wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

BSCI330

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Vesicles are a common feature of eukaryotic cells. Which of the is FALSE about vesicles:

a)

they use cargo receptors to capture proteins being transported

b)

coat proteins on vesicle bind t-snares on target organelle

c)

they can be transported along microtubules using motor proteins

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

2.

Vesicles are a common feature of eukaryotic cells. Which of the is FALSE about vesicles:

a)

they use cargo receptors to capture proteins being transported

b)

Coat proteins facilitate fusion with target membrane

c)

they can be transported along microtubules using motor proteins

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

3.

Simple diffusion and transport -mediated diffusion are two kinds of passive transport. Which of the following statements describes simple diffusion but NOT transporter-mediated diffusion?

a)

Transporter kinetics shows a linear relationship with concentration

b)

Transport can occur against a concentration gradient

c)

Transport can be saturated

d)

All of the above

4.

Symporters are transporters that move:

a)

A single substance against its concentration gradient

b)

One substance up its concentration gradient and another substance down its concentration gradient

c)

Two different substances in the same direction

d)

Two different substances in opposite directions

5.

Which of the following is TRUE about a nuclear import sequence?

a)

It consists of at least 8 non-polar amino acids in a row

b)

It consists of an amphiphatic alpha helix

c)

It consists of at least 5 basic amino acids in a row

d)

It uses the amino acid sequence lysine-aspartic acid-glutamine acid-leucine (KDEL)

6.

The helicase is a crucial machine for DNA replication. Which of the following is true?

a)

It hydrolyzes ATP to unzip DNA

b)

It holds DNA polymerase on the template to ensure processivity

c)

It seals the gaps between Okazaki fragments

d)

It introduces a nick into DNA to relieve torsional stress

7.

Which of the following statements about the genetic code is TRUE?

a)

Some codons do not encode any amino acid

b)

Most amino acids are encoded by more than one codon

c)

The initiation codon establishes the reading frame for the ribosome

d)

Every possible codon has some function in translation

e)

All of the above

8.

Which of the following is NOT catalyzed by an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?

a)

Attachment of amino acid to AMP

b)

Attachment of amino acid to tRNA

c)

Proofreading to ensure the correct amino acid is attached to the tRNA

d)

Fromation of a peptide bond between two amino acids

e)

None of the above (i.e all are performed by the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase)

9.

Which of the following is TRUE about enzyme catalysis?

a)

Enzymes do not change the ∆G for a chemical reaction

b)

Enzymes increase the activation energy for a chemical reaction

c)

Enzyme shift the equilibrium point to increase product concnetration

d)

Enzymes increase the rate of the forward reaction but not the reverse reaction

e)

All of the above

10.

Many enzymes that perform redox reactions in cells require NAD+. The NAD+ would be considered

a)

An allosteric regulator

b)

A coenzyme

c)

A chaperone

d)

A motif

11.

Which of the following components of the protein synthesis pathway does NOT hydrolyze either ATP or GTP hydrolysis as part of its function?

a)

EF-Tu

b)

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

c)

eIF2

d)

Ribosome

12.

One measure of the binding interaction between a protein and its ligand is the dissociation constant, Kd. Which of the following is true about this value?

a)

The Kd, is equal to Koff/Kon

b)

The lower the Kd, the weaker the binding

c)

The higher the Kd, the faster the on rate for binding

d)

The lower the Kd, the faster the off rate for dissociation

e)

None of the above

13.

Which of the following is NOT a property of the homeodomain DNA binding motif?

a)

Contains 3 α-helices

b)

Contains a structure very similar to a helix-turn-helix

c)

Contains a zinc ion

d)

Makes contacts in both major and minor grooves of DNA

14.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for a molecular tunnel structure in an enzyme?

a)

It prevents the reaction intermediates from diffusing away

b)

It prevents reactive intermediate species from interacting with water

c)

It isolates toxic intermediate products from harming the cell

d)

It slows down the reaction to allow for greater regulation

e)

None of the above

15.

Vesicles are common feature of eukaryotic cells. Which of the following is TRUE about vesicles:

a)

They use cargo receptors to capture proteins being transported

b)

Coat proteins facilitate fusion with the target memebrane

c)

The RAB GTPase family regulates assembly and disassembly of the protein coat

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

16.

The SRP is important for which of the following processes

a)

Alternative splicing of RNA

b)

Gated transport of proteins

c)

Co-translational transport of proteins

d)

Regulation of actin polymerization

17.

Rabs and SNAREs are important for vesicular transport. Which of the following statements about these proteins are true?

a)

Rabs regulate coat protein disassembly and SNAREs regulate membrane fusion

b)

Rabs regulate vesicle trafficking and SNAREs regulate membrane fusion

c)

SNAREs regulate vesicle trafficking and Rabs regulation membrane fusion

d)

SNAREs regulate coat protein disassembly and Rabs regulate vesicle trafficking

18.

Phosphorylation of proteins is useful in regulation function because

a)

It is readily reversible, allowing proteins to be turned on or off quickly

b)

It can generate a new binding site for other proteins, allowing for new protein-protein interactions

c)

It can cause large shape changes, even allowing for pumping action

d)

All of the above

19.

Retrograde transport

a)

Is the transport or proteins from one side of a polarized cell to other side

b)

Is used to transport proteins from the outer mitochondrial membrane to the inner mitochondrial membrane

c)

Allows cargo receptors to be recovered from the Golgi and returned to the ER

d)

Is the process used during exocytosis of secreted proteins

20.

Degradation of proteins via the proteasome

a)

Requires ATP hydrolysis because the cleavage of a peptide bond is energetically

b)

Requires ATP hydrolysis to link ubiquitin to the target protein

c)

Requires GTP hydrolysis as a proofreading step

d)

All of the above

21.

Kinesins are motor proteins that

a)

Move from the plus end of the microfilaments towards the minus end

b)

Move from the minus end of the microfilaments towards the plus end

c)

Move from the plus end of the microtubules towards the minus end

d)

Move from the minus end of the microtubules towards the plus end

22.

What sets the limit of resolution for microscopy?

a)

Wavelength of the light

b)

Size of the lens

c)

Both

d)

Neither

23.

Why does an electron beam give more resolution than light

a)

The wavelength of an electron is much shorter than the wavelength of a photon

b)

Electrons are matter, not energy, and so are intrinsically different from photons

24.

Starch and cellulose are both polymers made up of glucose subunits. Why are we able to digest starch but not cellulose?

a)

Because starch is an energy storage molecule, but cellulose is a structural molecule

b)

We have enzymes that digest the α linkages of starch, but not the β linkages of cellulose

25.

What do we actually mean by a “spontaneous” reaction?

a)

A reaction that will occur without a net addition of energy​

b)

A reaction that occurs immediately when the reactants are mixed together

c)

Both

26.

Which of the following would you expect to diffuse freely through the plasma membrane?

a)

Water molecule

b)

Steroid hormones

c)

Glucose

d)

All of the above

27.

Animal cells lack a cell wall. What will happen if animal cells are placed in a highly hypotonic environment?

a)

They will shrink as water flows out

b)

They will expand until they burst

c)

Nothing - animal cells are capable of regulating water flow in and out

28.

Prokaryotes do not contain a nucleus. What does that tell us about their DNA?

a)

It floats around freely in the cytoplasm

b)

There might be some organized nucleus-like structure but it is not bounded by a membrane

29.

Which structure(s) would you expect to find in a prokaryotic chromosome?

a)

Telomere

b)

Centromere

c)

Origin of Replication

d)

All of the above

30.

Does the Central Dogma apply to all cases of biological information?

a)

Yes - as far as we know it is a universal law

b)

No- there are well-known exceptions

31.

What is a result of the "degenerate" nature of the genetic code?

a)

For a given RNA sequence there may be more than one protein sequence

b)

For a given protein sequence there may be more than one RNA sequence

32.

Does an in-frame stop codon always terminate translation?

a)

Yes - that is why they are called stop codons

b)

No - there are circumstances where a stop codon is translated to insert an amino acid

33.

You are studying a protein that is turned on by phosphorylation at a specific serine residue. What do you expect would happen if the serine is mutated to aspartic acid?

a)

It would become impossible for the protein to be turned on

b)

The protein will always be turned on

34.

Which of the following represents the stronger protein-ligand interaction?

a)

Antibody binding to bacterial toxin with a Kd of 10-12 M

b)

Calmodulin binding to calcium with a Kd of 10-6 M

35.

What has happening to an enzyme if the Km was reduced?

a)

The amount of substrate required to half-saturate the enzyme was lowered

b)

a

The binding interaction between the enzyme and substrate became stronger

c)

Both

d)

Neither

36.

Which of the following inhibitors could be overcome by increasing the concentration of the enzyme’s usual substrate?

a)

sarin gas – binds to the catalytic site of acetylcholinesterase and phosphorylates a critical serine residue, inhibiting the catalytic function

b)

methotrexate – binds to the catalytic site of dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits folate from binding

c)

both, since both work by binding to the catalytic site

37.

Cell communication is like human communication. Which of the following is like paracrine signaling?

a)

A telephone conversation

b)

Talking with people at a cocktail party

c)

A radio announcement

d)

Talking to yourself

38.

How many different sequences could be recognized by dimerization of a TF that has 3 different pairing partners, A, B, and C?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

39.

This type of reaction combines two smaller molecules (such as two amino acids) to form a larger one.

a)

Condensation

b)

Hydrolysis

c)

Proteolysis

d)

Isomerization

40.

Which of the following is NOT a carbohydrate polymer?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Chitin

d)

phosphatidylcholine

41.

Which of these techniques has the HIGHEST level of resolution?

a)

Visible light microscopy

b)

Fluorescence Microscopy

c)

Scanning electron microscopy

d)

Confocal microscopy

42.

This class of covalent bond links two nucleotides in a nucleic acid

a)

Glycosidic Bond

b)

Phosphodiester bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Nucleotic bond

43.

Which of the following is NOT advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy?

a)

Ability to visualize in multiple colors

b)

Ability to visualize living cells

c)

Ability to visualize cells within intact tissue

d)

Ability to determine structure of macromolecular complexes

44.

DNA in the nucleus is packaged as chromatin. Which of the following statements about chromatin is FALSE?

a)

The basic unit of chromatin, the nucleosome, contains DNA wrapped around a histone octamer core

b)

he nuclear lamina serves as a scaffold for higher order chromatin structure

c)

Euchromatin contains DNA sequences that are not expressed, including the centromeres.

d)

Chromatin is a dynamic structure, which can condense and open as needed by the cell

45.

Which of the following statements about the plasma membrane of animal cells is TRUE?

a)

There is asymmetric distribution of phospholipids between the inner and outer leaflets

b)

The membrane is supported by a cellulose meshwork

c)

Sphingolipids are the most abundant type of lipids in the membrane

d)

There is little or no lateral diffusion of lipids within a leaflet of the membrane

e)

  All of the above answers are true

46.

This component of the plant cell wall forms a gel that provides resistance to compression. 

a)

Cellulose

b)

Pectin

c)

Lignin

d)

Remodeling enzymes

47.

Which of the following models describes the structure of the plasma membrane?

a)

  The endosymbiotic theory

b)

The induced fit model

c)

The central dogma

d)

The fluid mosaic model

48.

Which of the following statements about turgor pressure is FALSE?

a)

It is highest when the extracellular environment is hypotonic

b)

It relies on osmosis of water into the cell

c)

It provides rigidity to animal cells

d)

None of the above

49.

Which of the following statements about the nuclear membrane is TRUE?

a)

It is supported by the meshwork of the nuclear lamina

b)

It is continuous with the endoplamic reticulum

c)

It has a double-membrane (two lipid bilayers) structure

d)

 

All of the above

e)

None of the above

50.

Which of the following does not result from the amphipathic nature of phospholipids?

a)

Formation of lipid micelles

b)

 

Formation of lipid bilayers

c)

Formation of closed (e.g. spherical) membrane structures

d)

Ability of charged molecules to readily diffuse through membranes

e)

None of the above

51.

Which of the following statements about nuclear pores is TRUE?

a)

Ions and small molecules can diffuse freely through the pores, but larger molecules require active transport mechanisms to pass through the pores

b)

The pores allow unrestricted access to all molecules, large and small

c)

The pores are used to import substances into the nucleus, but export of materials out of the nucleus uses a different mechanism

d)

Nuclear pores open and close in response to changes in voltage across the nuclear membrane

52.

What is the function of the nucleolus?

a)

Ribosome assembly

b)

Protein translation

c)

 Initiation of DNA replication

d)

Regulation of transport into and out of the nucleus

53.

Which of the following statements about the genetic code is FALSE?

a)

AUG, the start codon, codes for methionine

b)

A three-base codon system contains 24 possible codons

c)

Multiple codons can encode for the same amino acid

d)

Stop codons do not code for amino acids

54.

Which of the following statements about ribosomes is TRUE?

a)

 

Ribosomes are surrounded by the ribosomal membrane

b)

Bacterial ribosomes are larger and more complex than eukaryotic ribosomes

c)

Ribosomes synthesize cytoplasmic proteins, but not secreted proteins

d)

The individual ribosome subunits are assembled in the nucleolus, a substructure of the nucleus

55.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Golgi apparatus?

a)

Modification of N-linked glycosylation on proteins

b)

Attachment of O-linked glycosylation to proteins

c)

Synthesis of carbohydrates

d)

Sorting of proteins to other organelles

e)

None of the above

56.

Which of the following is a function of the 5' methylguanosine cap?

a)

Protect the 5' end of the RNA from degradation in the cytosol

b)

Serve as a binding site for the ribosome

c)

Interact with the 3' poly-A tail to enhance translation

d)

All of the above

57.

Which of the following is a property of the inner mitochondrial membrane?

a)

 

It is folded into cristae

b)

It is rich in the unusual lipid cardiolipin

c)

TheIt contains the electron transport chain

d)

All of the above are true

e)

None of the above are true

58.

Which of the following is a property of RNA splicing?Splicing occurs in the cytosol after RNA is exported from the nucleus

a)

Splicing occurs in the cytosol after RNA is exported from the nucleus

b)

An RNA transcript can only be spliced in one way by any given cell type

c)

Alternative splicing can generate different protein sequences from the same original RNA sequence

d)

Most prokaryotic genes have introns that must be spliced out

59.

How is tRNA charged?

a)

It is covalently attached to AMP

b)

It is covalently attached to an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

c)

It is covalently attached to an amino acid

d)

 

All of the above

60.

Which of the following is true about the process of translation?

a)

GTP is hydrolyzed at several important steps

b)

The catalytic component of the ribosome is composed of RNA

c)

The translation initiation complex contains a special initiator tRNA

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

61.

Which of the following organelles is surrounded by a double-membrane (i.e. two complete lipid bilayers) structure?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

 Golgi apparatus

d)

Ribosome

62.

Which of the following is a possible property of a prokaryotic cell

a)

Proteins are synthesized by ribosomes

b)

Proteins are sorted to different cellular locations by the Golgi apparatus

c)

Cellular metabolism occurs in mitochondria

d)

All of the above

63.

The secondary structure of a protein is held together by which of the following?

a)

Non-covalent interactions between R-groups

b)

Peptide bonds between amino acids

c)

Hydrogen bonds between carbonyl and amine groups in the peptide backbone

d)

Disulfide bonds

64.

Which of the following will occur when an enzyme binds a competitive inhibitor?

a)

the Kd will increase but Vmax will not change

b)

 

The Vmax will decrease but Kd will not change

c)

 Kd will increase and Vmax will decrease

d)

There is not enough information to determine

65.

How are molecular pump proteins able to generate directional motion, when protein shape changes are reversible?

a)

By only moving substrates down a concentration gradient

b)

By always moving one substrate in one direction, and a second substrate in the opposite direction

c)

By coupling shape changes to ATP hydrolysis

d)

None of the above

66.

Which class of enzymes covalently add phosphate groups to proteins?

a)

Phosphatases

b)

Kinases

c)

Phosphorylases

d)

Tyrosinases

67.

A protein domain that is found in many related proteins is called a(n)

a)

motif

b)

exon

c)

Secondary structure

d)

None of the above

68.

Which of the following is true of enzyme catalysis?

a)

Enzymes speed up reactions by decreasing the free energy of the products

b)

 

Enzymes speed up reactions by decreasing the activation energy

c)

Enzymes speed up reactions by destabilizing the intermediate states

d)

All of the above are true

69.

Which of the following describes an allosteric regulator?

a)

Aspirin inhibits the enzyme COX-2 by covalently binding to the active site

b)

cAMP activates protein kinase A by binding to a regulatory site distinct from the active site

c)

cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase by binding to the active site

d)

 

All of the above

e)

 

None of the above

70.

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the domain structure of proteins?

a)

Proteins may contain multiple independently functioning parts

b)

Proteins are modular in nature

c)

Protein structures are rigid and inflexible

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

71.

Which of the following contributes to the affinity of protein binding to a ligand?

a)

Charge-charge interactions

b)

 

Having multiple contacts

c)

Having complementary shapes

d)

All of the above

72.

Which of the following is NOT true about protein folding?

a)

It occurs spontaneously

b)

It results in the lowest energy state for the protein

c)

It sometimes requires assistance from a chaperone protein

d)

 

It always requires an input of energy

73.

Which of the following occurs when an enzyme binds a non-competitive inhibitor?

a)

The Kd will increase but Vmax will not change

b)

The Vmax will decrease but Kd will not change

c)

The Vmax will decrease but Kd will not change

d)

There is not enough information

74.

Which of the following statements about enzymes is FALSE

a)

Enzymes do not change the ∆G for a chemical reaction

b)

Enzymes cannot change the equilibrium ratio of reactants and products

c)

Enzymes can convert a non-spontaneous reaction to a spontaneous reaction

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

75.

An allosteric regulator of an enzyme

a)

Binds to a site away from the active site

b)

Causes a shape change in the enzyme that affects enzyme function

c)

 

Binds non-covalently to an enzyme

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

76.

Which of the following is FALSE about signaling molecules?

a)

The effect of a signaling molecule depends on the cell type on which it is acting.

b)

Cells typically need signals to stay alive.

c)

The concentration of a signaling molecule is not important for the cellular response.

d)

There are signaling molecules that can cross cell membranes.Microfibers

77.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of G-protein-coupled receptor mediated signaling?

a)

GPCRs bind to hydrophobic ligands and translocate to the nucleus

b)

GPCRs contain transmembrane domains

c)

Ligand binding on GPCRs causes exchange of GDP for GTP in trimeric G-proteins

d)

Cyclic AMP may serve as a second messenger downstream of GPCRs

78.

Which of the following accurately describes how signaling molecules act in autocrine signaling?

a)

Signaling molecule acts on the same cell that secreted it

b)

Signaling molecule acts on neighboring cells

c)

Signaling molecule enters the bloodstream and acts on distant cells

d)

None of the above

79.

The second messenger inositol trisphosphate (IP3) causes calcium ions to:

a)

Be pumped from the cytosol to the ER

b)

Be secreted from the cell

c)

Be released from the ER

d)

None of the above

80.

Which of the following is an advantage of a kinase cascade?

a)

Amplifies signal during the process of transduction

b)

Slows signal transduction to prolong signal

c)

uses less energy than a non-cascade pathway

d)

None of the above

81.

Which of the following is a function of molecular tunnels in enzymes?

a)

Helps prevent intermediate products from diffusing away

b)

Prevents reactive intermediates from interacting with the aqueous environment

c)

Ensures that multi-step reactions occur in the correct order

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

82.

Steroid hormones

a)

 

Signal via G-protein-coupled receptors

b)

Bind cytosolic receptors and induce nuclear translocation

c)

Are hydrophilic molecules that cannot cross the plasma membrane

d)

All of the above

83.

Which of the following is TRUE about zinc finger proteins?

a)

Multiple zinc finger domains can be strung together to recognize a long sequence.

b)

All zinc finger proteins recognize the same DNA sequence.

c)

Some zinc finger proteins do not coordinate a zinc ion.

d)

Zinc finger proteins generally bind carbohydrates.

84.

True or False: Most gene regulatory proteins make contacts with the minor groove of DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

True or False: You can create a whole sheep from the nucleus of one of its skin cells by combining that nucleus with an egg cell without a nucleus.

Correct!

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Regulation at the drosophila 'Eve' gene exemplifies complex control regions that:

a)

Can be found in plants and animals

b)

Can respond to many different inputs, and integrate this information

c)

Can produce a complex spatial and temporal output as development proceeds

d)

All of the above

87.

Which of the following accurately describes how a cell can control the proteins it makes?

a)

  RNA processing

b)

Transcriptional

c)

Protein activity

d)

All of the above

88.

Which of the following does NOT accurately describe riboswitches:

a)

Their function is enhanced by DNA polymerase

b)

They are particularly common in bacteria

c)

They are often located near the 5' end of mRNAs

d)

They change their conformation upon binding small molecules

89.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of epigenetic inheritance?

a)

Methylation of DNA on CpG sequences

b)

Positive feedback loop maintaining expression of a protein

c)

Removal of introns during RNA splicing

d)

Modification of chromatin structure by acetylation of histones

90.

Which of the following is a function of an IRES?

a)

Allows the ribosome to bind to an internal sequence instead of the 5' cap

b)

  Represses translation by preventing ribosome binding

c)

Causes rapid protein degradation by the proteasome

d)

inhibits translation by inactivating initiation factor eIF2

91.

Which of the following is involved in the siRNA pathway but NOT the microRNA pathway?

a)

Slicer

b)

Dicer

c)

RISC

d)

RITS complex

92.

The 5' UTR, but NOT the 3' UTR, may be involved in regulating translation.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Which of the following receptors is involved in retrograde transport from the Golgi to the ER?

a)

KDEL receptor

b)

Mannose 6-phosphate receptor

c)

PIP-3 receptor

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

94.

Which of the following is an example of transmembrane transport?

a)

Transport of a protein from the cytosol to the nucleus

b)

Transport of a protein from the cytosol to the ER

c)

 

Transport of a protein from the Golgi apparatus to the endosomes

d)

Transport of a protein from the ER to the Golgi apparatus

e)

All of the above

95.

Which of the following is required for transport of a protein from the cytosol into the mitochondrial matrix?

a)

Signal recognition particle

b)

COPII

c)

TOM

d)

Ran

96.

Which of the following compartments is topologically similar to the ER?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Exterior of the cell

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

97.

Which of the following is NOT true about an ER signal sequence?

a)

It forms an amphipathic alpha helix

b)

It contains at least 8 non-polar amino acids in a row

c)

It is generally at the N-terminus of the protein

d)

 

It is recognized by the SRP

98.

Which of the following is NOT required for export of a protein from the nucleus to the cytosol?

a)

 

Ran-GDP

b)

 

Ran-GTP

c)

Nuclear export receptor

d)

None of the above

99.

Which of the following is a role for v-SNARE?

Correct!

a)

Interacts with t-SNARE on target membrane to initiate vesicle fusion

b)

Interacts with t-SNARE on vesicle to initiate fusion with target membrane

c)

Interacts with t-SNARE on plasma membrane to initiate endocytosis

d)

All of the above

100.

Which of the following is a feature of regulated secretion?

a)

Concentration of cargo in a specialize vesicle

b)

Vesicle fusion with plasma membraane

c)

Secretion depends on signals from outside the cell

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

101.

Antiporters are transporters that move:

a)

Two different substances in the same direction

b)

 

Two different substances in opposite directions

c)

A single substance against its concentration gradient

d)

A single substance down its concentration gradient

102.

Which of the following molecules CANNOT simply diffuse across a lipid bilayer

a)

O2

b)

chloride ions

c)

Cortisol

d)

CO2

103.

Which of the following statements about actin monomers is TRUE?

a)

Actin monomers bind GTP

b)

Actin monomers are composed of alpha and beta actin

c)

 Actin monomers are known as F actin

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

104.

Which of the following statements about cytoskeletal proteins is FALSE?

a)

The cytoskeleton is essentially static and does not change over the lifetime of a cell

b)

The cytoskeleton provides structural support to the cell and its internal components

c)

Cytoskeletal proteins like actin and tubulin are highly conserved over evolution

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

105.

Which of the following is true of kinesins?

a)

They move from minus end to plus end on microtubules

b)

They move from minus end to plus end on microfilaments

c)

They move from plus end to minus end on microtubules

d)

They move from plus end to minus end on microfilaments

106.

Which of the following is TRUE about DNA replication?

a)

The lagging strand is synthesized as one continuous strand

b)

The DNA helicase is loaded on the lagging strand template

c)

Okazaki fragments are synthesized on the leading strand

d)

Loading of the sliding clamp on DNA does not require ATP

107.

The semiconservative nature of DNA replication means that some parts of a DNA molecule are replicated and other parts are not.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Which of the following does NOT contribute to reducing the error rate of DNA replication?

a)

 5' to 3' replication

b)

strand-directed mismatch repair

c)

nuclear membrane

d)

 

3' to 5' exonucleolytic proofreading

109.

Activation of the Rho GTPase leads to bundling of actin microfilaments into a structure called:

a)

stress fibers

b)

microfibers

c)

microspikes

d)

pseudofilaments

110.

Which of the following is NOT a role for actin-myosin complexes?

a)

Contractile ring in cytokinesis

b)

Separation of chromosomes in mitosis

c)

 Muscle contraction

d)

Movement of vesicles in the cytoplasm

e)

None of the above (i.e. all are functions)

111.

The addition of nucleotides by DNA polymerase during DNA synthesis requires a primer.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

A question on beer: Which of the following is true about the production of alcohol by fermentation?

a)

Glucose is converted to glycogen

b)

Pyruvate is converted to ethanol

c)

A net of 4 ATP is produced per glucose molecule

d)

It only occurs in the presence of oxygen

e)

 All of the above

113.

Which of the following is true of photosynthesis?

a)

Light reactions lead to the production of ATP and NADPH

b)

Dark reactions can only occur in the absence of light

c)

Dark reactions can only occur in the absence of light

d)

The reactions all occur in the thylakoid space

e)

The reactions all occur in the thylakoid space

114.

Which of the following is NOT an example of substrate-level phosphorylation?

a)

 

Generation of ATP during glycolysis

b)

Generation of GTP during the citric acid cycle

c)

Generation of ATP by ATP synthase via chemiosmosis

d)

None of the above (i.e. all are substrate-level phosphorylation)

115.

True or false: Glycolysis occurs in mitochondria

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Which of the following is a property of metabolic cycles (such as the citric acid cycle)?

a)

Allow multiple points of entry, so a variety of substrates can be utilized

b)

Allow multiple points of regulation

c)

Generate new biomolecules that can be used by the cell

d)

All of the above

117.

Which of the following is NOT a common feature of glucose oxidation and photosynthesis?

a)

Both use proton gradients to generate ATP

b)

Both involve the reduction of NAD+ to NADH

c)

Both utilize electron transport chains

d)

Both use metabolic cycles

e)

 

None of the above (i.e. all are common to both processes)

118.

At what point in photosynthesis is water split?

a)

During the light reactions, as the final electron acceptor for the first electron transport chain

b)

During the light reactions, to replace the electrons lost by Photosystem II

c)

During the dark reactions, to fix carbon dioxide

d)

During the dark reactions, to oxidize NADPH

119.

Which of the following metabolic steps requires the expenditure of energy?

a)

Activating glucose by phosphorylation

b)

Transporting pyruvate from the cytosol into the mitochondrion

c)

Fixing carbon in the Calvin cycle

d)

All of the above

120.

What is the role of molecular oxygen during glucose metabolism?

a)

Oxidation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to generate NADH

b)

Oxidation of pyruvate to generate acetyl CoA

c)

Final electron acceptor for the electron transport chain

d)

 

All of the above

121.

Which of the following is the location of an electron transport chain?

a)

Thylakoid membrane

b)

Outer mitochondrial membrane

c)

Mitochondrial matrix

d)

Chloroplast stroma

e)

All of the above

122.

True or False - Ribosomal RNA acts as a ribozyme, catalyzing peptide bond formation in protein synthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

Which of the following is true of both ribozymes and proteins?

a)

They often work by positioning metal ions at the active sites.

b)

They can have secondary structure.

c)

They can directly guide the formation of copies of their own sequence.

d)

A & B

e)

A, B and C

124.

Which of the following is NOT a hypothesis of the origins of life?

a)

Replication first

b)

Compartmentalization first

c)

Metabolism first

d)

Everything first

e)

None of the above

125.

When miRNA or siRNA associate with the Argonaute proteins, which complex is generated?

a)

 

A primer

b)

A ribozyme

c)

A guide RNA

d)

None of the above

126.

Which of the following is a potential outcome of homologous recombination?

a)

Repair broken replication forks

b)

Repair double-strand breaks

c)

Cause chromosomal crossovers

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

127.

DNA-only transposons require which enzyme(s) to move from one location to another?

a)

integrase

b)

transposase

c)

 

DNA polymerase

d)

All of the above

128.

Which type of transposon(s) uses an endonuclease-nick mechanism to move?

a)

 DNA-only transposon

b)

retrovirus-like retrotransposon

c)

non-retrovirus-like retrotransposon

d)

All of the above

129.

Which is TRUE about both retroviral-like retrotransposons and nonretroviral retrotransposons?

a)

They both have long terminal repeats (LTRs).

b)

They both require integrase for movement.

c)

They both move as DNA.

d)

 They both require reverse transcriptase for movement.

130.

Which of the following may be a result of transposon activity?

a)

Corn kernel color variegation

b)

Spreading of bacterial antibiotic resistance

c)

F1 hybrid sterility in fruit flies

d)

All of the above

e)

 None of the above

131.

Metastasis is a particularly difficult problem to tackle in cancers. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cancer metastases? 

a)

  They can be detected using the fact that cancer cells consume more glucose than other cells in the vicinity.

b)

Cells that metastasize use extracellular proteases to cut through the extracellular matrix as they move from one place to another.

c)

They can move long distances through capillaries.

d)

They always move to pre-designated places inside an organism

132.

True/False – Even in the absence of any harmful agents, the longer we live the greater our chance of getting cancer.  

a)

True

b)

False

133.

True or False: Formation of the mitotic spindle is essential for chromosome segregation in eukaryotic cells.

a)

True

b)

False

134.

Which of the following adhesion molecules is independent of calcium ions?

a)

E-cadherin

b)

L-selectin

c)

LFA-1 (an integrin)

d)

  All of the above

e)

  None of the above

135.

What kind of feedback loop ensures robust start of events during the cell cycle.

a)

 Circular

b)

Negative

c)

Positive

d)

None fo the above

136.

Polarized cells have defined apical and basolateral surfaces. Which type of junction prevents diffusion of proteins between these surfaces?

a)

 Desmosomes

b)

Tight Junction

c)

Gap Junctions

d)

None of the above

137.

Which of the following is a major regulatory transition or checkpoint that occurs during the cell cycle?

a)

Metaphase to anaphase transition

b)

G2/M checkpoint

c)

Start Checkpoint

d)

All of the above

138.

Which of the following is frequently mutated in cancer?

a)

Ras

b)

LacZ

c)

Rho

d)

Both a and c

139.

Which of the following kinds of mitotic microtubules bind to identical substrates at their plus ends?

a)

 Astral microtubules and kinetochore microtubules

b)

Interpolar microtubules and astral microtubules

c)

Kinetochore microtubules and interpolar microtubules

d)

None of the above

140.

True or false: Apoptosis, or 'programmed cell death' can be visualized in tissues using the TUNEL assay, which detects caspase activation.

a)

True

b)

False