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Micro Quiz 3

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What male organ is this?

(a)  

2.

What is the pair of erectile tissues?

a)

Corpora aranacea

b)

Corpora cavernosa

c)

Corpus spongiosum

d)

Tunica albuginea

3.

What dense, fibroelastic layer of the testis is this pointing to?

(a)  

4.

What structure of the testis is this?

a)

Vas deference

b)

Tunica albuginea

c)

Seminal vesicles

d)

Seminiferous tubules

5.

What is the epithelium present in the Vas Deference?

a)

Non Keratinized Stratified squamous

b)

Simple Columnar

c)

Pseudostratified Columnar

d)

Simple Cuboidal

6.

Which picture shows the Vas Deference?

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.

Which picture shows the male urethra?

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.

What tissue surrounds the urethra in the penis?

a)

Corpus spongiosum

b)

Corpora cavernosa

c)

Skeletal muscle

d)

Bulbourethral/Cowper's glands

9.

What is the shape of the left adrenal gland?

a)

Square

b)

Semilunar

c)

Triangular and slightly flattened

d)

Oval

10.

What is the shape of the right adrenal gland?

a)

Square

b)

Semilunar

c)

Triangular and slightly flattened

d)

Oval

11.

What region of the adrenal gland is larger by weight?

a)

The medulla

b)

The parenchyma

c)

The cortex

d)

The cord

12.

What embryonic tissue is the adrenal cortex derived from?

a)

Ecotderm

b)

Neural Crest Cells

c)

Endoderm

d)

Mesoderm

13.

What embryonic tissue is the adrenal medulla derived from?

a)

Ecotderm

b)

Neural Crest Cells

c)

Endoderm

d)

Mesoderm

14.

What is the primary secretory product of the adrenal cortex?

a)

Steroids

b)

Polypeptides

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Catecholamines

15.

What is the primary secretory product of the adrenal gland?

a)

Steroids

b)

Polypeptides

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Catecholamines

16.

What are the three hormone classes secreted by the adrenal cortex?

a)

Mineralcorticoids

b)

Glucocorticoids

c)

Catecholamines

d)

Androgens

e)

Epinephrine

17.

What is a mineralcorticoid produced by the zona glomerulosa?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Dopamine

d)

Prolactin

18.

What are the two main functions of aldosterone?

a)

Aids in controlling electrolyte homeostasis

b)

Stimulate masculinization

c)

Functions to maintain osmotic balance in the urine to prevent serum acidosis

d)

Promote removal of protein from skeletal muscle and its transport to liver

19.

What are glucocorticoids produced by the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Cortisol

c)

Corticosterone

d)

Somatostatin

20.

What gonadocorticoid is produced by the zona reticularis and zona fasciculata cells?

a)

Mineralcorticoids

b)

Glucocorticoids

c)

Catecholamines

d)

Androgens

e)

Epinephrine

21.

What two hormones are produced by the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Cortisol

22.

What are the three major arteries that supply the adrenal gland?

a)

Superior suprarenal artery

b)

Middle suprarenal artery

c)

Medial suprarenal artery

d)

Inferior suprarenal artery

23.

What blood supply is shared in the medulla of the adrenal gland?

a)

Venous blood from the medulla arterioles

b)

Arterial blood from the medulla arterioles

c)

Venous blood from the cortical sinusoidal capillaries that already supplied the cortex

d)

Arterial blood from the cortical sinusoidal capillaries that already supplied the cortex

24.

Where are the two places the lymphatics of the adrenal gland located?

a)

Capsule

b)

Connective tissue surrounding vessels in the gland

c)

Medulla

d)

Zona glomerulosa

25.

What is the main cell type in the medulla of the adrenal gland?

a)

Podocytes

b)

Enterocytes

c)

Parietal Cells

d)

Chromaffin Cells

26.

What product from the cortex of the adrenal gland converts norepinephrine to epinephrine in the chromaffin cells?

a)

Mineralcorticoids

b)

Glucocorticoids

c)

Catecholamines

d)

Androgens

e)

Epinephrine

27.

What cells in the medulla of the adrenal gland have axons that extend to the cortex to modulate secretory activity and innervate vessels and axons that extend outside the adrenal gland to abdominal organs?

a)

Chromaffin Cells

b)

Parietal Cells

c)

Ganglion Cells

d)

Podocytes

28.

What are the three zones of the adrenal cortex?

a)

Zona Reticularis

b)

Zona glomerulosa

c)

Zona pellucida

d)

Zona fasciculata

29.

What percentage of the adrenal cortex does the zona glomerulosa occupy?

a)

15%

b)

80%

c)

90%

d)

5%

30.

What percentage of the adrenal cortex does the zona reticularis occupy?

a)

15%

b)

80%

c)

90%

d)

5%

31.

What percentage of the adrenal cortex does the zona fasciculata occupy?

a)

15%

b)

80%

c)

90%

d)

5%

32.

What product is aldosterone produced from?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Lipids

c)

Triglycerides

d)

Cortisol

33.

What four sites does aldosterone cause reabsorption of sodium?

a)

Principle cells of the distal tubules of the kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Gastric mucosa

d)

Salivary

e)

Sweat glands

34.

What cells in the kidney are responsible for releasing renin?

a)

Juxtaglomerular Cells

b)

Paracoglomerular Cells

c)

Podocytes

d)

Who knows

35.

What are the steps in the renin-angiotensin aldosterone feedback mechanism?

a)

Juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney release renin in response to decreased blood pressure or low sodium

b)

Circulating renin converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2

c)

Angiotensin 2 stimulates the cells of zona glomerulosa to produce and secrete aldosterone

d)

As the blood pressure, sodium, and blood volume increase, the juxtaglomerular cells are inhibited

36.

What common medication is used to treat essential hypertension?

a)

ACE Inhibitors

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

An apple a day keeps the doctor away

37.

What is the name for the first menstrual period of a female in puberty?

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Menarche

c)

Pubarche

d)

Menopause

38.

How long is the average menstrual cycle?

a)

21 to 34 days

b)

45 to 55 days

c)

3 to 7 days

d)

10 to 20 days

39.

What is the average age range of onset of menopause?

a)

70 to 80 years old

b)

45 to 55 years old

c)

30 to 40 years old

d)

60 to 70 years old

40.

What is the name for the gametogenesis in females?

a)

Oogenesis

b)

Oophorectomy

c)

Spermatogenesis

d)

Oocyte

41.

What is the name for the developing gamete in females?

a)

Egg cell

b)

Oogonia

c)

Oocyte

d)

Ova

42.

What is the name for the mature gamete in females?

a)

Egg cell

b)

Oogonia

c)

Oocyte

d)

Ova

43.

What are the two primary hormones involved in steroidogenesis in females?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Testosterone

d)

Oxytocin

44.

What are the three functions of estrogen in the female reproductive system?

a)

Promote growth of the internal and external sex organs

b)

Responsible for female sex characteristics

c)

Acts on mammary glands to promote breast development (stimulate ductal and stromal growth and accumulation of adipose tissue)

d)

Promotes hair growth on the face and back

45.

What two functions does progesterone have in the female reproductive system?

a)

Prepare internal sex organs for pregnancy (secretory changes in endometrium)

b)

Responsible for female sex characteristics

c)

Promotes hair growth on the face and back

d)

Prepare mammary gland for lactation by promoting lobular proliferation

46.

What are the three attachments of the ovary?

a)

Broad ligament by a peritoneal fold called mesovarium - posterior

b)

Suspensory ligament (contains vessels and nerves) – superior

c)

Ovarian ligament (remnant of gubernaculum)- medial

d)

Ovarian ligament (remnant of gubernaculum)- inferior

47.

What would you expect the surface of the ovary to be in a female in puberty?

a)

Lobular and Scarred

b)

Bumpy

c)

Multilobulated

d)

Smooth

48.

What would you expect the surface of the ovary to be in a middle aged woman?

a)

Lobular and Scarred

b)

Bumpy

c)

Multilobulated

d)

Smooth

49.

What are the two distinct regions of the ovary?

a)

Cortex

b)

Stroma

c)

Capsule

d)

Medulla

50.

What part of the ovary would blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves most likely to be found?

a)

Cortex

b)

Stroma

c)

Capsule

d)

Medulla

51.

What type of cells is typically found in the germinal epithelium of ovary?

a)

Cuboidal to squamous

b)

Columnar to cuboidal

c)

Pseudostratified columnar to columnar

d)

Columnar to squamous

52.

From what component of the ovary do most malignancies arise from?

a)

The medulla

b)

The cortex

c)

The epithelial surface

d)

The follicle

53.

What percentage of ovarian tumors arise in the epithelial surface?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

90%

d)

70%

54.

What is the name for the dense connective tissue layer that lies between the germinal epithelium and the cortex of the ovary?

a)

Tunica albuginea

b)

Tunica vaginalis

c)

Tunica albicans

d)

Tunica corpus

55.

When does the first ovulation occur in menstruating females?

a)

Just prior to menarche

b)

One year after menarche

c)

Two years after menarche

d)

One year before menarche

56.

What are the three major stages of follicle development in an ovary based on morphology?

a)

Primordial follicles

b)

Primary and Secondary (Growing) follicles

c)

Graafian(Mature) follicles

d)

Germinal Follicles

57.

At what month do primordial follicles start appearing in development?

a)

12 months

b)

6 months

c)

3 months

d)

9 months

58.

Where in the mature ovary are the primordial follicles found?

a)

Cortex

b)

Medulla

c)

Stroma

d)

Surface epithelium

59.

What body is seen in primordial follicles of the ovary that represent an accumulation of Golgi membranes, ER, centrioles, mitochondria, and lysosomes?

a)

Bubble Buddies

b)

Meibomian bodies

c)

Balbiani bodies

d)

Herring bodies

60.

What is the name of the form extracellular coat found between the oocyte and follicle cells that secrete proteins?

a)

Zona pellucida

b)

Zona glomerulosa

c)

Zona fasciculata

d)

Zona reticularis

61.

What is the secondary spermatozoa-binding protein produced by the zona pellucida?

a)

AP-1

b)

ZP-3

c)

ZP-9

d)

ZP-6

62.

What is the name for follicle cells in the stratum granulosum?

a)

Granulosa cells

b)

Epithelium cells

c)

Zona pellucida

d)

Stromal cells

63.

What is the name of the connective tissue cells or sheath that form the thecal layers of the primary follicle?

a)

Zona folliculi

b)

Granulosa folliculi

c)

Thecal folliculi

d)

Ovarian folliculi

64.

What component of the thecal folliculi possess LH hormone receptors and secrete androgens that are precursors to estrogen?

a)

Tunica intermedia

b)

Theca externa

c)

Theca interna

d)

Seca interna

65.

What three factors are required for an oocyte and follicular growth?

a)

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

b)

Growth factors

c)

Progesterone

d)

Calcium ions

66.

What is the name for a thickened mound of granulosa cells associated with the oocyte which projects into the antrum of a mature Graafian follicle?

a)

Corona Radiata

b)

Cumulus Oophorus

c)

Theca Interna

d)

Zona Pellucida

67.

What is the name for the cells of the cumulus oophorus that immediately surround the oocyte and remain during ovulation?

a)

Corona Radiata

b)

Zona Pellucida

c)

Juxtaglomerular Cells

d)

Call-Exner Bodies

68.

What bodies may be seen between the granulosa cells that are PAS positive and are secreted by the granulosa cells?

a)

Corona Radiata

b)

Zona Pellucida

c)

Juxtaglomerular Cells

d)

Call-Exner Bodies

69.

What morphologic changes does a mature Graafian follicle undergo to prepare for ovulation?

a)

Mitotic activity of granulosa cells decrease

b)

The space between the granulosa cells continue to enlarge

c)

The oocyte and cumulus cells loosen from the rest of the granulosa cells

d)

The cumulus cells form a single layer around the oocyte (corona radiata) which remain with the oocyte during ovulation

e)

The thecal layer becomes more prominent

70.

When does the first meiotic division of the primary oocyte occur after a LH surge?

a)

7 to 14 days

b)

12 to 24 hours

c)

12 to 24 days

d)

21 to 34 days

71.

Which cells in the ovary go through a luteinization and produce progesterone?

a)

Follicular cells

b)

Surface epithelium

c)

Granulosa Cells

d)

Thecal cells

72.

Where is the most common place for an ectopic pregnancy to occur?

a)

Ovary

b)

Bladder

c)

Abdominal Wall

d)

Fallopian Tube

73.

How long can the 1st meiotic prophase be arrested for in oogenesis?

a)

45 to 55 years

b)

10 to 30 years

c)

12 to 50 years

d)

16 to 40 years

74.

During what part of meiosis is the 2nd oocyte arrested in oogenesis?

a)

Telephase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Metaphase I

75.

What is the name of the process where granulosa cells and theca interna layers differentiate into granulosa luteal cells and theca luteal cells, demonstrating an increase in size and lipid droplets?

a)

Maturation

b)

Luteinization

c)

Haploidization

d)

Capacitation

76.

What three hormones do granulosa cells secrete?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Inhibin

c)

Estrogen

d)

Progesterone

77.

What two hormones do theca lutein cells secrete?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Androgens

d)

Inhibin

78.

How long does a corpus luteum remain active if no fertilization takes place?

a)

7 days

b)

14 days

c)

34 days

d)

5 days

79.

What area must spermatozoa penetrate to gain access to the zona pellucida?

a)

Serosa

b)

Corona Radiata

c)

Surface epithelium

d)

Who knows

80.

What reaction takes place when spermatozoa bind to the ovary receptors of the zona pellucida?

a)

Capacitation

b)

Acrosome Reaction

c)

Mitosis

d)

Meiosis

81.

What two arterial blood supplies support the ovary?

a)

Ovarian Arteries

b)

Uterine Arteries

c)

Renal arteries

d)

Aorta

82.

What is the name of the vascular plexus of veins in the ovarian hilum?

a)

Pampiniform Plexus

b)

Ovarian arteriole plexus

c)

Uterine arteriole plexus

d)

Renal arteriole plexus

83.

Where are the lymphatics found in the ovary?

a)

Medulla

b)

Stroma

c)

Capsule

d)

Cortex

84.

What nerve plexus innervates the ovary?

a)

Autonomic Ovarian Plexus (Sympathetic Nerve Fibers)

b)

Autonomic Ovarian Plexus (Parasympathetic Nerve Fibers)

c)

Autonomic Ovarian Plexus (Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Nerve Fibers)

d)

Autonomic Reproductive Plexus (Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Nerve Fibers)

85.

What are the three cyclic changes seen in the endometrium?

a)

Proliferative

b)

Secretory

c)

Menstrual

d)

Reproductive

86.

What layer of the endometrium sloughs off during menstruation?

a)

Stratum basale

b)

Stratum decidua

c)

Stratum capsularis

d)

Stratum functionale

87.

What are the two layers of the endometrium?

a)

Stratum basale

b)

Stratum decidua

c)

Stratum capsularis

d)

Stratum functionale

88.

How many layers of smooth muscle are present in the myometrium of the uterus?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

89.

What are the three primary layers of the uterus?

a)

Serosa

b)

Endometrium

c)

Myometrium

d)

Ectometrium

90.

Where is the most common site for fertilization to occur in the fallopian tube?

a)

Ampulla near the junction of the isthmus

b)

Isthmus

c)

Infundibulum

d)

Intramural Component

91.

What are the three layers of the fallopian tube?

a)

Serosa

b)

Muscularis

c)

Adventitia

d)

Mucosa

92.

What areas of the fallopian tube are ciliated cells more prevalent?

a)

Isthmus

b)

Infundibulum

c)

Ampulla

d)

Intramural Component

93.

What cells are found in the mucosal layer of the fallopian tube?

a)

Ciliated columnar cells

b)

Ciliated cuboidal cells

c)

Non-Ciliated columnar cells

d)

Ciliated pseudostratified cells

94.

What are the major components of the male reproductive system?

a)

External genitalia containing the penis and scrotum

b)

Accessory sex glands

c)

Testes

d)

Genital excurrent ducts

95.

What are the accessory sex glands of the male reproductive system?

a)

Seminal vesicles

b)

Prostate

c)

Bladder

d)

Bulbourethral glands

96.

What are the two primary functions of the testis?

a)

Spermatogenesis

b)

Gametogenesis

c)

Organogenesis

d)

Steroidgenesis

97.

What are the primary locations that produce androgens in females?

a)

Ovaries

b)

Adrenal glands

c)

Pituitary Gland

d)

Fat Cells

e)

Skin cells

98.

What are the clinical signs and symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) resulting from free testosterone in females?

a)

Masculinization

b)

Irregular or absent menstrual periods

c)

Infertility

d)

Prediabetes and Type 2 diabetes

e)

Overweight or Obese

99.

What are some virilizing effects associated with high androgen production in females?

a)

Acne

b)

Hirsutism

c)

Increased muscle mass

d)

Thinning of hair on the head

100.

What are the two principle androgens?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Testosterone

c)

Androstenedione

d)

Progesterone

101.

What androgen is essential for spermatogenesis and male sexual dimorphism?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Testosterone

c)

Androstenedione

d)

Progesterone

102.

An increase in androstenedione is most suggestive of what lesions in the adrenal gland?

a)

Adrenal tumor

b)

Adrenal cancer

c)

Adrenal hyperplasia

d)

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

103.

How does cell division occur during production of male gametes?

a)

Mitosis/normal division

b)

Meiosis/reduction division

c)

Meiosis/normal division

d)

Mitosis/reduction division

104.

What week in gestation do testes develop?

a)

Week 1

b)

Week 3

c)

Week 5

d)

Week 7

105.

What gene is responsible for determining make sex?

a)

SOX-9

b)

SRY

c)

SF-1

d)

WT-1

106.

What condition presents as XY females with gonadal dysgenesis with functional female genitalia and no ovaries?

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

De la Chapelle Syndrome

c)

Waterhouse Friderichsen Syndrome

d)

Swyer Syndrome

107.

What rare congenital intersex condition presents as 46 XX karyotype (otherwise associated with females) that has phenotypically male characteristics that can vary among cases?

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

De la Chapelle Syndrome

c)

Waterhouse Friderichsen Syndrome

d)

Swyer Syndrome

108.

What gene is required for the development of the urogenital system and regulation of the SRY transcription?

a)

SOX-9

b)

DAX-1

c)

SF-1

d)

WT-1

109.

What gene mutation is present in children with familial Wilms tumor and in children with genitourinary malformations?

a)

SOX-9

b)

DAX-1

c)

SF-1

d)

WT-1

110.

What gene is linked formation of ambiguous or female sex organs in a genetically male individual (46, XY)?

a)

SOX-9

b)

DAX-1

c)

SF-1

d)

WT-1

111.

What gene is responsible for the expression of several steroidogenic genes that result in a variety of male sex malformations?

a)

SOX-9

b)

DAX-1

c)

SF-1

d)

WT-1

112.

Activation of what receptor suppresses the SRY gene during gonadal sex differentiation and its mutation is responsible for congenital adrenal hypoplasia?

a)

SOX-9

b)

DAX-1

c)

SF-1

d)

WT-1

113.

What are the three primary embryologic tissues the testicles are derived from?

a)

Neuroectoderm

b)

Intermediate mesoderm

c)

Mesodermal epithelium

d)

Primordial germ cells

114.

Regardless of the genetic or gonadal sex, the external genitalia will develop along the female template without the presence of what hormone?

a)

Somatostatin

b)

Testosterone

c)

Progesterone

d)

Dihydrotestosterone

115.

What hormone do the Leydig cells of the testicle secrete

a)

Somatostatin

b)

Testosterone

c)

Progesterone

d)

Dihydrotestosterone

116.

What are some of the principle effects of testosterone on the body?

a)

Differentiation CNS, genital apparatus, and genital excurrent duct system

b)

Growth and maintenance of secondary sexual characteristics

c)

Growth and maintenance of the accessory sex glands

d)

Anabolic and general metabolic processes

e)

Behavioral effects, including libido

117.

What week of gestation do testicles in males typically descend?

a)

Week 10

b)

Week 15

c)

Week 14

d)

Week 26

118.

What is the term for undescended testicles?

a)

Accretia

b)

Abruption

c)

Cryptorchidism

d)

Albinism

119.

What vascular system in the testes carries blood from the testis to the abdominal veins?

a)

Pampiniform Plexus

b)

Polio Plexus

c)

Peyer's Patches

d)

Testicular Fairy

120.

What muscle responds to changes in ambient temperature, contracting the testes closer to the abdominal wall, and its relaxation lowers the testes within the scrotum?

a)

Dartos Muscle

b)

Cremaster Muscle

c)

Detrusor Muscle

d)

Abdominal Muscle

121.

What smooth muscle of the scrotum contracts in cold temperatures and causes the scrotum to wrinkle when cold to help regulate heat loss?

a)

Dartos Muscle

b)

Cremaster Muscle

c)

Detrusor Muscle

d)

Abdominal Muscle

122.

Each lobule of the testis contains approximately how many seminiferous tubules?

a)

4 to 5

b)

1 to 4

c)

10 to 15

d)

50 to 60

123.

What glands produce an alkaline mucous-like secretion in response to sexual stimulation in the penis?

a)

Bulbourethral/Cowper's Glands

b)

Prostate

c)

Seminal vesicles

d)

The glans

124.

What is the pH of semen?

a)

7.0

b)

6.7

c)

7.7

d)

8.0

125.

Elevated serum PSA is often an indicator of what concerning disease condition?

a)

Bladder cancer

b)

Testicular cancer

c)

Something not good

d)

Prostate cancer

126.

What is the name of prostatic concretions that sometimes occur in the prostate glands of elderly patients?

a)

Corpora Aranacea

b)

Corpora Amylacea

c)

Corpora Cavernosa

d)

Corpus Spongiosum

127.

What part of the prostate ends at the urethra?

a)

Apex

b)

Base

c)

Peripheral

d)

Central

e)

Periurethral Zone

128.

What part of the prostate is represented by the bladder end?

a)

Apex

b)

Base

c)

Peripheral

d)

Central

e)

Periurethral Zone

129.

What zone of the prostate has the most glandular tissue

a)

Peripheral

b)

Central

c)

Transitional

d)

Periurethral

130.

What zone of the prostate is most likely to have cancer?

a)

Peripheral

b)

Central

c)

Transitional

d)

Periurethral

131.

What are the four zones of the prostate?

a)

Peripheral

b)

Central

c)

Transitional

d)

Periurethral

e)

Apex

132.

What type of epithelium is present in the seminal vesicles?

a)

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

b)

Stratified squamous epithelium

c)

Cuboidal epithelium

d)

Simple columnar epithelium

133.

What percentage of prostatic glandular tissue is found in the peripheral zone?

a)

20%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

90%

134.

What substance does the seminal vesicles secrete to sustain sperm?

a)

Maltose

b)

Sucrose

c)

Glucose

d)

Fructose

135.

Where do sperm acquire their motility?

a)

Seminal vesicles

b)

Vas Deferens

c)

Epididymis

d)

Seminiferous Tubules

136.

How many days on average does spermatogenesis take to complete all stages?

a)

30 days

b)

74 days

c)

90 days

d)

45 days

137.

What are the three major phases of spermatogenesis?

a)

Dormant phase

b)

Spermatogonial

c)

Spermatocyte

d)

Spermatid

138.

What insulin-like protein is secreted by the Leydig cells of the testis during embryologic development to stimulate the descent of the testis?

a)

INSL1

b)

INSL3

c)

INS1

d)

INS3