethane

d)

cyclobutane

77.

The bond angles for cyclobutane are

a)

60°

b)

108°

c)

109.5°

d)

90°

78.

The carbon atoms in cycloalkanes are ___ hybridized

a)

sp

b)

sp2

c)

sp3

d)

sp4

79.

Cycloalkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2

a)

True

b)

False

80.

The most common cycloalkanes have five or six carbons.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

The ideal bond angle for carbon is

a)

90°

b)

108°

c)

109.5°

d)

108.5°

82.

The most stable ring structure is

a)

hexane

b)

cyclopentane

c)

cycloheptane

d)

cyclopropane

83.

The boat form of cyclohexane is the preferred conformation.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The two cyclohexane conformations interconvert readily.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Electrons in the benzene ring are

a)

decoupled

b)

debonded

c)

delocalized

d)

delocated

86.

The true bonding between carbons in benzene is

a)

single bonds

b)

intermediate between single and double bonds

c)

double bonds

d)

moveable bonds

87.

Pi bonding electrons in benzene are fixed in space.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Benzene is less reactive than straight-chain hexenes.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Substituents in adjacent carbons in a benzene ring can be called

a)

ortho

b)

para

c)

meta

d)

dimet

90.

All of the following are naming rules for benzene derivatives except

a)

substituents in alphabetical order

b)

number the ring counterclockwise

c)

use the lowest number first

d)

separate numbers with commas

91.

The –NO2 group is called

a)

amino

b)

nitrous

c)

nitro

d)

nitrogen dioxide

92.

There are six carbons in a benzene ring.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

If there are two amino groups on a benzene ring, the terminology would be diamino.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Knowledge of functional groups is useful for all the following reasons except

a)

same type of reaction for all members of the functional group

b)

consistency in naming

c)

all reactions run under same conditions

d)

similar properties based on functional group

95.

Knowing the functional group allows prediction of reaction behavior.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

The general formula for an alkyl halide is

a)

R-Hal

b)

R-X

c)

R-Cl

d)

R-Y

97.

The generic formula for an ether is

a)

R-O-R

b)

R-O-O-R

c)

R-O-R'

d)

R-R'-O

98.

Alcohols all have a

a)

hydroxide group

b)

hydroxyl group

c)

hydroxide anion

d)

hydroxyl anion

99.

Aldehydes have a carboxyl group on the end of the carbon chain.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

The carboxyl group can ionize to form a carboxylate anion.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

The secondary alcohol has ___ R group(s) attached to the C-OH carbon

a)

two

b)

three

c)

one

d)

four

102.

For alkyl halides containing more than one type of halogen, the substituents are listed by

a)

lowest number first

b)

order in periodic

c)

alphabetical order

d)

increasing atomic mass

103.

The ending for aldehyde names is

a)

aldehyde

b)

al

c)

ol

d)

carbonyl

104.

The ending for names of carboxylic acid is "-oic acid".

a)

True

b)

False

105.

The carboxylic acid portion of an ester name comes first.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

A primary amine has two hydrogens attached to the N atom.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Ethylene glycol is commonly used as

a)

antifreeze

b)

antiseptic

c)

moistening agent

d)

hand sanitizer

108.

Aldehydes and ketones interact with water through

a)

strong H bonds

b)

dispersion forces

c)

weak hydrogen bonds

d)

ion-dipole interactions

109.

Benzoic acid is used as

a)

food flavoring

b)

food preservative

c)

paint manufacture

d)

production of adhesives

110.

Esters are responsible for many odors and flavors.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Amines do not form hydrogen bonds with water.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Ethers have much lower boiling points than the corresponding alcohols.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

In a chlorine-containing hydrocarbon, the chlorine can be replaced by

a)

H

b)

F

c)

Br

d)

I

114.

Hydrogen replacement on benzene by a halogen requires

a)

high temperatures

b)

high pressures

c)

iron catalyst

d)

magnesium catalyst

115.

Addition reactions take place on

a)

cyclic compounds

b)

saturated compounds

c)

amine compounds

d)

unsaturated compounds

116.

Addition of Br can be used to detect the presence of an unsaturated compound.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

AlCl3 is a catalyst for adding alkyl groups to benzene rings.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

When heated in the presence of an appropriate catalyst, an alkane is

a)

reduced to form an alkene

b)

oxidized to form an alkene

c)

reduced to form an alkyne

d)

oxidize to form an alkyne

119.

The oxidation of a tertiary alcohol yields

a)

a ketone

b)

no reaction

c)

an aldehyde

d)

a secondary alcohol

120.

Oxidation involves the addition or the removal of hydrogen.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

Oxidation of a primary alcohol produces a ketone.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

One of the molecules often removed in a condensation reaction is

a)

CO2

b)

NH3

c)

H2O

d)

O2

123.

The reaction between two amino acids forms a compound known as a

a)

monopeptide

b)

dipeptide

c)

tripeptide

d)

protein

124.

An ester is formed from a reaction between an alcohol and an acid.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

When heated with a strong acid, the ester breaks down.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

The small units that make up a polymer are called

a)

monoamines

b)

monomols

c)

monomers

d)

monopols

127.

Nylon-66 is made up of hexanediamine and

a)

adipic acid

b)

adoipic acid

c)

edipic acid

d)

aminic acid

128.

Monomers of addition polymers contain double bonds.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

Polyisoprene is a polymer of isoprenoic acid.

a)

True

b)

False

130.

Monomers of condensation polymers need two functional groups.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

The empirical formula for most carbohydrates is

a)

CHO

b)

C2HO

c)

CH2O

d)

CHO2

132.

Glucose and fructose are known as

a)

simple saccharides

b)

monosaccharides

c)

minisaccharides

d)

minor saccharides

133.

When glucose forms a cyclic compound the ________ group is no longer present.

a)

hydroxyl

b)

alcohol

c)

ketone

d)

aldehyde

134.

Glucose and fructose are hydrates of carbon.

a)

True

b)

False

135.

Fructose is found in fruits and honey.

a)

True

b)

False

136.

The straight-chain form of fructose is a ketone.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

Two monosaccharides can form a disaccharide by way of a

a)

addition reaction

b)

oxidation reaction

c)

condensation reaction

d)

substitution reaction

138.

When glucose and fructose combine, _______ is eliminated.

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

H2

d)

O2

139.

Glucose and fructose combine to form sucrose.

a)

True

b)

False

140.

The open-chain structures combine in the formation of a disaccharide.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

Sucrose is made up of the monosaccharides

a)

glucose + galactose

b)

glucose + maltose

c)

glucose + fructose

d)

glucose + ribose

142.

Lactose is made up of the monosaccharides

a)

glucose + galactose

b)

glucose + maltose

c)

glucose + fructose

d)

glucose + ribose

143.

Maltose is composed of two fructose monomers.

a)

True

b)

False

144.

Lactose is often referred to as milk sugar.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

Amylopectin is the branched form of

a)

starch

b)

cellulose

c)

glycogen

d)

glycerol

146.

Glycogen us a highly branched polysaccharide made of __________ monomers.

a)

fructose

b)

glucose

c)

galactose

d)

lactose

147.

Cellulose is only digestible by

a)

humans

b)

animals

c)

microorganisms

d)

cattle

148.

Starch is composed of galactose monomers.

a)

True

b)

False

149.

Termites digest cellulose.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

Amino acids contain all of the following except

a)

amino group

b)

halogen

c)

carboxyl group

d)

hydrogen

151.

All of the following statements about the amino acid R group are true except

a)

has the same structure for all amino acids

b)

varies from one amino acid to another

c)

some contain aliphatic structures

d)

some contain aromatic structures

152.

The R group is referred to as a side chain.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

There are 15 amino acids associated with living organisms.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

The abbreviation for the amino acids asparagine is

a)

Ala

b)

Asp

c)

Asn

d)

Arg

155.

The R group of lysine is

a)

basic

b)

acidic

c)

non-polar

d)

aromatic

156.

The side chain for aspartic acid is a carboxyl group.

a)

True

b)

False

157.

A peptide bond is another name for

a)

amine bond

b)

amide bond

c)

amino bond

d)

amido bond

158.

Amino acid sequences are written using all the following rules except

a)

free amino group on the left

b)

free carboxyl group on the right

c)

free amino group on the right

d)

amino acids listed in order

159.

Peptide bond formation is independent of R groups.

a)

True

b)

False

160.

His-Tyr indicates a dipeptide of histidine and tryptophan.

a)

True

b)

False

161.

A polypeptide is

a)

an amino acid sequence with five components or less

b)

any amino chain greater than four amino acids in length

c)

a sequence of ten or more amino acids

d)

a sequence of five or more amino acids

162.

One of the following is an example of secondary structure.

a)

alpha sheet

b)

beta helix

c)

gamma fold

d)

alpha helix

163.

Hydrogen bonding plays an important role in protein secondary structure.

a)

True

b)

False

164.

All of the following can function as cofactors for enzymes except

a)

iron

b)

vitamin B

c)

cyanide

d)

magnesium

165.

The first enzyme to be discovered was

a)

urease

b)

uricase

c)

urase

d)

uramase

166.

Chemical reactions in cells are catalyzed by enzymes.

a)

True

b)

False

167.

The shape of the substrate does not affect active site binding.

a)

True

b)

False

168.

Which one of the following is not a lipid?

a)

oil

b)

fat

c)

starch

d)

wax

169.

Glycerol is a

a)

triol

b)

trialcohol

c)

trione

d)

trialdehyde

170.

A fatty acid is ______ carbons in length

a)

5-8

b)

12-24

c)

15-30

d)

9-15

171.

Triglycerides are very water-soluble.

a)

True

b)

False

172.

Canola oil is obtained from plants.

a)

True

b)

False

173.

Triglycerides contain three fatty acids.

a)

True

b)

False

174.

A fat with one double bond is called

a)

saturated

b)

monosaturated

c)

monounsaturated

d)

polyunsaturated

175.

Food containing high amounts of saturated fats include

a)

nuts

b)

avocado

c)

olive oil

d)

cheese

176.

A saturated fat has no carbon-carbon double bonds.

a)

True

b)

False

177.

The phosphate group in a phospholipid

a)

provides biochemical energy to the body

b)

helps the phospholipid dissolve in water

c)

helps repel water

d)

interacts with they hydrophobic tail

178.

Long hydrocarbon chains in a phospholipid are polar.

a)

True

b)

False

179.

Lipid bilayers have channels that allow passage of ions.

a)

True

b)

False

180.

Carbohydrates are attached to some membrane proteins.

a)

True

b)

False

181.

Waxes are insoluble in water due to the

a)

long carbon chains

b)

ester functional group

c)

low melting point

d)

presence of carbonyl group

182.

Cetyl palmitate is found in

a)

hair

b)

plant leaves

c)

sperm whale

d)

feathers

183.

Waxes are soft solids.

a)

True

b)

False

184.

Beeswax is a natural wax.

a)

True

b)

False

185.

The major role of DNA is to

a)

provide structure to the cell

b)

carry genetic information

c)

synthesize proteins

d)

store energy for the cell

186.

The major role for RNA is to

a)

provide structure to the cell

b)

carry genetic information

c)

synthesize proteins

d)

store energy for the cell

187.

Friedrich Miescher discovered RNA and DNA in 1869.

a)

True

b)

False

188.

DNA and RNA are found in the cytoplasm of the cell.

a)

True

b)

False

189.

The carbohydrate in DNA is

a)

glucose

b)

deoxyglucose

c)

ribose

d)

deoxyribose

190.

The carbohydrate in RNA is

a)

glucose

b)

deoxyglucose

c)

ribose

d)

deoxyribose

191.

In RNA, uracil is replaced by thymine

a)

True

b)

False

192.

The bases adenine, guanine, and cytosine are found in both DNA and RNA.

a)

True

b)

False

193.

The DNA molecules consists of two chains wrapped in a double helix.

a)

True

b)

False

194.

The genetic code is a series of

a)

three-letter codes

b)

four-letter codes

c)

amino acid peptides

d)

amino acid code

195.

One stop code is

a)

TAT

b)

TAC

c)

TGA

d)

TGG

196.

Each triplet corresponds to a single amino acid.

a)

True

b)

False

197.

Amino acids each have one triplet that designates that amino acid.

a)

True

b)

False

198.

There are three stop codes.

a)

True

b)

False