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Honors Biology Final Exam Spring

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 8hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

a __________ is a segment of DNA that codes for a protein

a)

gene

b)

allele

c)

histone

d)

helix

2.

Why do offspring typically resemble their parents (if produced through sexual reproduction)?

a)

nucleic acids that contain information about the parental traits are inherited and expressed in the offspring

b)

proteins that contain information about the parental traits are inherited and expressed in the offspring

c)

parents and offspring always develop in a similar environment, so the environment selects the same traits in each

d)

the mother's uterus is the same for each offspring, so they will have the same genes expressed

3.

In simple (Mendelian) inheritance...The genotype "Tt" would have the ____________ phenotype expressed.

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

blend/mix of the two parents

d)

maternal

4.

_____________ cells contain 23 chromosomes in humans and _____________ cells contain 46 chromosomes.

a)

gamete, somatic

b)

somatic, gamete

c)

mitosis, meiosis

d)

nondisjunction, normal

5.

If a colorblind female plans on having a child with a male with normal color vision...what is the % chance that their first SON would be colorblind?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

25%

e)

0%

6.

Mendel's Law of Segregation states that

a)

the two alleles that make up a parent's genotype will be separated from each other during gamete formation

b)

traits will be inherited independently from each other

c)

the gametes produced will be identical to the mother's somatic cells

d)

the gametes produced will be identical to the father's somatic cells

7.

Edgar is trying to determine the genotype of his black cat. He breeds it with a gray cat (homozygous) and finds that 50% of the kittens are gray and 50% of them are black. What must the genotype of his black cat be? (simple dominance and the only two fur options are black or gray here)

a)

Aa

b)

aa

c)

AA

d)

impossible to tell

8.

Widow's peak is dominant to a straight hairline. If a heterozygous man has 8 kids with a woman with a straight hairline...which of the following statements is accurate?

a)

exactly 4 of their kids will have a widow's peak and 4 will have a straight hairline

b)

each child will have a 25% chance of having a widow's peak

c)

each child will have a 50% chance of having a widow's peak

d)

exactly 6 of their kids will have a widow's peak and 2 will have a straight hairline

9.

Match the scientist(s) to their contribution...

____________ = Genetics

____________ = Evolution

a)

Gergor Mendel, Charles Darwin/Alfred Russel Wallace

b)

Charles Darwin, Gregor Mendel

c)

James Watson, Francis Crick/Rosalind Franklin

d)

Jean Baptist Lamarck, Gregor Mendel

10.

What must the genotype of person I-2 be?

a)

XHXh

b)

XHXH

c)

XhXh

d)

XHYh

11.

If person #4 remarries an unaffected male...what % chance will they have an affected SON?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

0%

e)

100%

12.

Use the autosomal recessive pedigree pictured. What must the genotype of person #8 be?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

impossible to tell given this information

13.

In dogs, brown fur (B) is dominant to white fur. Long fur (F) is dominant to short fur. What are the possible gamete combinations for a heterozygous brown and homozygous long fur dog?

a)

BF, bF

b)

BF, Bf, bF, bf

c)

bF, Bf

d)

BB, FF, Bb, Ff

14.

A trait that has a wide variety of phenotypes would be controlled by this pattern of inheritance.

a)

polygenic

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

codominance

d)

multiple alleles

e)

simple dominance

15.

Use the autosomal dominant pedigree to figure out the genotype of individual #4

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

impossible to tell given the information provided

16.

All of the following are true regarding X-linked recessive inheritance EXCEPT

a)

an affected father can pass the affected allele to his daughter

b)

an affected mother cannot pass the affected allele to her son

c)

a female can be a "carrier" and not actually be classified as "affected" since she doesn't have the disease herself

d)

a male is either fully unaffected or fully affected and cannot be classified as a "carrier"

17.

Human blood type would be an example of this mode of inheritance. Use the picture for reference.

a)

multiple allele

b)

polygenic

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

simple dominance

18.

All of the following would be examples of traits controlled by polygenic inheritance EXCEPT

a)

human height

b)

human skin color

c)

human blood type

d)

human weight

19.

How many different phenotypes would exist in trait that is controlled by incomplete dominance?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

more than four

20.

A heterozygous type A man has kids with a heterozygous type B woman. Which of the following blood types would NOT be possible to the couple to have?

a)

IAIB (type AB)

b)

IAi (type A)

c)

IBi (type B)

d)

ii (type O)

e)

IAIA (type A)

21.

A black chicken and a white chicken have a codominant pattern of inheritance which results in a checkered chicken. If two checkered chickens were to have chicks...what % chance would they have a white chick?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

22.

Which two genes are most likely linked. (also most likely to be inherited together)

a)

genes that are close together on the same chromosome

b)

genes that are far apart on the same chromosome

c)

genes that are close together, but on different chromosomes

d)

genes that are far apart and on the different chromosome

23.

meiosis results in

a)

four genetically different gametes

b)

two genetically different gametes

c)

four genetically identical somatic cells

d)

two genetically identical somatic cells

24.

which one of the chromosome sets are diploid? (hint: count the centromeres to determine chromosome number)

a)

only the pair on the left

b)

only the pair on the right

c)

neither are diploid

d)

both are diploid

25.

How can you tell if a cell is in meiosis I vs meiosis II?

a)

homologous chromosomes only exist in meiosis I

b)

homologous chromosomes only exist in meiosis II

26.

What process is pictured here?

a)

crossing over

b)

separation of sister chromatid (anaphase II)

27.

When does this process occur?

a)

during all phases of mitosis

b)

prophase I of meiosis

c)

prophase II of meiosis

d)

telophase I or meiosis

28.

Which phase of meiosis is pictured?

a)

anaphase I

b)

anaphase II

c)

metaphase I

d)

metaphase II

29.

Variation is generated by

a)

production of haploid gametes during meiosis

b)

mutations

c)

random fertilization

d)

all of these contribute to genetic variety in sexually reproducing organisms

30.

If a chimpanzee has 48 chromosomes in its somatic cells. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in its gametes?

a)

23

b)

24

c)

48

d)

96

31.

homologous chromosomes can be found during

a)

meiosis I

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis II

d)

both rounds of meiosis

32.

When does a cell first become haploid?

a)

at the end of meiosis I

b)

at the end of meiosis II

c)

cells don't become haploid during meiosis at all...they do after mitosis though

33.

meiosis results in four, _______________ cells and mitosis results in four, _________________ cells

a)

genetically different, genetically identical

b)

genetically identical, genetically different

c)

genetically identical, genetically identical

d)

genetically different, genetically different

34.

somatic cells have ______ SET(S) of chromosomes and gametes have ______ SET(S) of chromosomes

a)

one, two

b)

two, one

c)

three, six

d)

four, two

35.

Which parent has sex cells that determine the sex of the offspring in humans?

a)

mother

b)

father

c)

50% of the time it is the mother and 50% of the time it is the father

d)

neither. it is completely random and has more to do with the environment

36.

______ produces cells with identical DNA (to the original cell)

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

both mitosis and meiosis

d)

neither mitosis nor meiosis

37.

Cells can differentiate through all of the following EXCEPT

a)

chemical messages received from neighboring cells

b)

differential expression of genes

c)

epigenetics: methylation and acetylation

d)

addition or deletion of DNA

38.

Which of these occurs first in development?

a)

fetus

b)

gastrula

c)

blastula

d)

zygote

39.

Which embryonic layer will form the bones, muscles, and circulatory system?

a)

endoderm

b)

ectoderm

c)

mesoderm

d)

microderm

40.

Homeotic (hox) genes

a)

direct formation of entire body segments during embryonic development

b)

work by applying methyl groups to the DNA to silence certain segments of it

c)

work by applying acetyl tags to the DNA to express certain segments of it

d)

destroy the histone proteins which disrupt normal cell division and result in cancers

41.

Which is most likely to occur due to an error during crossing over

a)

deletions or duplications

b)

nondisjunction of entire chromosomes in anaphase I

c)

nondisjunction of entire chromosomes in anaphase II

d)

decreased genetic variation

42.

What is the correct analysis for this karyotype?

a)

male with trisomy 21 (down syndrome)

b)

female with trisomy 21 (down syndrome)

c)

male with XXY (klinefelter syndrome)

d)

female with XYY (jacob's syndrome)

43.

nondisjunction would likely result in

a)

a gamete with too few chromosomes

b)

a gamete with too many chromosomes

c)

either of these are possible results

44.

Which is the correct order of embryonic developmental stages?

a)

zygote, morula, blastula, gastrulation, organogenesis

b)

zygote, blastula, morula, gastrulation, organogenesis

c)

morula, zygote, gastrulation, blastula. organogenesis

d)

gastrulation, zygote, morula, blastula, organogenesis

45.

Which type of unspecialized stem cell has the potential to develop into any kind of cell

a)

totipotent

b)

pluirpotent

c)

multipotent

d)

omnipotent

46.

In a population of 100 cats, black fur is dominant to white fur. 25 cats in this population have white fur. what is the frequency of the recessive, white allele in this population?

a)

.5

b)

.25

c)

.6

d)

.8

47.

Before Darwin...which views did the majority of society hold?

a)

Earth was around 5,000 years old

b)

no species had ever gone extinct

c)

life had remained unchanged since the beginning

d)

all of these were beliefs at the time

48.

Evidence for evolution can be found in studies of all of the following EXCEPT

a)

biochemistry (DNA comparisons)

b)

comparative embryology

c)

the fossil record

d)

comparative anatomy (vestigial & homologous structures)

e)

verbal stories passed down from ancient ancestors

49.

A bird, a whale, a human, and a cat all have homologous structure in their limbs. This suggests

a)

the organisms probably never shared a common ancestor and developed similar structures by chance (parallel evolution)

b)

the structures evolved together and now have similar functions (coevolution)

c)

no common ancestor, but the structures developed in a similar fashion based on a shared environment (convergent evolution)

d)

descent from a common ancestor with a similar structure that has been modified by different environments (divergent evolution)

50.

Which is NOT needed for evolution to occur

a)

variation in fitness

b)

heritability (able to pass down traits to offspring)

c)

more individuals produced than can survive

d)

an organism acquiring traits during its lifetime

51.

A bird of paradise has developed colorful feathers to attract a mate of the same species, but this also makes him more likely to be seen and eaten by predators. Which two opposing forces have worked together to result in this?

a)

sexual selection and artificial selection

b)

natural selection and artificial selection

c)

natural selection and sexual selection

d)

sexual selection and stabilizing selection

52.

Which of these scientists did NOT propose that evolution occurred through natural selection

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Alfred Russel Wallace

c)

Gregor Mendel

53.

For a population to be in genetic equilibrium this must be true

a)

allelic frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation

b)

allelic frequencies in a population change slightly from generation to generation

c)

allelic frequencies in a population vary significantly from generation to generation

d)

none of these are true

54.

all of the following would lead to evolution at the genetic level EXCEPT (hint: think 5 fingers of evolution)

a)

mutations

b)

small population size

c)

no gene flow (no migration)

d)

nonrandom mating (sexual selection)

e)

natural selection

55.

On a particular island it is an advantage if a bird has a long and narrow beak. Assuming the initial population has variation for beak length...the beak length would increase over time by __________ and would continue to be maintained after by ____________.

a)

stabilizing selection, directional selection

b)

disruptive selection, stabilizing selection

c)

directional selection, disruptive selection

d)

directional selection, stabilizing selection

56.

Absolute dating has been used to suggest that the earth is around ________ years old

a)

6,000

b)

80,000

c)

4.6 million

d)

4.6 billion

57.

What theory describes the formation of eukaryotic cells

a)

endosymbiotic theory

b)

oxygen theory of combustion

c)

heliocentrism

d)

special relativity

58.

two populations of squirrels were separated from each other by a canyon. since there was a geographic barrier that prevented gene flow between the two populations...this type of speciation likely occurred

a)

sympatric

b)

allopatric

c)

convergent

d)

behavioral isolation

59.

Rank these in order from latest to earliest (in the fossil record)

a)

multicellular organisms, eukaryotes, photosynthetic prokaryotes, anaerobic prokaryotes

b)

anaerobic prokaryotes, eukaryotes, photosynthetic prokaryotes, multicellular organisms

c)

eukaryotes, photosynthetic prokaryotes, multicellular organisms, anaerobic prokaryotes

d)

multicellular organisms, photosynthetic prokaryotes, anaerobic prokaryotes, eukaryotes

60.

natural selection is

a)

survival and reproduction of the largest and strongest organisms

b)

survival and reproduction of the organisms best suited to their environment

c)

the organisms that acquire the best traits to suit the environment

d)

survival and reproduction of the smartest individuals in a population

61.

All of the following are components of the natural selection theory EXCEPT

a)

heritable variation exists in populations

b)

competition for resources exists between organisms of the same species

c)

individuals with favorable traits usually have the highest reproductive success

d)

individuals must willingly adapt and evolve in response to a changing environment

62.

all of these bird species share a common ancestor that lived in this group of small islands long ago. the descent from a common ancestor in this island setting is referred to as

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

convergent evolution

c)

coevolution

d)

parallel evolution

63.

the lemur population on the left shows the starting population and the one on the right shows the population after their island habitat was polluted. which is the better explanation for how this happened?

a)

the lemur fur turned dark in response to the darker environment so that they could hide from predators more easily

b)

the lemurs displayed variation initially and the ones with darker fur were more likely to survive long enough to pass down their DNA in this new and darker environment

64.

an island lizard population shows variation in tail length. after many generations there are less lizards with extremely long and extremely short tails. what kind of selection is displayed here?

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

65.

Which biochemical evidence would suggest that all living organisms share a common ancestor?

a)

all organisms construct protein using RNA, ribosomes, and the genetic code

b)

all organisms use ATP as an energy carrier

c)

all organisms carry genetic information in the form of DNA

d)

all of these

66.

Which is NOT evidence for the endosymbiotic theory?

a)

mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA

b)

mitochondria and chloroplasts can reproduce independently of their eukaryotic cell and make some of their own proteins

c)

eukaryotic cells are older in the fossil record than prokaryotic cells

67.

Which of the following was NOT included in information that Darwin used to develop his theory of evolution by natural selection?

a)

Gregor Mendel's work with genetics

b)

fossil record

c)

comparisons of animal anatomy from islands

d)

scientists' work with geology and the age of Earth

68.

In a cat population most individuals have a long tail. A short tail is a very rare mutation that only a few individuals have. A farmer takes 10 cats from the much larger initial cat population to his farm in Louisiana to hunt mice. After a few generations most of the cats at his farm now have short tails. What is most likely responsible for this? (assume that the new environment is very similar to their old environment)

a)

genetic drift: founder effect

b)

having short tails is an advantage, so it was likely selected for

c)

random mutations in each of the cats with short tails in the new population

d)

genetic drift: bottleneck effect

69.

two different species of frog live in the same area. species A actively mates March-May and species B actively mates June-July. what type of isolation maintains them as separate species?

a)

temporal

b)

behavioral

c)

geographic

d)

mechanical

70.

Which is NOT required for speciation to occur?

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

genetic variety between the two populations

c)

gene flow between the two populations

d)

all of these are required

71.

how is evolution defined at a genetic/population level?

a)

change in alleic frequencies in an individual throughout their lifetime

b)

mutations that lead to adaptations in an individual

c)

change in allelic frequencies in a population over time

d)

an organism modifying itself out of want or need to fit their environment in order to survive long enough to reproduce

72.

which organism displays the HIGHEST fitness?

a)

a flower that produces a scent that keeps potential pollinators away during its reproductive life cycle

b)

a light-furred rabbit that lives near dark soil and rocks

c)

a fly that looks like a bee and gets eaten less frequently by predators

d)

a human male with a genetic disorder that will result in his death before the age of 15

73.

natural selection acts directly on

a)

genotypes

b)

phenotypes

74.

rank these in order of oldest to most recent in the fossil record

a)

eubacteria, protista, animalia

b)

animalia, protista, eubacteria

c)

protista, animalia, eubacteria

d)

eubacteria, animalia, protista

75.

homologous structures (such as the limbs of humans and cats) have a similar anatomical arrangement. this suggests

a)

convergent evolution

b)

divergent evolution

c)

parallel evolution

d)

coevolution

76.

which of the following represents the most specific/least broad group?

a)

phylum

b)

class

c)

order

d)

family

e)

kingdom

77.

which of the following options are most closely related according to this cladogram

a)

cat and chimpanzee

b)

viper and crocodile

c)

frog and turtle

d)

chimpanzee and human

78.

which of these pairs are less closely related than the other three

a)

horned dinos and domeheads

b)

sauropods and prosauropods

c)

other theropods and birds

d)

armored dinos and sauropods

79.

traditional (and often less accurate) classification emphasizes __________________ comparisons while modern (and more accurate) classification emphasizes _________________ comparisons.

a)

physical trait, molecular (DNA)

b)

molecular (DNA), physical trait

c)

behavioral, physical trait

d)

physical trait, behavioral

80.

which domain should a unicellular organism be placed?

a)

bacteria

b)

eukarya

c)

animalia

d)

eubacteria

81.

which of the following describes the effect of a biotic factor on an abiotic factor?

a)

roots of a growing tree split the bedrock as they grow

b)

climate determines the types of grass that can grow in an area

c)

a drought causes a population of wildebeest to migrate west

d)

the amount of sunlight available determines which flowers can thrive in a particular environment

82.

decomposers are important to an ecosystem because

a)

they prevent dead organic matter and waste from accumulating

b)

they use energy from the sun to make nutrients for the rest of the ecosystem

c)

they keep larger populations and around carrying capacity by eating the weaker organisms in a population

d)

all of these are true

83.

most populations in nature will level out around "C" in this graph. "C" represents

a)

the carrying capacity

b)

exponential growth of an invasive species

c)

the number of individuals it takes to repopulate an area

d)

density independent limiting factors

84.

nitrogen can be "fixed" in each of the following ways EXCEPT

a)

bacteria on the roots of some legumes

b)

lightning

c)

members of the animal kingdom

85.

what do global climate change, loss of groundwater, dead zones in aquatic environments, and acid rain all have in common?

a)

anthropogenic (human) causes

b)

they are examples of the impacts that invasive species can have on an environment

c)

they will happen once humans reach their carrying capacity

d)

they don't impact humans

86.

a rabbit that eats a plant is considered a ___________. what % of energy will the rabbit obtain from the plant?

a)

primary producer, 10%

b)

primary consumer, 10%

c)

secondary consumer, 1%

d)

secondary consumer 10%

87.

all of the following are true about fossil fuels EXCEPT

a)

they store carbon atoms

b)

they were formed by ancient organisms with heat and pressure

c)

types include coal, natural gas, and oil

d)

their combustion has contributed to global climate change

e)

there is an unlimited supply of fossil fuels remaining in the world

88.

all of the following would keep a mouse population in check EXCEPT

a)

limited food

b)

predators

c)

limited mates

d)

density dependent factors

e)

all of these would help establish carrying capacity

89.

all of the following are density dependent factors EXCEPT

a)

weather and natural disasters

b)

availability of food

c)

spread of disease

d)

predation

90.

which of the following is correct

a)

the population of wolves must increase before the population of rabbits can

b)

the populations do not impact each other

c)

there are no other factors that might contribute to population size other than predation

d)

the population of rabbits must increase before the population of wolves can

91.

the cane toad was introduced to Australia to try and control the cane grub. the cane toad became an invasive species. all of the following were likely ways that it disrupted the local ecosystem EXCEPT

a)

loss of biodiversity

b)

disruption of the Australian food web

c)

displacement of native species

d)

decreased competition for native species

92.

in the carbon cycle diagram arrows 2 and 4 represent

a)

respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

combustion

d)

decomposers

93.

in this simplified food web...which of these represents an organism at the third trophic level?

a)

rabbit

b)

mouse

c)

grass

d)

snake

94.

a disease kills most of the population of hawks one year. which of these would most likely occur next?

a)

increase in grasshopper and mouse population. decrease in coyote population

b)

decrease in grasshopper and mouse population. decrease in coyote population

c)

decrease in grasshopper and mouse population. increase in coyote population

d)

increase in vulture population and decrease in snake population

95.

a native species would likely display ___________ growth and an invasive species would likely display ___________ growth

a)

exponential, logistic

b)

logistic, exponential

96.

a bird benefits from receiving a nectar reward and the flower benefits from having a pollinator to help it reproduce sexually. this interaction is an example of

a)

a mutualism

b)

a commensalism

c)

predation

d)

parasitism

97.

all energy in our ecosystem can be traced back to

a)

the sun

b)

consumers

c)

producers

d)

decomposers

98.

energy __________ and matter _____________

a)

cycles, flows

b)

flows, cycles

99.

the amount of life an ecosystem can support could be determined by which abiotic factors?

a)

amount of water, soil, and sunlight

b)

amount of wind and number of predators

c)

food availability and amount of predators

d)

climate, food availability, and amount of predators

100.

how can the homeostasis of an ecosystem be negatively impacted?

a)

invasive species

b)

toxic chemicals getting into the water and animal tissue

c)

habitat destruction

d)

all of these would negatively impact the homeostasis of an ecosystem