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Bone Test make up

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The pink areas are the 
a)
appendicular skeleton
b)
axial skeleton
c)
blushing skeleton
2.

Identify the bone shown in green.

a)

tibia

b)

humerus

c)

radius

d)

ulna

3.

The section of this picture highlighted in green is called the _______________?

a)

Tibia

b)

Patella

c)

Ilium

d)

Fibula

4.

In this picture, what is represented in multi-colors?

a)

Carpals

b)

Tarsals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Radius

5.

Identify the bone highlighted in green.

a)

Zygomatic

b)

Patella

c)

Tibia

d)

Phalanges

6.

Identify the bone highlighted in red.

a)

Clavicle

b)

Carpals

c)

Sternum

d)

Ribs

7.
a)

Clavicle

b)

Scapula

c)

Sternum

d)

Radius

8.
a)

Humerus

b)

Radius

c)

Ulna

d)

Clavicle

9.
a)
fibula
b)
humerus
c)
femur
d)
rib
10.
a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Clavicle

11.
a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Clavicle

12.

Identify the bones highlighted in red.

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibia

c)

Patella

d)

Femur

13.

Identify the bone highlighted in red.

a)

Coccyx

b)

Pelvis

c)

Sacrum

d)

Ilium

14.

The bone indicated by #2 is the

a)

parietal bone

b)

temporal bone

c)

frontal bone

d)

occipital bone

15.

The bone indicated by #1 is the

a)

parietal bone

b)

temporal bone

c)

frontal bone

d)

occipital bone

16.
a)

Maxilla

b)

Frontal

c)

Mandible

d)

Zygomatic

17.

Identify cranial bone "B"

a)

Lacrimal

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Parietal

d)

Sphenoid

18.

Identify Bone "C"

a)

Lacrimal

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Nasal

19.

This bone is the smallest in the skull.

a)

Vomer

b)

Nasal

c)

Inferior Nasal Conchae

d)

Lacrimal

20.

distal part of breastbone

a)

medial condyle

b)

lateral styloid

c)

xiphoid process

d)

AC joint

21.

behind the ear

a)

zygomatic process

b)

acromion process

c)

mastoid process

d)

olecranon process

22.

proximal ulna, elbow

a)

AC joint

b)

zygomatic process

c)

olecranon process

d)

medial styloid process

23.

lateral, proximal femur

a)

head of fibula

b)

greater trochanter

c)

lateral malleolus

d)

iliac crest

24.

medial, proximal femur

a)

medial styloid process

b)

lesser trochanter

c)

tibial tuberosity

d)

medial malleolus

25.

proximal, tibia (#12 on x-ray)

a)

tibial tuberosity

b)

greater trochanter

c)

lateral malleolus

d)

iliac crest

26.

distal tibia

a)

greater trochanter

b)

medial malleolus

c)

medial epicondyle

d)

tibial tuberosity

27.

What is the bone

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Calcaneus

c)

Metatarsals

d)

Medial Malleolus

28.
The shaft of the bone is also called the
a)
epiphysis
b)
diaphysis
c)
endosteum
d)
periosteum
29.
Which of these is a flat bone?
a)
Vertebra
b)
Tibia
c)
Fibula
d)
Frontal
30.
Which of the following is filled with yellow marrrow? 
a)
medulary cavity
b)
spongy bone
c)
periosteum
d)
compact bone
31.
Where are blood cells made? 
a)
Yellow marrow 
b)
Red marrow
c)
Spongy Bone 
d)
Periosteum
32.
If cartilage remains in this "specific" area, then growth is still occurring; it is located at the end of long bone
a)
Epipyseal plate
b)
 Medulary Cavity 
c)
Diaphysis 
d)
Endosteum 
33.
The ends of the long bone are anatomically referred to as the: 
a)
Epiphyseal plate 
b)
Medulary Cavity 
c)
Periosteum 
d)
Epiphysis 
34.
OUTER COVERING OF BONE THAT COVERS DIAPHYSIS AND IS LOCATION WHERE MUSCLES ATTACH
a)
ARTICULAR CARTILAGE
b)
OSTEON
c)
HAVERSIAN CANAL
d)
PERIOSTEUM
35.
Covering on the end of the bones as represented in structure D. Also on the end of B.  Provides protection
a)
red bone marrow
b)
yellow bone marrow
c)
articular cartilage
d)
medullary cavity
36.
How many bones are there in the human body?
a)
208
b)
126
c)
206
d)
80
37.
The bands of tissue that connect bones to muscle?
a)
tendons
b)
cartilage
c)
ligaments
d)
muscle
38.
What is the disorder of the skeletal system that results in having very brittle, soft bones?
a)
Osteoporosis
b)
Osteomyelitis
c)
Arthritis
d)
Bursitits
39.
a)
metatarsals
b)
carpals
c)
tarsals
d)
metacarpals
40.
what are the top 7 vertebrae called?
a)
coccyx
b)
lumbar
c)
cervical
d)
sacrum
41.
How many vertebrae in the thoracic area?
a)
12
b)
5
c)
7
d)
9
42.

Which is a bony landmark you need to know on the humerus?

a)

olecranon process

b)

xiphoid process

c)

spine

d)

olecranon fossa

43.

Where is costal cartilage located?

a)

between the pubis bones

b)

between the vertebra

c)

on the end of the femur

d)

between ribs and sternum

44.

Which are types of bone tissue?

a)

minuta and cancellous/spongy

b)

compact and cancellous/spongy

c)

flexible and inflexible

d)

none of these

45.

Which bone ossifies/hardens last around 35 years old?

a)

femur

b)

radius

c)

clavicle

d)

sacrum

46.
What is the place where two bones meet?
a)
hinge
b)
bone
c)
spot
d)
joint
47.
What is the name for the connector that attaches bone to bone?
a)
ligament
b)
tendon
c)
patella
d)
string
48.
What is inside bones?
a)
Nothing
b)
More hard bone
c)
Marrow
d)
Skin
49.

Causes lengthwise growth of a long bone

a)

Periosteum

b)

Red Bone Marrow

c)

Medullary Cavity

d)

Compact bone

e)

Epiphyseal plate

50.
The shaft of the bone is also called the
a)
epiphysis
b)
diaphysis
c)
endosteum
d)
periosteum
51.
This lines the medullary cavity
a)
Periosteum 
b)
Endosteum 
c)
Diaphysis 
d)
Osteoblasts 
52.
Mature bone cells that live in tiny cavities within the bone are called?
a)
osteocytes
b)
osteoblasts
c)
osteoclasts
d)
osteons
53.

What is the name of the incomplete fracture usually seen in children?

a)

Linear

b)

Transverse

c)

Fibial

d)

Greenstick

54.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Compound

b)

Comminuted

c)

Simple

d)

Spiral

55.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

Hairline

b)

Greenstick

c)

Comminuted

d)

Simple

56.

This cell lays down new bone and helps repair damage.

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteoclast

c)

Osteocyte

d)

Osteobuddies

57.

What is happening in this stage of bone healing?

a)

Bone is fractured

b)

Hard callus forms, osteoblast cells create new bone

c)

Remodeling, osteoclasts remove extra bone until its completely healed

d)

Soft callus forms, chondroblast and fibroblasts produce the fibrocartilaginous calus

58.
Bone remodeling occurs throughout life
a)
true
b)
false
59.
Nutrition, exposure to sunlight, exercise and hormonal secretions are all factors that control bone remodeling.
a)
true
b)
false
60.
Bones that originate within sheetlike layers of connective tissue.
a)
partial bones
b)
chondritic bones
c)
intramembranous bones
d)
endochondral bones
61.
Bones that begin as masses of cartilage later replaced by bone tissue.
a)
intramembranous bones
b)
entraspecific bones
c)
ethmodial bones
d)
endochondral bones
62.
Most bones of the skeleton are formed by...
a)
endochondral ossification
b)
gender specific ossification
c)
intramembranous ossification
d)
hyaline ossification
63.
In long bones, bone tissue begins to replace hyaline cartilage in the center of the diaphysis or the...
a)
secondary ossification center
b)
primary ossification center
c)
medullary ossification center
d)
transverse ossification center
64.

A round or oval opening through a bone

a)

process

b)

foramen

c)

fissure

d)

tuberosity

65.

A sinus is

a)

a cavity within a bone, filled with air and lined with mucus membrane

b)

a slit like opening

c)

a cavity within a bone lined with connective tissue

d)

a rounded joint connection

66.
Any bony prominance
a)
Process
b)
Facet
c)
Fissure
d)
Meatus
67.

Narrow ridge of bone, usually prominent

a)

Crest

b)

Forament

c)

Notch

d)

Epicondyle

68.

A condyle is a

a)

bony projection

b)

narrow ridge of bone

c)

indentation at the edge of a bone

d)

rounded joint connection

69.

A raised area on or above a condyle is called a(n)

a)

crest

b)

notch

c)

epicondyle

d)

tuberosity

70.

sharp, slender, often pointed projection

a)

crest

b)

line

c)

spine

d)

facet

71.

area of the skull that has not yet fused; "soft spot"

a)

fontanel

b)

foramen

c)

ramus

d)

line

72.

immovable joint of the skull after fusion

a)

fontanel

b)

suture

c)

notch

d)

tuberosity

73.

2

a)

Sub-Pubic Angle

b)

Pubis Symphysis

c)

Ramus of Ischium

d)

Obturator Foramen

e)

Greater Sciatic Notch

74.

11

a)

Sub-Pubic Angle

b)

Pubis Symphysis

c)

Ramus of Ischium

d)

Obturator Foramen

e)

Greater Sciatic Notch

75.

7

a)

Iliac Crest (Spine)

b)

Pubis Symphysis

c)

Ramus of Ischium

d)

Obturator Foramen

e)

Greater Sciatic Notch

76.

29

a)

Head

b)

Neck

c)

Lesser Trochanter

d)

Greater Trochanter

e)

Shaft

77.

31

a)

Lateral Condyle

b)

Medial Condyle

c)

Tibiofibular Joint

d)

Medial Malleolus

78.

Identify the bone marking "C"

a)

Fossa

b)

Sulcus

c)

Condyle

d)

Epicondyle

79.

Identify the bone marking "F"

a)

Trochanter

b)

Line

c)

Tuberosity

d)

Spine

80.

The highlighted portion of the skull is called the

a)

mastoid process

b)

styloid process

c)

coronoid process

d)

condylar process

81.

This bone is called the

a)

hyoid

b)

mastoid

c)

styloid

d)

mandible

82.

What type of bone tissue is found where the letter F is pointing?

a)

spongy

b)

compact

c)

porous

d)

concrete

83.

What condition can occur in the green section of the vertebra?

a)

scoliosis

b)

kyphosis

c)

lordosis

d)

sacritis

84.

What condition can occur to the skeleton after the epiphyseal plates have sealed and to much growth hormone is secreted?

a)

gigantism

b)

epicondylitis

c)

acromegally

d)

dwarfism

85.
Wear and tear arthritis, most commonly associated with aging
a)
Gouty Arthritis
b)
Osteoarthritis
c)
Rheumatica
d)
Osteoporosis
86.
Deposits of uric acid in the joints which forms crystals in the joints. 
a)
Osteoarthritis
b)
Osteoporosis
c)
Gouty Arthritis
d)
Rheumatoid Arthritis
87.
Commonly known as a chronic autoimmune disorder in which the joints and some organs are attacked, joints become swollen, painful and immobile.
a)
Osteoarthritis
b)
Osteoporosis
c)
Gouty Arthritis
d)
Rheumatoid Arthritis
88.

Which bone is not axial?

a)

temporal

b)

floating rib

c)

sternum

d)

ulna

e)

all are part of the axial skeleton

89.

Which bone is appendicular?

a)

ethmoid

b)

occipital

c)

clavicle

d)

atlas

90.

What is the name of the 2nd cervical vertebra?

a)

axis

b)

atlas

c)

T2

d)

L2

91.

How many pairs of false ribs do we have?

a)

7

b)

2

c)

4

d)

3

92.
Classifying joints as synarthrotic, amphiarthrotic, or diarthrotic represents  
a)
location in the body
b)
the composition of the joint
c)
the number of bones that joint affects
d)
degree of movement possible at the joint
93.
Cartilagenous joints are connected by  
a)
synovial fluid
b)
fibrous connective tissue. 
c)
hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage
d)
a joint capsule
94.

Most of the joints in the ankle and wrist are

a)

hinge joints

b)

pivot joints

c)

Gliding Planar joints

d)

condylar joints

95.
The knee joint is
a)
Hinge
b)
Gliding
c)
Ball and socket
d)
Pivot
96.
The shoulder joint is
a)
Hinge
b)
Gliding
c)
Ball and socket
d)
Pivot
97.
Slightly movable joint
a)
synarthrodial
b)
amphiarthrodial
c)
diarthrodial
98.
the place where the 1st metacarpal and carpal meet are this type of joint
a)
condyloid
b)
gliding
c)
hinge
d)
saddle
99.
Name the joint.
a)
Saddle
b)
Ball and Socket
c)
Ellipsoid
d)
Hinge
100.
Joints between skull bones
a)
diarthrotic/synovial
b)
fibrous/suture
c)
amphiarthrotic/epiphyseal disk
101.
Pubic symphysis
a)
fibrous/epiphyseal disk
b)
cartilaginous/suture
c)
cartilaginous/symphysis
d)
synovial/symphysis
102.
Fibrous joints are?
a)
freely moveable
b)
partially moveable
c)
immovable
103.

Which of the following is also diarthrotic?

a)

fibrous

b)

cartilaginous

c)

synovial

104.

Child's long bone growth plate made of hyaline cartilage

a)

fibrous/epiphyseal

b)

cartilaginous/ synchondrosis

c)

synovial/epiphyseal

105.
Most joints of the limbs
a)
fibrous
b)
cartilaginous
c)
synovial

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