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Quiz on Unit 3

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. Which of the following earth dam is suitable only on impervious foundation?

a)

Zoned embankment type

b)

Homogenous embankment type

c)

Non-homogenous type

d)

Diaphragm type

2.

2. Which of the following zone in Zoned type embankment prevents piping through cracks?

a)

Central core

b)

Transition zone

c)

Outer zone

d)

Core wall

3.

3. Which embankment has the thickness of the diaphragm at an elevation less than 10 meters or the height of the embankment above the corresponding elevation?

a)

Diaphragm type dam

b)

Zoned type dam

c)

Non-homogenous earth dam

d)

Homogenous earth dam

4.

4. The blanket in earth dam is provided ___________________

a)

at the ground level on u/s side

b)

at the ground level on the d/s side

c)

at the ground level of the D/s side of the dam

d)

on the D/s slope

5.

5. Which of the following statement is correct with reference to earthen dams?

a)

These dams are very costly as compared to other types

b)

Gravity dams are less susceptible to failure as compared to rigid dams

c)

These dams are suitable for construction on almost every type of foundation

d)

Highly skilled labor is generally not required

6.

6. During the construction of an earthen dam by hydraulic fill method, development of pore pressure becomes important in the ________

a)

central impervious core

b)

pervious outer shell

c)

transition zone

d)

both central core and outer shell

7.

7. The process of laying and compacting earth in layers by power rollers under OMC for construction of earthen dams is known as ______________________

a)

Rolled fill method

b)

Hydraulic fill method

c)

OMC method

d)

Compaction

8.

8. The central core of the zoned embankment type earth dam ___________

a)

checks the seepage

b)

prevents piping

c)

gives stability to the central impervious fill

d)

distribute the load over a large area

9.

9. Which type of dam is suitable on shallow pervious foundations?

a)

Zoned embankment type

b)

Homogenous embankment type

c)

Both Non-homogenous type and homogenous type

d)

Diaphragm type

10.

10. What is the U.S.B.R recommended value for freeboard when the height of the dam is more than 60 m?

a)

2 m to 3 m

b)

2.5 m above the top of gates

c)

3 m above the top of gates

d)

More than 3 m

11.

11. What is the recommended formula for top width of a very low dam?

a)

H + 3

b)

0.2H + 3

c)

0.2 H

d)

H + 5

12.

12. Calculate the top width (a) of the earth dam of height 50 m

a)

5.0 m

b)

4.75 m

c)

6.10 m

d)

3 m

13.

13. A phreatic line in seepage analysis is defined as the line on which pressure is ________

a)

equal to the atmosphere

b)

greater than atmosphere

c)

lower than atmosphere

d)

varying

14.

14. Provision of horizontal berms at suitable vertical intervals may be provided in the downstream face of an earthen dam in order to _________

a)

allow the movement of cattle

b)

allow the inspection of vehicles to move

c)

reduce the erosion caused by the flowing rainwater

d)

increase the erosion

15.

15. During seepage through an earthen mass, the direction of seepage is ________________ to the equipotential lines.

a)

perpendicular

b)

parallel

c)

not defined

d)

diagonal

16.

16. The upstream face of the earth dam is considered as __________

a)

equipotential line

b)

streamline

c)

streak line

d)

path line

17.

17. Which of the following line acts as a dividing line between dry (or moist) and submerged line?

a) Equipotential line

a)

Equipotential line

b)

Path line

c)

Seepage line

d)

Streak line

18.

18. Stone pitching or riprap is generally provided to avoid __________

a)

over-topping

b)

erosion of U/s and d/s face

c)

cracking due to frost action

d)

gully formation

19.

19. Provision of sufficient freeboard eliminates _______________

i. Over-topping failure

ii. Erosion of U/s face

iii. Erosion of D/s face

iv. Cracking due to frost action

v. Gully formation


Which of the following is/are correct?

a)

i and v

b)

ii and iii

c)

iv and v

d)

i and iv

20.

20. The collection and removal of water before it acquires high downward velocities is ensured by provision of ___________

a)

berms

b)

freeboard

c)

burrow pits

d)

spoil banks

21.

21. Sloughing is the process of _________

a)

progressive erosion

b)

subsequent removal of soil grains from within the dam

c)

uncontrolled seepage through the dam body

d)

progressive removal of soil from the D/s face

22.

22. In foundation slide failure___________

a)

top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward forming large mud waves near the heel

b)

top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward forming large mud waves near the heel

c)

bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward forming large mud waves near the heel

d)

bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward forming large mud waves near the heel

23.

23. What is the most critical condition of slide of the U/s slope?

a)

The sudden drawdown of the reservoir

b)

Reservoir full condition

c)

Steady seepage condition

d)

Sudden drawdown and reservoir full condition

24.

24. In order to keep the saturation line in a canal embankment well within the toe, it is necessary to provide ___________

a)

spoil bank

b)

counter berm

c)

freeboard

d)

berm

25.

25. The safety valve of a dam is its _________

a)

drainage gallery

b)

inspection gallery

c)

spillway

d)

outlet sluices

26.

26. Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway and may be constructed on small bunds or thin arch dams?

a)

Straight drop spillway

b)

Ogee spillway

c)

Shaft spillway

d)

Siphon spillway

27.

27. The spillway can be best built independently of the dam when there is __________

a)

deep narrow gorge with steep slopes

b)

deep narrow gorge with gradual slopes

c)

wide gorge with a gradual slope

d)

wide valley with moderate slopes

28.

28. Which of the following is a secondary safety arrangement?

a)

Safety valves

b)

Spillway gates

c)

Subsidiary spillway

d)

Energy dissipaters

29.

29. Which of the following spillway is least suitable to earthen dams?

a)

Ogee spillway

b)

Chute spillway

c)

Side-channel spillways

d)

Shaft spillway

30.

30. If the operating head on an ogee spillway is more than the design head then __________

a)

the pressure on the crest will be zero

b)

the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation

c)

the pressure on the crest will be positive

d)

the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced

31.

31. In the functioning of an ogee spillway, the operating head _________

a)

frequently exceeds the design head

b)

rarely exceeds the design head

c)

never exceeds the design head

d)

has no connection with the design head

32.

32. If the head of the water over the spillway is less than the design head, then ____

a)

the pressure on the crest will be zero

b)

the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation

c)

the discharge coefficient of the spillway is increased

d)

the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced

33.

33. The spillway which can be called as an overflow spillway is essentially ___________

a)

an ogee spillway

b)

a shaft spillway

c)

a chute spillway

d)

a syphon spillway

34.

34. The W.E.S downstream profile of an ogee spillway can be represented by an equation:

 xn=K Hdn1yx^n=K\ H_d^{n-1}y  
Where x and y are the coordinates of the points on the crest profile and K and n for a vertical upstream spillway would respectively be___________________

a)

2.0 and 1.85

b)

0.5 and 1.85

c)

2.0 and 0.85

d)

0.5 and 0.85

35.

35. According to US Army Corps, the u/s profile of ogee spillway extends up to ________

a)

x = 1.27 Hd

b)

x = -1.27 Hd

c)

x = 0.431 Hd

d)

x = -0.431 Hd

36.

36. If the upstream face of the spillway is kept vertical, the crest shape should also confirm to the lower nappe of an inclined sharp-crested weir

a)

H

b)

H2

c)

H1/2

d)

H3/2

37.

37. When the crest of an ogee spillway is designed to be in accordance with the lower nappe of a free-falling water jet over a duly ventilated sharp-crested weir then theoretically

a)

The pressure on the spillway crest will be zero at design head only

b)

The pressure on the spillway crest will always be zero

c)

The pressure on the spillway crest will always be negative

d)

The pressure on the spillway crest will be always positive

38.

38. The velocity of approach has found to be negligible effect upon discharge if ____________

a)

the ratio H/Hd is more than 1.33

b)

the ratio H/Hd is less than 1.33

c)

the ratio H/Hd is equal to zero

d)

the ratio H/Hd is more than 1

39.

39. If a flood enters a dam reservoir at F.R.L, the efficiency of its ogee spillway will ______________

a)

increase with the increasing head

b)

reduce with the increasing head

c)

remain constant with the increasing head

d)

vary with the increasing head

40.

40. The downstream apron of the ogee spillway is found to have a negligible effect on the coefficient of discharge when the value of ________________

a)

(Hd + d) / He is less than 1.7

b)

(Hd + d) / He exceeds 1.7

c)

(Hd + d) / He is equal to 1

d)

(Hd + d) / He is less than 1.33

41.

41. What is the value of the pier abutment coefficient for pointed nose piers?

a)

0.1

b)

0.02

c)

0.01

d)

0.0

42.

42. What is the value of abutment contraction coefficient for square abutment with headwall perpendicular to the direction of flow?

a)

0.2

b)

0.1

c)

0.02

d)

0.01

43.

43. What is the assumption that is taken during the entire design of an overflow spillway?

a)

The upper and lower nappe is subjected to negative pressures

b)

The upper and lower nappe is subjected to full atmospheric pressure

c)

The upper and lower nappe is subjected to zero atmospheric pressure

d)

The upper and lower nappe is subjected to both positive and negative pressure

44.

44. Calculate the effective length of the spillway which consists of 6 spans having a clear width of 10 m each. The thickness of each pier may be taken as 2.5 m and the total design head on the crest including velocity head is 16.3 m. Assuming 90° cut water nose piers and rounded abutments.

a)

55 m

b)

60 m

c)

65 m

d)

75 m

45.

45. Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway which can be provided independently and at low costs?

a)

Ogee spillway

b)

Trough spillway

c)

Siphon spillway

d)

Saddle spillway

46.

46. The spillway which can be adopted with ease on gravity as well as earthen dams is ____

a)

ogee spillway

b)

chute spillway

c)

both ogee and chute spillway

d)

straight drop spillway

47.

47. The surplus reservoir water after spilling over the crest of the spillway flows on the chute is _________

a)

parallel to the crest in a trough spillway

b)

parallel to the crest in a side-channel spillway

c)

perpendicular to the crest in a side-channel spillway

d)

obliquely to the crest in a chute spillway

48.

48. The portion of a chute spillway which is known as its control structure is ________________

a)

low ogee weir

b)

chute channel

c)

approach channel leading the water from the reservoir to the ogee weir

d)

silting basin at its bottom

49.

49. The type of spillway which is provided on narrow valleys where no side flanks are available is _________________

a)

ogee spillway

b)

chute spillway

c)

side-channel spillway

d)

straight drop spillway

50.

50. Calculate the freeboard for the top levels of the side walls if the mean velocity of water in the chute reach is 3.5 m/s and the mean depth of water in the chute reach under consideration is 4.7 m

a)

0.60 m

b)

1 m

c)

0.85 m

d)

0.55 m

51.

51. The minimum slope of the chute is governed by the condition that _____________

a)

the subcritical flow must be maintained

b)

the supercritical flow must be maintained

c)

a critical flow must be maintained

d)

maybe supercritical or subcritical flow is possible

52.

52. A shaft spillway is located _______________________

a)

inside the body of a gravity dam

b)

inside the upstream reservoir

c)

inside the downstream reservoir

d)

on the side flanks of the main dam

53.

53. The siphons installed over overflow dams constitute what are known as __________________

a)

hooded type siphon spillway

b)

tilted outlet type siphon spillway

c)

discharge carriers

d)

baby siphons

54.

54. The only spillway among the following through which the discharge does not increase as fast as it increases in all others is _________________

a)

chute spillway

b)

side-channel spillway

c)

ogee spillway

d)

shaft spillway

55.

55. The only spillway among the following through which the discharge is almost at its capacity rate even from the start of its functioning is ________________

a)

chute spillway

b)

side-channel spillway

c)

ogee spillway

d)

siphon spillway

56.

56. An air vent is provided at FRL to break the siphoning action at that level in a ________

a)

hooded type of siphon spillway

b)

tilted outlet type of siphon spillway

c)

saddle siphon spillway

d)

volute siphon spillway

57.

57. The crest of a siphon spillway is fixed at ________________

a)

full reservoir level

b)

dead storage level

c)

maximum water level

d)

top of the dam

58.

58. A siphon spillway is sufficiently independent of the water surface elevation of the reservoir

a)

True

b)

False

59.

59. The allowable maximum negative head on an average is equal to __________

a)

2.5 m or so

b)

5 m or so

c)

7.5 m or so

d)

10 m or so

60.

60. The structure which is not used in a shaft spillway is ________________

a)

tunnel

b)

bridge

c)

radial gates

d)

radial piers

61.

61. Morning glory is the _________

a)

special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a dam of very small height

b)

special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a large dam project

c)

a horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway across the body of a gravity dam to carry surplus reservoir water to the d/s river

d)

a horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway of an earthen dam through its foundation to carry surplus reservoir water to the d/s river

62.

62. A siphon spillway in a concrete gravity dam is in the shape of ________________

a)

U-shape

b)

Inverted U-shape

c)

Horizontal bend through the abutment

d)

Any straight line

63.

63. The energy dissipation at the toe of the spillway is affected basically by the use of hydraulic jump in ____________

a)

roller bucket

b)

a ski-jump bucket

c)

a sloping apron below the downstream river bed

d)

both roller and ski-jump bucket

64.

64. The most ideal condition for energy dissipation in the design of spillways is the one when the tail-water rating curve coincides with the jump rating curve at all discharge

a)

True

b)

False

65.

65. When the tail-water depths in the river downstream of a spillway are quite low such that the tail-water curve at all discharges lies below the post jump depth curve, then the energy dissipation can be affected best by ________

a)

a roller bucket

b)

a ski-jump bucket

c)

either roller or ski-jump bucket

d)

a sloping apron

66.

66. The formation of hydraulic jump at the foot of a spillway is one of the common methods of energy dissipation because ____________

a)

it destroys more than 90% of total energy by the turbulence produced in the jump

b)

it reduces the kinetic energy by increasing the depth of flow

c)

its action is not understood

d)

it reduces the kinetic energy by decreasing the depth of flow

67.

67. The percentage of energy dissipation in a hydraulic jump increases with the increase in the Froude number

a)

True

b)

False

68.

68. Which of the following stilling basin help in stabilizing the flow and improve the jump performance?

a)

dentated sills

b)

chute blocks

c)

baffle piers

d)

friction blocks

69.

69. What is the expected solution for the case when the T.W.C is lying above the J.H.C curve at all discharges?

a)

By providing a simple concrete apron of length 5(Y1 – Y2)

b)

By providing a sloping apron above the river bed

c)

By providing a sloping apron below the river bed

d)

Provision of a ski-jump bucket

70.

70. A sloping apron is provided partly above the river bed and partly below the river bed in case ____________

a)

when TWC coincides with the JHC at all discharges

b)

when TWC lies above the JHC at all discharges

c)

when TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges

d)

when TWC lies above the JHC at low discharges and below the JHC at high discharges

71.

71. When the TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges, the problem can be solved by which of the following provisions?


i. Constructing a sloping apron above the river bed

ii. Provision of roller bucket type of energy dissipator

iii. Provision of a ski-jump bucket

iv. A sloping apron below the river bed

v. Construction of a subsidiary dam

vi. A sloping apron partly above and partly below the river bed

a)

i, iii and v

b)

i, ii and vi

c)

iii, iv and v

d)

i, iii, iv and v

72.

72. An oscillating hydraulic jump is normally met in cases of _____________

a)

weirs and barrages

b)

overflow spillways of dams

c)

weirs

d)

large spillways

73.

73. A very steady and stable hydraulic jump is usually formed in the flows involving the approaching Froude number in the range of _________

a)

less than 2.5

b)

2.5 to 4.5

c)

4.5 to 9.0

d)

more than 9.0

74.

74. Standard USBR stilling basin-II is useful for energy dissipation at the bottom of the overflow structure, if the approaching Froude number is ______

a)

less than 4.5

b)

less than 4.5

c)

less than 2.5

d)

more than 2.5

75.

75. When the Froude number is in the range of 2.5 to 4.5, the jump is _________

a)

weak and energy loss is low

b)

oscillating jump

c)

steady jump

d)

strong jump

76.

76. Which of the following stilling basin is applicable to only rectangular cross-sections?

a)

U.S.B.R stilling basin-II

b)

U.S.B.R stilling basin-IV

c)

U.S.B.R stilling basin-I

d)

U.S.B.R stilling basin-III

77.

77. The Froude number of a hydraulic jump is 5.5. The jump can be classified as ____________

a)

a weak jump

b)

an oscillating jump

c)

rough and choppy jump

d)

steady jump

78.

78. Standard stilling basin is provided at the toe of a dam spillway for energy dissipation is usually provided with auxiliary devices like chute blocks and dentated sills for the basic purpose of reducing the length of the stilling basin from about ______

a)

6 y2 to 4 y2

b)

4 y2 to 2 y2

c)

6 y2 to 2 y2

d)

3 y2 to y2

79.

79. In the case of dam spillways, the approaching Froude number usually lies in the range of __________

a)

less than 2.5 m

b)

2.5 – 4.5

c)

4.5 – 9.0

d)

more than 9.0

80.

_____________________ are suitable only for low spillways or weirs

a)

Chute blocks

b)

Sloping aprons

c)

Baffle wall or friction blocks

d)

Roller buckets

81.

81. An ogee spillway of a concrete gravity dam having FRL of 328 m and MWL of 340 m is provided with vertical gates between piers erected on the spillway. The effective length of the spillway is 60 m. The discharge through the spillway when gates are opened up to the actual reservoir level of 331.0 m will be_____________

a)

850 cumecs

b)

1700 cumecs

c)

2800 cumecs

d)

1000 cumecs

82.

82. Which of the following gate works on the principle of counterweights against the water pressure?

a)

Dropping shutters

b)

Stop logs and needles

c)

Stoney roller gate

d)

Drum gates

83.

83. ____________ are used only for very minor works

a)

Dropping gates

b)

Stop logs and needles

c)

Rectangular gates

d)

Drum gates

84.

84. Which of the following gate is not suitable for smaller spillways?

a)

Drum gates

b)

Radial gates

c)

Needles and stop logs

d)

Fixed roller gates

85.

85. The discharge passing over an ogee spillway per unit length of its apex line is proportional _____

a)

H

b)

H2

c)

H1/2

d)

H3/2