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MLS 1 MIDTERMS EXAM

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It tends to pose a greater threat than outsiders because they typically have both greater means and opportunity than an outsider.

a)

facility-wide risk assessment

b)

asset

c)

risk assessment

d)

insider

2.

Improving biorisk management by RECORDING, MEASURING and EVALUATING organizational actions and outcomes to reduce biorisk

a)

biorisk performance

b)

biorisk mitigation

c)

biorisk Assessment

d)

laboratory biosafety

3.

a person who has authorized access to a facility, its units (such as laboratories and its assets).

a)

insider

b)

outsider

c)

facility-wide risk assessment officer

d)

risk assessment officer

4.

analytical procedure designed to characterize security risks.

a)

biosecurity risk assessment

b)

laboratory biosafety

c)

biosafety risk assessment

d)

different risk evaluations

5.

a procedure that analyses a particular process or situation in order to determine the likelihood and consequences of a certain adverse event

a)

risk assessment

b)

risk evaluation

c)

threat assessment

d)

None of the above

6.

a person who does not have authorized access.

a)

insider

b)

outsider

c)

biorisk performance officer

d)

risk characterization officer

7.

Suitable for work involving laboratory animals infected with agents associated with human disease and pose moderate hazards to personnel and the environment

a)

BSL 2

b)

BSL 4

c)

BSL 1

d)

BSL 3

8.

Required for work with animals infected with dangerous and exotic agents that pose a high individual risk of aerosol-transmitted laboratory infections and life- threatening disease that is frequently fatal, for which there are no vaccines or treatments; or a related agent with unknown risk of transmission

a)

BSL 3

b)

BSL 4

c)

BSL 2

d)

BSL 1

9.

Risk group.


High individual risk, high community risk.

a)

WHO Risk group 3

b)

WHO Risk group 2

c)

WHO Risk group 1

d)

WHO Risk group 4

10.

Risk group


Microorganisms that's unlikely to cause human disease. E.g. E. coli

a)

WHO Risk group 1

b)

WHO Risk group 2

c)

WHO Risk group 3

d)

WHO Risk group 4

11.

Risk group


Moderate individual risk, low community risk

a)

WHO Risk group 2

b)

WHO Risk group 1

c)

WHO Risk group 4

d)

WHO Risk group 3

12.

Measures employed against theft or diversion by those who intend to pursue intentional misuse

a)

Containment

b)

Administrative controls

c)

Select agent

d)

Biosecurity

13.

Risk group, pathogen that can cause human or animal disease but is unlikely to be a serious hazard. e.g. Plasmodium, shigella, Hepa B virus

a)

WHO Risk group 4

b)

WHO Risk group 1

c)

WHO Risk group 3

d)

WHO Risk group 2

14.

Pathogens/microorganisms that are usually greatly hazardous to individual and animals but less harmful to community because these pathogens do not spread from person to person.

a)

Risk Group 3 (RG3)

b)

Risk Group 2 (RG2)

c)

Risk Group 1 (RG1)

d)

Risk Group 4 (RG 4)

15.

Dangerous, exotic or newly classified organisms

a)

Biosafety Level 3

b)

Biosafety Level 4

c)

Biosafety Level 2

d)

Biosafety Level 1

16.

Protecting pathogens from dangerous people

a)

Laboratory Biosafety

b)

Laboratory Biosecurity

c)

Biosafety Level 1

d)

Biosafety Level 3

17.

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

a)

Biosafety Level 3

b)

Biosafety Level 4

c)

Biosafety Level 2

d)

Biosafety Level 1

18.

Salmonella spp.

a)

Biosafety Level 3

b)

Biosafety Level 4

c)

Biosafety Level 2

d)

Biosafety Level 1

19.

It cannot cause infection to healty person

a)

Biosafety Level 3

b)

Biosafety Level 4

c)

Biosafety Level 2

d)

Biosafety Level 1

20.

Protecting people from dangerous pathogens

a)

Laboratory Biosafety

b)

Laboratory Biosecurity

c)

Biosafety Level 1

d)

Biosafety Level 3

21.

Bacillus subtilis

a)

Biosafety Level 3

b)

Biosafety Level 4

c)

Biosafety Level 2

d)

Biosafety Level 1

22.

Ebola virus

a)

Biosafety Level 3

b)

Biosafety Level 4

c)

Biosafety Level 2

d)

Biosafety Level 1

23.

Large independent laboratories that receive & test specimens from many different facilities

a)

Primary Laboratories

b)

Secondary Laboratories

c)

Special Laboratories

d)

Reference Laboratories

24.

Department found in larger laboratories Samples are examined for chromosomal deficiencies that relate to genetic disease.

a)

Cytogenetics

b)

Chemistry

c)

Histology

d)

Hematology

25.

This department of the laboratory prepares blood products to be used for patient transfusions. Blood components dispensed include whole blood (WB), platelets (Plts), packed red blood cells (RBCs), fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and cryoprecipitates (Cryo). Blood samples from all donors and the recipient must be carefully tested prior to transfusion so incompatibility and transfusion reactions can be avoided.

a)

Clinical Microscopy Department

b)

Microbiology Department

c)

Chemistry Department

d)

Blood Bank/Immnunohematology Department

26.

This department performs tests that identify diseases associated with blood and the blood-forming tissues. The most common test ordered is the Complete Blood Count. A CBC is actually a multipart assay reported on a form called a hemogram.

a)

Microbiology

b)

Chemistry

c)

Hematology

d)

Cytology

27.

classification of laboratories based on ownership that is not affiliated with a government body.

a)

free standing

b)

private

c)

institutionalized

28.

Operated and maintained, partially or wholly, by the national government, a local government unit, and other political units

a)

Government Laboratory

b)

Private Laboratory

c)

Hospital-based Laboratory

d)

Free standing Laboratory

29.

Brokenshire Integrated Health Ministries Incorporated Laboratory is an example of

a)

Clinical Pathology

b)

Anatomic Pathology

c)

Hospital-based Laboratory

d)

Free standing Laboratory

30.

The setting up of a primary laboratory is he initial step in establishing a clinical laboratory if the patients are from a small community, a barangay, or within the vicinity.

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

d)

Special Clinical Laboratory

31.

Caters to larger groups of community residents. Conventional Laboratory with Partially/Semi-automated Instruments

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

d)

Special Clinical Laboratory

32.

Offers Special Chemistry tests

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

d)

Special Clinical Laboratory

33.

Offers Immunological tests

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

d)

Special Clinical Laboratory

34.

Offers Bacterial Culture and Sensitivity

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

d)

Special Clinical Laboratory

35.

Check the following laboratory/laboratories that offer/s Routine Hematology

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

36.

Check the following laboratory/laboratories that offer/s Coagulation studies

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

37.

Check the following laboratory/laboratories that offer/s Routine Clinical Chemistry tests

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

38.

Check the following laboratory/laboratories that offer/s Routine Urinalysis and Fecalysis

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

39.

Provides the laboratory tests required for a particular service in institutions such as but not limited to dialysis centers and social hygiene clinicals

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

d)

Limited Service Capability

40.

A laboratory that offers highly specialized laboratory services that are usually not provided by a general clinical laboratory.

a)

Primary Laboratory

b)

Secondary Laboratory

c)

Tertiary Laboratory

d)

Special Clinical Laboratory

41.

Clinical Laboratory is managed by a Pathologist or Physician with 3 months training on:

a)

Clinical Laboratory Medicine

b)

Quality Control

c)

Laboratory Management

d)

Autopsy and Biopsy

42.

The working space for a Primary Clinical Laboratory is

a)

10 sq. m.

b)

20 sq. m.

c)

60 sq. m.

d)

50 sq. m.

43.

The working space for a laboratory that offers special hematological tests is

a)

10 sq. m.

b)

20 sq. m.

c)

60 sq. m.

d)

50 sq. m.

44.

National Reference Laboratory for Hematology and Coagulation

a)

National Kidney and Transplant Institute

b)

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine

c)

Lung Center of the Philippines

d)

East Avenue Medical Center

45.

National Reference Laboratory for Microbiology

a)

National Kidney and Transplant Institute

b)

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine

c)

Lung Center of the Philippines

d)

East Avenue Medical Center

46.

I. Laboratory Acquired infections is unique to laboratory workers, especially those in the microbiology laboratory workers, and can be considered as an occupational hazard.


II. Laboratory-acquired infections can also be caused by inappropriate laboratory facilities, such as hand faucet handles instead of foot-pedal faucets for hand washing sinks.

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

47.

I. Accidental exposures may be due to lapses in proper laboratory technique

II. Accidental exposures may be due to negligence of safety procedures

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

48.

Which of the following are the routes of exposure associated with laboratory work?

a)

Ingestion of contaminated food in the workplace

b)

Needlestick accidents during venipuncture

c)

Aerosol inhalation

d)

Contamination of the mucous membranes

49.

The microorganism enters the body through the mouth and settles in the small intestine. It causes inflammation and swelling, which may lead to abdominal pains, cramping, diarrhea, fever, and dehydration.

a)

ENTERIC INFECTION

b)

PHARYNGITIS

c)

CELLULITIS

d)

CONJUNCTIVITIS

50.

It is characterized by the inflammation of the liver caused by microorganisms (mostly viruses).

a)

ENTERIC INFECTION

b)

HEPATITIS

c)

CELLULITIS

d)

CONJUNCTIVITIS

51.

The microorganisms enter the body through inhalation of infectious aerosols and contamination of mucocutaneous lesions.

a)

ENTERIC INFECTION

b)

PHARYNGITIS

c)

CELLULITIS

d)

CONJUNCTIVITIS

52.

Bacterial infection of skin and/or the tissues beneath the skin (dermis and subcutaneous tissue)

a)

ENTERIC INFECTION

b)

PHARYNGITIS

c)

CELLULITIS

d)

CONJUNCTIVITIS

53.

Condition characterized by the inflammation of the outermost layer of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids (conjunctiva) caused by bacteria, viruses, and fungi

a)

ENTERIC INFECTION

b)

PHARYNGITIS

c)

CELLULITIS

d)

CONJUNCTIVITIS

54.

Blood-borne pathogen enters the body through an open lesion on the skin or mucous membrane or through a splash of infected blood or body fluid on the mucous membranes such as the mouth, eyes and nose.

a)

Direct contact

b)

Indirect contact

c)

Vector-borne transmission

d)

Air-borne transmission

55.

Most common cause of blood-borne laboratory acquired infection

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Hepatitis D

56.

An organism that does not cause disease itself but which spreads infection by conveying pathogens from one host to another.

a)

Pathogen

b)

Vector

c)

Host

d)

Co-host

57.

Also known as Breakbone fever because of its symptoms of intense joint and muscle pain.

a)

DENGUE FEVER

b)

VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVER

c)

MALARIAL FEVER

d)

FLU FEVER

58.

Infectious disease caused by Plasmodium spp., which is a parasite that infects red blood cells.

a)

DENGUE FEVER

b)

VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVER

c)

MALARIA

d)

FILARIASIS

59.

Tuberculosis is an infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs.

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Mycobacterium bovis

c)

Mycobacterium leprae

d)

All of the choices are correct

60.

I. Vectors are disease causing microorganism multiplies within the arthropod vector


II. Host is an organism who provide food and shelter for the pathogen

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

61.

I. Hepatits D Virus is a defective virus because it requires the presence of Hepatitis A Virus to replicate.


II. Hepatitis A Virus is considered dangerous because it is a “silent infection”, a person can be infected without knowing

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

62.

I.Hepatitis caused by alcohol and drugs is considered infectious hepatitis.


II. Hepatitis caused by microorganisms s is considered noninfectious hepatitis

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

63.

Hepatitis virus that can be contracted through blood-to-blood contact:

a)

Hepatitis A Virus

b)

Hepatitis B Virus

c)

Hepatitis C Virus

d)

Hepatitis D Virus

64.

I.Viral conjunctivitis which is also known as “pink eye”, is typically caused by Adenovirus.


II. Bacterial conjunctivitis is caused by Staphylococcus and Streptococcus spp.

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

65.

I. Coinfection occures when a person who is already chronically infected with Hepatitis B acquires Hepatitis D infection.


II. Superinfection occurs when a person is infected with Hepatitis D and Hepatitis B at the same time.

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

66.

A severe disease that represents the late stage of infection with the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which causes defective functioning of the body’s immune system

a)

ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

b)

ATTAINED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

c)

ATTAINED IMMUNODILUTED SYNDROME (AIDS)

d)

ACQUIRED IMMUNODEPRESSED SYNDROME (AIDS)

67.

I. When vector bites a host, pathogen is transmitted from the vector to the host, and the pathogen is transmitted when the arthropod takes a blood-meal.


II. Pathogen is a disease causing microorganism multiplies within the arthropod vector

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

68.

I. Sexual reproduction is process of creating new individual using two parent organisms


II. Asexual reproduction is process of creating new individual using two parent organisms

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

69.

I. Sexual reproduction is process of creating new individual using one parent organism


II. Asexual reproduction is process of creating new individual using one parent organism

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

70.

I. Needlestick injury is the most common cause of laboratory-acquired infections

II. The primary function of the phlebotomist is the collection of blood samples, which expose them to an increased risk of having needlestick injury.

a)

First statement is true

b)

Second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false