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Hazmat OPS Review

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 3hrs 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What level of training is required to don chemical protective clothing?

a)

Firefighter 1

b)

First Responder

c)

Haz Mat Awareness

d)

Haz Mat Operations

2.

Chemicals that are classified as ___can cause a severe allergic reaction.

a)

aspyxiants

b)

sensitizers

c)

irritants

d)

convulsants

3.

Which of the following resources are available for determining the concentrations of a released hazardous material in an endangered area?

a)

concentrations can be estimated using the Initial Emergency Responce Guide

b)

Monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that Haz Mat technicians are needed to operate this equipment.

c)

It is impossible to determine concentrations of hazardous materials

d)

Concentrations can be estimated by the odor of the leaking product.

4.

On pesticide labels for materials originating in Canada, the product will have a ____ which is similar to the EPA registration number in the U.S.

a)

Pest control number

b)

Poison control number

c)

DOT hazard class number

d)

UN identification number

5.

Federal agencies may be contacted and authorized for assistance at a terrorist activity by:

a)

requesting assistance from LEPC

b)

the Incident Commander

c)

the governor requesting Federal assistance

d)

requesting mutual aid

6.

Absorption is a defensive method of controlling a hazardous material spill by applying a material that will soak up and hold, or absorb, the spill

a)

true

b)

false

7.

Absorption generally requires that the operational personnel be in close proximity to the spill.

a)

true

b)

false

8.

Absorbent materials can react with certain hazardous substances.

a)

true

b)

false

9.

In the UN/DOT Marking System, Hazard Class 3 includes

a)

black powder

b)

gasoline

c)

ammonium nitrate

d)

magnesum

10.

The recommended course of action for fighting a small fire involving a substance identified by the UN/NAID number 2553 would be found in the ___section of the Emergency Response Guidbook.

a)

blue

b)

orange

c)

white

d)

green

11.

All personnel and equipment exposed to hazardous materials are also contaminated.

a)

true

b)

false

12.

The primary type of harm associated with biological terrorism is

a)

thermal

b)

asphyxiation

c)

etiological (causing or contributing to the development of a disease or condition.)

d)

mechanical

13.

Dilution of liquid materials has few practical applications at the Haz Mat incident

a)

true

b)

false

14.

A Level II Incident that is beyond the normal capabilities of the first responder having jurisdiction and may require a response from:

a)

Chemtrec

b)

a hazardous material response team

c)

the National Radiological Commission

d)

the National Response Center

15.

____ is comprised of those procedures taken to keep a material in a defined or local area.

a)

containment

b)

diversion

c)

confinement

d)

dispersion

16.

The shape of this container that is located at a fixed facility would indicate it probably contains a

a)

cryogenic

b)

poison gas

c)

solid waste

d)

combustible liquid

17.

The proper cargo tank truck to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid is an:

a)

MC 306/DOT 406

b)

MC 307/DOT 407

c)

MC 312/DOT 412

d)

MC 331

18.

A process by which one substance combines with a second substance is called:

a)

absorption

b)

dispersion

c)

suppression

d)

diversion

19.

The type of breathing system that cannot be utilized in an oxygen deficient atmosphere is a(n):

a)

supplied-air respirator

b)

rebreather equipment

c)

air-purification respirator

d)

SCBA

20.

(Excessive heat disorders) Heat exhaustion occurs because the body is unable to dissipate excessive heat and becomes overheated.

a)

true

b)

false

21.

(Exessive heat disorders) Heat stroke results from the failure of the temperature-regulating capacity of the body.

a)

true

b)

false

22.

(exessive heat disorders) Both heat exhaustion and heat stroke are immediate life-threatening conditions.

a)

true

b)

false

23.

When considering personnel protection, remember that the most common route of expsure for an emergency responder is:

a)

skin absorption

b)

the eyes

c)

heat stress (thermal effects...)

d)

the respiratory system

24.

When carrying hazardous materials, a transportation mode must carry shipping papers.

a)

true

b)

false

25.

Shipping papers may include a paking group number listed as 1, 11, or Ill

a)

true

b)

false

26.

The higher the packing group number, the more dangerous the chemical is.

a)

true

b)

false

27.

When contacting CHEMTREC, the caller should be prepared to provide all of the following information EXCEPT:

a)

the name of the caller and a call-back number

b)

the type of container or vehicle

c)

the names of the material, shipper, and manufacturer

d)

the number of casualties

28.

The products that IM 102 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are:

a)

nonregulated materials

b)

flammable liquids

c)

flammable gases

d)

radioative materials

29.

the percentage of an aid or base dissolved in water

a)

corrosiveness

b)

specific gravity

c)

water solubility

30.

ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid or solid to the weight of an equal volume of water

a)

specific gravity

b)

corrosiveness

c)

water solubility

31.

the degree to which a substance will mix with water

a)

specific gravity

b)

water solubility

c)

corrosiveness

32.

The first step or most important thing to accomplish upon arrival at a hazardous materials or suspected hazardous materials incident is:

a)

identification of the spilled or released product

b)

rescue

c)

notification of the hazardous materials response team

d)

isolation of the area and prevention of entry

33.

Heat ___ occurs when the circulatory system begins to fail, resulting in rapid, shallow breathing and cool, clammy skin.

a)

exhaustion

b)

cramps

c)

rash

d)

stroke

34.

Which of the following is the first tactical priority to consider during a haz mat incident

a)

fire extinguishment

b)

exposure protection

c)

containment

d)

rescue

e)

confinement

35.

A fire involving a DOT Hazard Class 5.1 oxidizer generally requires large volumes of:

a)

foam

b)

water

c)

extinguishing powder

d)

foam and extinguishing powder

36.

Which of the resources would be able to determine, or predict, the concentrations of a released hazardous material withing an endangered area when provided with local data and leak information?

a)

Waybill

b)

CAMEO (Computer Aided Managementfor Emergency Operations)

c)

MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheets

d)

Emergency Response Guidebook

37.

The highest level of respiratory protection is needed but lesser chemical protection is required for the skin best defines EPA Level ___Protection

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

38.

There are many limitations for personnel working in SCBA. All are limitations EXCEPT:

a)

SCBA places a strain on the wearer's cardioascular system

b)

some wearers may be claustrophobic

c)

wearers do not have to be medically certified to wear SCBA

d)

wearers must be trained

39.

the hot zone should cover the incident site as well as the personnel and equipment necessary to control it.

a)

true

b)

false

40.

The warm zone includes the decontamination area

a)

true

b)

false

41.

The command post is located in the warm zone.

a)

true

b)

false

42.

Back-up personnel should be advised of the incident action plan and positioned in the ___zone

a)

hot

b)

warm

c)

cold

d)

emergency

43.

Can an AST be pressurized or only un-pressurized?

a)

pressurized only

b)

un-pressurized only

c)

either

d)

neither

44.

Up to how many gallons can be stored in pressurized horizontal tanks?

a)

several gallons

b)

several tens of gallons

c)

several hundred gallons

d)

several thousand gallons

45.

Waht would be a typical pressure reading, in psi, on a standard oxygen cylinder used in the medical field?

a)

20,000

b)

2,000

c)

200

d)

20

46.

How high can the capacity be of a rail tank car, in gallons?

a)

3,000

b)

7,500

c)

15,000

d)

30,000

47.

In an emergency, responders can locate an MSDS from:

a)

the facility preincident plan

b)

the local health department

c)

the label of the container

d)

OSHA

48.

(Dispersion pattern description) A circular or dome vapor cloud extending up from the ground

a)

hemispheric

b)

irregular

c)

pool

d)

stream

49.

(Dispersion pattern description) Low-lying vapor cloud on the ground

a)

hemispheric

b)

irregular

c)

pool

d)

stream

50.

(Dispersion pattern description) Movement of material by responders

a)

hemispheric

b)

irregular

c)

pool

d)

stream

51.

(Dispersion pattern description) Low to ground following natural barriers

a)

hemispheric

b)

irregular

c)

pool

d)

stream

52.

The minimumtemperature to which a fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustained combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source is best describes as

a)

the flash point

b)

specific gravity

c)

the flammable range

d)

autoignition temperature

53.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate procedure or consideration before applying goam?

a)

ensure the material is contained

b)

the use of foam is limited to combustible liquids

c)

ensure that foam will not cause any further problems

d)

ensure that the foam is compatible with the spilled material

54.

to obtain hazard and response information, a firefighter can contact the manufacturer using:

a)

the phone number on the MSDS

b)

the Emergency Response Guide

c)

The CAS registry

d)

CAMEO

55.

What type of container is used to ship materials of low reactivity?

a)

industrial

b)

stron, tight

c)

Type B

d)

Extruded

56.

A cryogenic liquid tank car will have:

a)

a single uninsulated shell

b)

a double shell with insulation

c)

an enclosed dome

d)

fittings and valves visible on top of the tank car

57.

A reaction that is associated with over-pressurization of closed containers and occurs at a rate of one second or less is called a:

a)

rapid relief

b)

violent rupture

c)

detonation

d)

spill

58.

Pipe-like packaging of radioactive materials is done in steel reinforced concrete casks, lead pipes, or heavy guage metal drums. This packaging is considered to be Type :

a)

2

b)

B

c)

A

d)

I

59.

A person who is repeatedly exposed to a chemical may develop:

a)

etiological changes

b)

chronic health hazard

c)

acute health hazard

d)

chemical asphyxia

60.

___ is the minimum temperature at whicha liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air.

a)

ignition temperature

b)

flash point

c)

Autoignition temperature

d)

Reactivity point

61.

Gases that displace ozygen, such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen, are examples of ___ asphyziants

a)

simple

b)

terminal

c)

general

d)

chemical

62.

Of the railcars listed below, which of teh folowing is considered to be obsolete?

a)

Covered opper car

b)

cryogenic liquid tank car

c)

high pressure tube car

d)

nonpressure tank car without an expansion dome

63.

(Remote shutoffs) Remote shutoffs are usually well marked and in an easy-to-find location

a)

true

b)

false

64.

(Remote shutoffs) Remote shutoffs in fixed failities are typically located near the entrance.

a)

true

b)

false

65.

(Remote Shutoffs) On vehicles, teh two most common locations for remote shutoffs are at the valve controls and behind the driver's door.

a)

true

b)

false

66.

The flammable range is BEST descried as:

a)

the weight of a substance compared tot he weight of an equal volume of water

b)

the percentage of gas or vapor concentration

c)

the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off vapors

d)

the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.

67.

Which type of radiation has a physical mass like alpha radiation but has no elecrical charge?

a)

X-ray

b)

Gamma

c)

Alpha

d)

Neutron

68.

The suit is used where splashes may occur, but where respiratory hazards are minimal.

a)

Level A

b)

Level B

c)

Level C

d)

Level D

69.

Materials such as lithium, finely divided magnesium, sodium, and cesium are classified as:

a)

hypergolic

b)

pyrophoric

c)

water reactive

d)

inhibitors

70.

What is unique about hazardous materials IMS?

a)

there are typically two safety officers assigned

b)

back-up teams are more important than for fire incident IMS

c)

a hot zone entry team is added under the logistics function

d)

there is no need for a financial and admin function because the spiller is automatically responsible for all costs

71.

In the event of exposure, the material which would pose a threat to a developing fetus in known as a(n):

a)

biogen

b)

etiogen

c)

teratogen

d)

synergen

72.

Which three factors determine the harm of exposure to a hazardous material?

a)

time, distance, shielding

b)

timing of release, size, toxicity

c)

pH, specific gravity, vapor pressure

d)

health hazard, flammability, reactivity

73.

Absorption is not an effective method in dealing with an oil spill in water, because all absorbent materials will also absorb the water.

a)

true

b)

false

74.

Protection from heat, moisture and ordinary hazards associated with firefighting; provides thermal, impact, and cut/abrasion protection; offers no chemical protection

a)

correctly identifies the purpose, advantages, and limitations of structural firefighting protective clothing at hazardous materials incidents.

b)

does NOT correctly identifies the purpose, advantages, and limitations of structural firefighting protective clothing at hazardous materials incidents.

75.

When applying water to a highway tanker or railway tank car with flame impingement, the minimum amount of water to be used is ___ gpm at teh point of flame impingement.

a)

500

b)

1000

c)

250

d)

2000

76.

Substances that ignite when combined create a ___reaction

a)

hyperbolic

b)

hypergolic

c)

congenial

d)

cryogenic

77.

A specialized intermodal tank container which transports gases in high-pressure cylinders (3000 to 5000 psi) is known as a(n):

a)

tube module

b)

cryogenic intermodal tank

c)

IM101

d)

IM102

78.

If a hazardous material incident involves a leaking flammable substance, the first responders should immediately remove all:

a)

ignition sources

b)

upwind ignition sources

c)

large combustible tanks

d)

fire equipment and personnel

79.

(Safety briefings) Pre-incident survey information is vital to establishing briefing items.

a)

true

b)

false

80.

(Safety briefings) MSDS information can be an important part of the briefing process.

a)

true

b)

false

81.

Risk/benefit assessment is the most important item to be considered.

a)

true

b)

false

82.

The maximum airborne concentration to which an average healthy person may be exposed 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, without adverse health effets, best defines:

a)

TLV-TWA

b)

IDLEL

c)

TLV-S

d)

TLV-STEL

83.

Level I incident, the response team should be able to deal with

a)

LPG leaking from full 1000-pound tanks

b)

ruptures of high-pressure gas lines

c)

spills requiring evacuation

d)

a natural gas leak in an occupancy

84.

Type ___ packaging is the strongest packaging and is used for more highly radioactive shipments. These containers include steel reinforced concrete casks, lead pipe, and heavy-guage metal drums.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

85.

The action taken to direct or influence the course of airborne hazardous materials is called

a)

vapor dispersion

b)

vapor suppression

c)

confinement

d)

dilution

86.

Type ___ packaging contains low-level commercial radioactive shipments. These containers include cardboard boxes, wooden crates, and metal drums.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

87.

The measurement commonly used by OSHA in evaluating workplace exposure during an 8 hour period is

a)

PEL

b)

LC50

c)

TLV-C

d)

STEL

88.

What would be the MAJOR concern if you were to come upon a leaking tanker of the type illustrated below?

a)

frost bite

b)

coming in contact with acids

c)

ignition of vapors

d)

coming in contact with molten product

89.

An appropriate application of high-expansion foam would be

a)

large outdoor spills

b)

a pesticide fire

c)

a five-gallon spill of hydrocarbons

d)

an above-ground tank fire