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BIO 192 SI Final Exam Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Hormone that prepares the uterus for implantation & causes enlargement of the mammary glands:

a)

Prolactin

b)

Progesterone

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Estrogen

2.

C cells secrete this hormone when calcium levels are irregular in the blood:

a)

PTH

b)

Calcitriol

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Cortisol

3.

Which condition is caused by a tumor on the pituitary gland & causes an increase in ACTH?

a)

Goiter

b)

Cushing's Disease

c)

Addison's Disease

d)

Hypophyseal Syndrome

4.

Which term describes when the body has irregularly-shaped RBCs?

a)

Hempophilia

b)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

c)

Leukemia

d)

Leukopenia

5.

This is a secondary structure of the lymphatic system, but NOT an organ:

a)

Tonsils

b)

Spleen

c)

Lymph node

6.

Which WBC is NOT used for the body's nonspecific defense?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Lymphocyte

7.

Type of cell that secretes perforins during nonspecific defense:

a)

Compliment

b)

NK Cell

c)

Monocyte

d)

Basophil

8.

Which is NOT a hormone produced in the anterior pituitary?

a)

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

b)

Prolactin

c)

Growth hormone

d)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

9.

A person has Type B- blood. Which combination of blood types can this individual receive blood from?

a)

B-, B+, AB-, AB+ only

b)

B- only

c)

B-, O- only

d)

B- or B+ only

10.

Which is NOT a specific function of blood?

a)

Create ion fluctuations

b)

Prevent infection from spreading

c)

Regulate pH

d)

Transport waste products

11.

Why is a fever useful in fighting disease?

a)

This causes an increase in metabolism due to ketoacidosis

b)

This stops the denaturing of proteins

c)

Iron is sequestered in the spleen decreasing bacterial viability

d)

Carbohydrates will decrease in abundance

12.

When an individual receives maternal antibodies naturally via the mother, it is termed:

a)

Artificial Active Acquired Immunity

b)

Natural Active Acquired Immunity

c)

Artificial Passive Acquired Immunity

d)

Natural Passive Acquired Immunity

13.

What happens as part of the platelet phase?

a)

The diameter of the blood vessel decreases

b)

The cells that are damaged become sticky

c)

The adhesion of platelets to exposed surfaces

d)

The common pathway is activated

14.

Which is NOT a characteristic of an interferon?

a)

It is a type of cytokine

b)

It stimulates eosinophils

c)

It stimulates NK cells

d)

It slows viral infections

15.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

a)

Regulate the body's temperature

b)

Move fats into the bloodstream

c)

Increase edema

d)

Return plasma proteins to blood

16.

Which statement about lymphocytes is TRUE?

a)

Memory T cells activate non-specific defense

b)

B cells are used in immune surveillance

c)

Cytotoxic T cells attack infected cells

d)

Helper B cells initiate antibody-immunity

17.

All of the following are nonspecific immune defenses except:

a)

Physical barriers

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Immunological surveillance

d)

Cell-mediated immunity

18.

Which is NOT a part of the immunization process?

a)

A weak form of disease is injected into the body

b)

If the body is ever exposed to the actual disease, antibodies will destroy the invaders

c)

Suppressor T cells are formed to attack a future invasion

d)

The body produces antibodies to fight off the antigen

19.

Patient K has an infection that is causing excess creation of pus. What WBC will be elevated in Patient K's body?

a)

Basophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Monocytes (Macrophages)

d)

Neutrophils

20.

If a patient has insufficient calcium in the bloodstream, which hormone will NOT be in high levels within the blood?

a)

Calcitonin

b)

PTH

c)

Calcitriol

21.

Your body is producing high levels of glucagon. Which hormone would you also expect to find in high concentration?

a)

Leptin

b)

Insulin

c)

Growth hormone

d)

Ghrelin

22.

The hypophyseal portal system is:

a)

Another name for the CRH --> ACTH --> Cortisol pathway

b)

A connection of fenestrated capillaries that links the hypothalamus to the pituitary

c)

The method of blood delivery between the liver & the pancreas

23.

These eicosanoids activate a pathway in both platelets & endothelial cells that inhibit platelet activation:

a)

Antibodies

b)

Factor X

c)

Thrombocytes

d)

Prostacyclin

24.

What happens as part of the vascular phase?

a)

The diameter of the blood vessel decreases

b)

The adhesion of platelets to exposed surfaces

c)

The response is limited from over clotting by cytokines

d)

The common pathway is activated

25.

Patient G has an infection. Which of the following will be true?

a)

Patient G's plasma B cells will release antigens

b)

Patient G's cytotoxic T cells will release anitbodies

c)

Patient G's fever will decrease will effectiveness of her immune system

d)

Patient G's helper cells will activate nonspecific responses

e)

Patient G's antibodies will perform nonspecific defense

26.

The P wave of an ECG represents the:

a)

The atrial repolarization

b)

The ventricle repolarization

c)

The ventricle depolarization

d)

The atrial depolarization

27.

Most common type of arteries found in the body:

a)

Elastic

b)

Arteriole

c)

Muscular

d)

Venules

28.

The volume of blood that passes a single point in a certain time is known as:

a)

Flow Rate

b)

Velocity of Flow

c)

Mean Arterial Pressure

d)

Diastole

29.

This type of initial shock is caused by excessive blood loss:

a)

Anastomosis Shock

b)

Circulatory Shock

c)

Irreversible Shock

d)

Progressive Shock

30.

The volume of air that is moved during one breath at rest is called the:

a)

Total lung capacity

b)

Vital capacity

c)

Tidal volume

d)

Minute volume

31.

Phase of food processing that begins when the pH of the stomach increases:

a)

Cephalic

b)

Gastric

c)

Intestinal

32.

Flexible, but rigid tube that extends from the larynx to the main bronchi:

a)

Bronchiole

b)

Trachea

c)

Esophagus

d)

Pharynx

33.

The enzyme that changes carbon dioxide into bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) & hydrogen is called:

a)

Chloride shift

b)

Carboxase

c)

Carbonic anhydrase

d)

Lactase

34.

What commonly causes lactose intolerance?

a)

Lack of an enzyme

b)

A virus

c)

Increased acid production

d)

Zymogens causing autodigestion

35.

Metabolic pathway that creates ATP, NADH, & FADH2:

a)

Beta oxidation

b)

Deamination

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Citric acid cycle

36.

What is the most important attribute to a blood vessel when controlling resistance in the human body?

a)

Length

b)

Viscosity

c)

Change in radius

d)

Autorhymicity

37.

If a baroreceptor receives a stimulus of a decreased blood pressure, which of the following will occur in response?

a)

The spine will integrate this information

b)

A sympathetic neuron will be activated

c)

The detector is located in the alveoli

d)

Arteries will be an effector

38.

How do we circulate lactic acid waste through our blood?

a)

Carbonic anhydrase destroys it

b)

Attaching it to hemoglobin

c)

Through the use of a chloride shift

39.

Which of the following is TRUE for the DRG?

a)

It is active only during resting breathing

b)

It innervates the accessory respiratory muscles

c)

It is activated during every breath

d)

It has a synergistic relationship with the VRG

40.

What is the main function of the small intestine?

a)

Absorption of water

b)

Compacting waste into feces

c)

Absorption of nutrients

d)

Contain bacteria

41.

Large aggregate of lymphatic nodules in the submucosa to prevent microbes from crossing the GI tract into the body:

a)

Greater omentum

b)

Pyloris

c)

Mesentary

d)

Peyer's patch

42.

Which hormone causes an individual to feel a sense of being "full" after eating?

a)

CCK

b)

Gastrin

c)

Ghrelin

d)

Pepsin

43.

Which is NOT an essential nutrient?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Fiber

c)

Protein

d)

Water

44.

Which step in cardiac muscle contraction will be inhibited if the bicuspid valve fails to close?

a)

Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation

b)

Ventricular ejection

c)

Atria systole

d)

Late diastole

45.

If a baroreceptor is stimulated that increases blood pressure, which of the following is TRUE for the body's response?

a)

The spine will integrate this information

b)

A sympathetic neuron will be activated

c)

Capillary velocity will decrease

d)

Arterioles will be an effector

46.

What part of your brain forces you to take a breath?

a)

Cerebral cortex

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Pons

47.

A friend of yours is exercising. Which of the following statements is TRUE about changes to the body?

a)

Blood flow to the renal system decreases

b)

Blood flow to the digestive system increases

c)

Vasodilation of areas used to perform the exercise decreases

d)

Blood flow to the skin decreases

48.

The bulk of carbon dioxide is carried:

a)

As the ion HCO3- in the plasma after first entering the RBC

b)

As hydrochloric acid

c)

As lactic acid

d)

As a molecule attached to amino acids

49.

Which is NOT a function of the respiratory system?

a)

Protection from foreign invaders

b)

Olfaction

c)

Vocalization

d)

Regulate pH to maintain homeostasis

e)

Return fluid & plasma proteins to the circulatory system

50.

Which of the following could be given to a patient to decrease blood pressure?

a)

Atrial natriuretic peptide

b)

Erythropoeitin

c)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

51.

Which portion of the nephron is responsible for tubular secretion?

a)

Collecting duct

b)

Glomerulus

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

52.

Which of the following are reabsorbed by the nephron?

a)

Glucose, amino acids

b)

NA+, K+, HCO3-

c)

Water

d)

All of the above

53.

Filtration occurs in the:

a)

PCT

b)

Glomerulus

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

DCT

e)

Collecting duct

54.

At what volume would you get the urge to go to the bathroom?

a)

100mL

b)

200mL

c)

400mL

d)

500mL

55.

The filtrate in the kidney gets more & more concentrated as it enters the:

a)

Cortex

b)

Outer medulla

c)

Inner medulla

d)

It's the same all the way through

56.

What happens to NaCl- in the ascending loop of Henle?

a)

It is secreted

b)

It is reabsorbed

c)

It is filtered

d)

It is excreted

57.

What happens to blood flow to the kidneys during strenuous exercise?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

No change

58.

Which of the following is the role of the sodium linked glucose transporter?

a)

Absorption of glucose

b)

Filtration of glucose

c)

Secretion of glucose

d)

Excretion of glucose

59.

The ovaries produce which of the following?

a)

Gametes

b)

Estrogen

c)

Progesterone

d)

All of the above

60.

The corpus luteum produces which of the following hormones which prepares the uterus for pregnancy?

a)

Estrogen

b)

LH

c)

FSH

d)

Progesterone

61.

This phase starts at ovulation & contributes as long as the corpus luteum is intact:

a)

Secretory phase

b)

Menses

c)

Follicle phase

d)

Luteal phase

62.

The endometrium is restored during this phase:

a)

Secretory phase

b)

Luteal phase

c)

Proliferation phase

d)

Follicle phase

63.

Mitosis ____________ the amount of cells.

a)

Quadruples

b)

Halves

c)

Triples

d)

Doubles

64.

Meiosis produces what?

a)

Zygotes

b)

Gametes

c)

Embryos

65.

Which of the following is the function of the Sertoli cells?

a)

Develop into sex-organs

b)

Secrete estrogen

c)

Provide nutrients for developing spermatogonia

d)

Secrete testosterone

66.

Which of the following is NOT one of the male accessory glands?

a)

Seminal vesicles

b)

Testes

c)

Prostate gland

d)

Bulbourethral gland

67.

What is the placenta composed of?

a)

Villi

b)

Epithelial tissue

c)

Chorion

d)

Connective tissue

68.

In first trimester development, the mesoderm contains the:

a)

Skin & nerves

b)

Connective tissue & muscle

c)

Internal epithelium

d)

Hormones

69.

Which of the following does not occur in the third trimester?

a)

Premature birth(s)

b)

Rapid weight gain

c)

Body proportions change to distinctively human

d)

Organ systems become fully functional

70.

What is the impact of breastfeeding on the child?

a)

Decrease risk of inner ear infection

b)

Decreased risk of SIDS

c)

Higher IQ & other intelligence benchmarks

d)

All of the above

71.

This is the portion of DNA that encodes for a protein:

a)

Chromosome

b)

Gene

c)

Karyotype

d)

Genome

72.

This is when all members of a genotypes express the condition:

a)

Incompletely penetrant

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Completely penetrant

73.

This refers to an individual's observable traits:

a)

Phenotype

b)

Genotype

74.

This refers to either 2 dominant or 2 recessive alleles:

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Homozygous

75.

All of the following refer to sex-linked traits except:

a)

Almost always a recessive trait

b)

Mother is often a carrier

c)

Y-linked

d)

Color blindness is a common condition