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OBGYN FINAL

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

AFV evaluation is an important component of antepartum testing with either the BPP or NST.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Maternal diabetes, either type l or ll, results in an increased incidence of fetal anomalies.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Although it is seen in 1 in 8,000 live births, 98% of ___ conceptions result in miscarriage.

a)

noon an syndrome

b)

potter sequence

c)

monosomy X

d)

pterygium syndrome

4.

What is hemoglobin molecule in the blood responsible for?

a)

producing antibodies

b)

good WBC count

c)

transporting deoxygenated blood into the body

d)

transporting oxygen to the body

5.

The most common acquired thrombophilia is

a)

Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)

b)

Potter syndrome

c)

Cleft foot

d)

Sirenomelia

6.

The effect of viral, bacterial, or parasitic infections on the fetus does not depend on gestational age of the fetus.

a)

False

b)

True

7.

Multiple gestations in general are considered high-risk pregnancies, accounting for almost 10% of all perinatal morbidity and mortality.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Single in upper body and double in lower body, or joined by some body part is a classification of what type of conjoined twin?

a)

Terata Anadidyma

b)

Renal agenesis

c)

Renal ectopic

9.

The addition of genetic information to the chromosome, which occurs during meiosis is called:

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Insertion

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mitosis

10.

Although most cases are sporadic with normal karotypes, ____ to ____ are autosomal dominant in nature and demonstrates translocations, inversions, and/or duplications of chromosome 11.

a)

5% 10%

b)

10% 15%

c)

15% 20%

11.

Umbilical Doppler waveforms should be taken when:

a)

Fetal breathing is seen

b)

Fetal breathing is absent

c)

Fetal tone is seen

d)

Fetal movements are seen

12.

Apert syndrome is characterized by:

a)

Premature fusion of the skull bones

b)

Rupture of the amnion

c)

Fusion of the upper kidney poles

d)

Incomplete development of ears and nose

13.

Perinatal infections account for 2% to 3% of all congenital anomalies.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What is the acronym VACTERAL stand for?

a)

Vertebral defects

b)

Anorectal atresia

c)

Cardiac anomalies

d)

TE fistula

e)

Renal Limb anomalies

15.

What bacterial infection increases prematurity?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

STD

c)

Gonorrhea

d)

HIV

16.

What 3 chromosomal abnormalities increases a fetus’s risk for IUGR?

a)

Trisomy 13 (Patu syndrome)

b)

Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)

c)

Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

d)

Trisomy 13 (potter syndrome)

17.

Preeclampsia is described as hypertension, and protein in the urine, occurring during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

The most apparent ultrasound finding with Aicardi syndrome is ectopic cordis.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

A common cause of IUGR is what?

a)

Placental abnormalities

b)

Maternal diseases

c)

Tobacco

d)

Alcohol

20.

What is the transmission of the genetic code from parent to offspring?

a)

DNA

b)

Inheritance

c)

blood type

21.

A glucose tolerance test is normally performed between weeks 24 and 28.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

What two categories can IUGR be classified in?

a)

Bisymmetric

b)

Asymmetric

c)

Symmetric

23.

Adverse effects of growth restrictions occur during both the prenatal and post natal life.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

In what weeks should a woman undergo biochemical screening if it not done in the first trimester?

a)

12 to 13 weeks

b)

12 to 15 weeks

c)

15 to 25 weeks

d)

15 to 20 weeks

25.

Macroglossia, anterior wall defects, hypoglycemia at birth, macrosmia, hemihyperplasia are findings of what syndrome?

a)

Beckwith-Weidmann syndrome

b)

TD

c)

Potter syndrome

26.

The most apparent ultrasound finding with Aicardi syndrome is agenesis of corpus callosum .

a)

true

b)

false

27.

How are maternal infections passed to the fetus?

a)

Genital Tract and reproductive system

b)

Genital Tract and circulatory system

c)

Genital Tract and respiratory system

d)

Genital Tract and endocrine system

28.

_____ Is done with fetal growth assessments, NST, BPP, Doppler, and amniotic fluid volume.

a)

AFI

b)

IUGR

c)

Antenatal surveillance

d)

Prenatal surveillance

29.

What does XX means?

a)

Girl

b)

Boy

c)

Who knows

30.

Results in two cells with half the normal haploid number of chromosomes.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Exsosomes

31.

Cyanotic heart disease results in premature birth, IUGR, and miscarriages, because?

a)

Low oxygen

b)

High cholesterol

c)

Low BP

32.

When there is a higher risk IUGR, ultrasound should be the primary modality used to screen for fetal growth abnormalities.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

What does BPP stand for?

a)

Biophysiological profile

b)

Basophiles profile

c)

Biophysical profile

d)

Biophilic profile

34.

Meckel-Gruber syndrome is rare and characterized by:

a)

encephalocele

b)

renal dysplasia

c)

ectopic cordis

d)

limb anomalies

35.

An IUGR fetus is defined as a sonography EFW less than the ______ percentile for gestational age.

a)

12th

b)

10th

c)

15th

d)

11th

36.

________ results in two cells with the normal haploid number of chromosomes.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

37.

_________ is a grouping of 5 maternal infections related to congenital anomalies

a)

VACTERAL

b)

IUGR

c)

TORCH

d)

PID

38.

All of the following measurements calculate EFW except:

a)

AFI

b)

HC

c)

FL

d)

BPD

39.

Holt-Oram Syndrome is characterized by:

a)

Lower Limbs and Heart

b)

Cranium and Abdomen

c)

Upper limbs and Heart

d)

Heart only

40.

Toxemia of pregnancy is a second-trimester disease characterize by maternal edema, hypertension, proteinuria, and central nervous system irritability.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Heparin can have what effect on a fetus:

a)

Microcephaly

b)

Absence of thumbs

c)

Cerebral hemorrhage

d)

Oral cleft

42.

Maternal hypertension in pregnancy is one of the leading causes of IUGR.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

After 20 weeks of gestation, a fundal height difference greater than _____ cm is suspicious for growth restriction?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

44.

Absence of 1 of the two sex chromosomes is known as ________?

a)

Turner syndrome

b)

TD

c)

Potter syndrome

d)

IUGR

45.

Triploidy is the Lack of an extra set of chromosomes?

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The major physiologic function of the placenta is to exchange gas, nutients, love product between the maternal and fetal circulations.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The major physiologic function of the placenta is to exchange gas, nutrients, and waste between the maternal and fetal circulations.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

A battledore placenta refers to the insertion of the umbilical cord ___________ of the placenta.

a)

at the margin

b)

at the center

c)

at the superior portion

d)

near the basal surface

49.

A chorioangioma appears as a solid or complex circumscribed mass protruding from the fetal surface of the placenta.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The yolk sac has diminished to less than 5 mm in diameter by 9 weeks

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Complications of placenta previa may include

a)

premature delivery

b)

postpartum hemorrhage

c)

maternal hemorrhage

d)

All of the above

52.

Membranous insertion of the umbilical cord refers to:

a)

velamentous placenta

b)

battledore

c)

cirmcumvallate

d)

vasa previa

53.

A paraumbilical defect (usually on the right) involving all layers of the abdominal wall is called gastrochisis.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

If a single umbilical artery is seen, the sonographer should search for which one of the following?

a)

Neural tube defect

b)

Esophageal atresia

c)

Genitourinary defect

d)

Abdominal wall defect

55.

Craniosynostosis may be defined as which one of the following?

a)

Premature closure of the cranial sutures

b)

Wide cranial sutures

c)

Overlapping cranial sutures

d)

Protrusion of the meninges outside the sutures

56.

The most common neck mass is the cystic hygroma colli (lymphatic obstruction).

a)

True

b)

False

57.

A vein of Galen aneurysm is a sporadic event, demonstrating an enlarged vein communicating with a normal artery.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Menigomyeloceles are associated with

a)

Arnolda-Chiari syndrome

b)

Club foot

c)

Spina bifida

d)

Omphalocele

59.

Agenesis of the corpus callosum is associate with

a)

Schizencephaly

b)

Craniostenosis

c)

Dandy-Walker malformation

d)

absence of the cavum septi pellucidi

60.

Arnold-Chiari malformation demonstrates a ______cerebellum and scalloping frontal bones producing a ______ head.

a)

banana & lemon-shaped

b)

barbell & strawberry-shaped

c)

clover leaf & lemon-shaped

d)

lemon & strawberry shaped

61.

Renal agenesis means a virtual absence of one or both kidneys.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Out of the three types of holoprosencephaly, which is most severe?

a)

semilobar

b)

lobar

c)

alobar

63.

Meckel-Gruber syndrome is characterized by an encephalocele, polydactyly, and polycystic kidneys.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Herniation through the foramen of Bochdalek is usually found on which portion of the diaphragm?

a)

Left

b)

Right

c)

Anterior

d)

Medial

65.

The supernumerary lobe of the lung is called which one of the following?

a)

Pulmonary hypoplasia

b)

Succenturiate lobe

c)

Anomalous lobe

d)

Pulmonary sequestration

66.

The adequacy of pulmonary development is probably the single least important determination for fetal viability.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

NIH is a group of conditions where hydrops is in the fetus but is not a result of fetomaternal blood incompatibility.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

The arterial blood of one twin pumped into the venous system of the other twin is called:

a)

twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

b)

vanishing twin

c)

acardiac anomaly

d)

semilobar holoprosencephaly

69.

The division of a fertilized egg 4 to 8 days after fertilization demonstrates:

a)

Dichorionic diamniotic twins

b)

Monochorionic diamniotic twins

c)

Dichorionic monoamniotic twins

d)

Monochorionic monoamniotic singleton

70.

_______ is a monochorionic twin pregnancy where one fetus develops w/o a heart or upper body?

a)

Stuck twin

b)

acardiac anomaly

c)

Conjoined twins

d)

Twin-to-twin transfusion

71.

Predictors of discordance in the growth of twins include all except which one of the following?

a)

Difference in estimated fetal weight greater than 20%

b)

Difference in biparietal diameter of 10 mm or greater

c)

Difference in abdominal circumference of 20 mm or greater

d)

Difference in femur length of 5 mm or greater

72.

U/S findings of fetal hydrops in an isoimmunized pregnancy include scalp edema, pleural effusion, & a thinning placenta

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Uterine arteriovenous malformation (AVM):

a)

usually involves the endometrium

b)

requires D&C

c)

usually involves the myometrium

d)

is always acquired, never congenital

74.

On ultrasound, the characteristics appearance of a degenerating leiomyoma is ___.

a)

anechoic

b)

homogenous

c)

heterogenous

d)

isoechoic

75.

In which of the following structures would a Gartner's duct cyst be found?

a)

vagina

b)

fundus

c)

body

d)

cervix

76.

In postmenopausal patients, an endometrial thickness of less than __mm reliably excludes an EM abnormality.

a)

8

b)

10

c)

4

d)

5

77.

In a patient after a hysterectomy, the normal vaginal cuff should not exceed __ centimeters (cm).

a)

3

b)

5.1

c)

2.1

d)

1

78.

Endometrial hypoplasia develops from which one of the following?

a)

unopposed estrogen stimulation

b)

unopposed progesterone stimulation

c)

FSH

d)

endometrial polyps

79.

Complications in delivery may occur w/ pregnancy if a fibroid is located in/near which one of the following structures

a)

pedunculated off the fundus

b)

near the cervix

c)

fundus

d)

near the ovary

80.

A benign invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium is known as which one of the following conditions?

a)

adenomyosis

b)

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

c)

Endomyosarcoma

d)

Endometriosis

81.

A 3-day postpartum woman c/o intense pelvic pain. Sonographically, the uterus appears hypoechoic w/ an irregular EM.

a)

Degenerating submucosal leiomyoma

b)

endometritis

c)

adenomyosis

d)

endometrial hyperplasia

82.

Which one of the following sonographic characteristics is the most common finding in endometrial carcinoma?

a)

Abnormal thinning of the EM, usually with irregular bleeding

b)

Abnormal thickening of the EM, usually w/ irregular bleeding in peri/postmenopausal women

c)

irregular bleeding

d)

heavy bleeding with a thickening of the myometrium

83.

Which one of the following is the most common site for a leiomyoma to occur?

a)

submucosal

b)

intramural

c)

subserosal

d)

pedunculated

84.

The thickened of the endometrium should be measured in which of the following planes?

a)

coronal

b)

oblique

c)

transverse

d)

longitudinal

85.

The size and shape of the normal uterus are related to all of the following except:

a)

family history

b)

age

c)

parity

d)

hormonal status

86.

The most common cause of uterine calcification is which one of the following?

a)

arcuate vessel calcification

b)

myomas

c)

adenomyosis

d)

endometritis

87.

Endometrial carcinoma is the most common gynecologic malignancy in North America.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Sirenomelia is an anomaly where fusion of the _______ occurs:

a)

upper extremities

b)

lower extremities

c)

upper and lower jaw

d)

cervical vertebrae

89.

Which one of the following anomalies is caused by an alkaline phosphatase deficiency?

a)

Achondrogenesis

b)

Congenital hypophosphatasia

c)

Diastrophic dysplasia

d)

Thanatophoric dysplasia

90.

__________demonstrates multiple fractures with hypomineralization of bone causing compression of the calvarium.

a)

Achondrogenesis

b)

Achondroplasia

c)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

d)

Thanatophoric dysplasia

91.

Rhizomelia is a shortening of the proximal portion of the extremity.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

_______ is associate with cloverleaf skull.

a)

Achondroplasia

b)

Congenital hypophosphatasia

c)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

d)

Thanatophoric dysplasia

93.

Another name for talipes is _______.

a)

clubfoot

b)

cleftfoot

c)

foot equinovarus

d)

inversion deformity

94.

Another name for Autosomal Recessive Polycystic kidney Disease is:

a)

Renal duplication

b)

Infantile polycystic disease

c)

Multicystic renal dysplasia

d)

Congenital hydronephrosis

95.

Which one of the following conditions develops if the lumen of the allantois persists while the urachus forms?

a)

Urachal sinus

b)

Urachal fistula

c)

Urachal cyst

d)

Exstrophy of the bladder

96.

Renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, and malformed hands & feet may be found in Potter's syndrome

a)

True

b)

False

97.

_______demonstrates a “keyhole” appearance on ultrasound.

a)

Posterior urethral valve obstruction

b)

UVJ obstruction

c)

UPJ obstruction

d)

Reflux of the ureter into the bladder

98.

A sonolucent band identified near the fetal anterior abdominal wall represents pseudoascites

a)

True

b)

False

99.

VACTERL is a group of anomalies associated with which atresia?

a)

duodenal

b)

anorectal

c)

jejunoileal

d)

esophageal

100.

"Double bubble" sign in Trisomy 21 fetus represents ___________.

a)

MCKD

b)

duodenal atresia

c)

Meconium ileus

d)

meningocele

101.

Meckel diverticulum is a remnant of the proximal part of the yolk sac that fails to degenerate & disappear.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

102.

The most dramatic finding in ectopia cordis is the presence of the heart outside of the thoracic cavity.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

103.

The herniation of an omphalocele is covered by a membrane that consists of the __________ and __________.

a)

amnion;chorion

b)

amnion;peritoneum

c)

chorion; Wharton's jelly

d)

amnion; Wharton's jelly

104.

Pentalogy of Cantrell has 5 defects: omphalocele,ectopia cordis,distal sternum defect,diaphragmatic hernia & pericardium

a)

True

b)

False

105.

An anomaly w/ large cranial defects, facial cleft, large body-wall defects, and limb abnormalities is called:

a)

Pentalogy of Cantrell

b)

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

c)

Limb-body wall complex

d)

Dandy-Walker malformation

106.

Cloacal exstrophy is a defect in the lower abdominal wall and anterior wall of the urinary bladder.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

A 19-week fetus with elevated MSAFP shows herniated, free-floating bowel loops, which most likely represent a(n)

a)

omphalocele

b)

gastroschisis

c)

jejunoileal atresia

d)

umbilical hernia

108.

The normal fetal lungs appear on ultrasound as which one of the following?

a)

heterogenous with moderate echogenicity

b)

homogenous with moderate echogenicity

c)

heterogenous and hypoechoic

d)

homogenous and hyperechoic

109.

Dandy-Walker malformation has post. fossa cyst, splaying of the cerebellar hemispheres, & agenesis of cerebellar vermis

a)

true

b)

false

110.

Anencephaly is the most common open neural tube defect.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

________ is the destruction of the cerebral hemispheres by the occlusion of the internal carotid arteries

a)

agenesis of the corpus callosum

b)

holoprosencephaly

c)

hydrocephalus

d)

hydranencephaly

112.

______ are scars within the uterus, secondary to previous gynecologic surgery

a)

uterine polyps

b)

adenomyosis

c)

amniotic bands

d)

synechiae