Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsAdvance Biology Semester 1 Test 2020
Total questions: 110
Worksheet time: 55mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The scientific discipline concerned with naming organisms is called
a)
taxonomy.
b)
cladistics.
c)
binomial nomenclature
d)
systematics
e)
phylocode
2.
The correct sequence, from the most to the least comprehensive, of the taxonomic levels listed here is
a)
family, phylum, class, kingdom, order, species, and genus.
b)
kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species.
c)
kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, and species.
d)
phylum, kingdom, order, class, species, family, and genus.
e)
phylum, family, class, order, kingdom, genus, and species.
3.
A common ancestor for both species C and E could be at position number
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
e)
5
4.
The two extant species that are most closely related to each other are
a)
A and B.
b)
B and C.
c)
C and D.
d)
D and E.
e)
E and A.
5.
Members of which kingdom have cell walls and are all heterotrophic?
a)
Plantae
b)
Fungi
c)
Animalia
d)
Protista
e)
Monera
6.
Which is the bacterial structure that acts as a selective barrier, allowing nutrients to enter the cell and wastes to leave the cell?
a)
plasma membrane
b)
capsule
c)
cell wall
d)
nucleoid region
e)
pili
7.
Which of these is the most common compound in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria?
a)
cellulose
b)
lipopolysaccharide
c)
lignin
d)
peptidoglycan
e)
protein
8.
Penicillin is an antibiotic that inhibits enzymes from catalyzing the synthesis of peptidoglycan, so which prokaryotes should be most vulnerable to inhibition by penicillin?
a)
mycoplasmas
b)
gram-positive bacteria
c)
archaea
d)
gram-negative bacteria
e)
endospore-bearing bacteria
9.
Which of the following requires ATP to function, and permits some species to respond to taxes (plural of taxis)?
a)
endospore
b)
sex pilus
c)
flagellum
d)
cell wall
e)
capsule
10.
Not present in all bacteria, this cell covering enables cells that possess it to resist the defenses of host organisms:
a)
endospore
b)
sex pilus
c)
flagellum
d)
cell wall
e)
capsule
11.
Not present in all bacteria, this structure enables those that possess it to germinate after exposure to harsh conditions, such as boiling:
a)
endospore
b)
sex pilus
c)
flagellum
d)
cell wall
e)
capsule
12.
Which of the following is a structure that permits conjugation to occur?
a)
endospore
b)
sex pilus
c)
flagellum
d)
cell wall
e)
capsule
13.
If this structure connects the cytoplasm of two bacteria, one of these cells may gain new genetic material:
a)
endospore
b)
sex pilus
c)
flagellum
d)
cell wall
e)
capsule
14.
Which of these statements about prokaryotes is correct?
a)
Bacterial cells conjugate to mutually exchange genetic material.
b)
Their genetic material is confined within a nuclear envelope.
c)
They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis.
d)
The persistence of bacteria throughout evolutionary time is due to their genetic homogeneity (i.e., sameness).
e)
Genetic variation in bacteria is not known to occur, nor should it occur, because of their asexual mode of reproduction.
15.
Which of the following are responsible for many human diseases?
a)
photoautotrophs
b)
photoheterotrophs
c)
chemoautotrophs
d)
chemoheterotrophs that perform decomposition
e)
parasitic chemoheterotrophs
16.
How can prokaryotes be considered to be more successful on Earth than humans?
a)
Prokaryotes are much more numerous and have more biomass.
b)
Prokaryotes occupy more diverse habitats.
c)
Prokaryotes are more diverse in metabolism.
d)
Only B and C are correct.
e)
A, B, and C are correct.
17.
Many physicians administer antibiotics to patients at the first sign of any disease symptoms. Why can this practice cause more problems for these patients, and for others not yet infected?
a)
The antibiotic administered may kill viruses that had been keeping the bacteria in check.
b)
Antibiotics may cause other side effects in patients.
c)
Overuse of antibiotics can select for antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
d)
Particular patients may be allergic to the antibiotic.
e)
Antibiotics may interfere with the ability to identify the bacteria present.
18.
Photoautotrophs use
a)
light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source.
b)
light as an energy source and methane as a carbon source.
c)
N2 as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source.
d)
CO2 as both an energy source and a carbon source.
e)
H2S as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source.
19.
Protists are alike in that all are
a)
unicellular
b)
eukaryotic.
c)
symbionts
d)
monophyletic
e)
autotrophic
20.
According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate?
a)
from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for proteins in energy-transfer reactions
b)
from engulfed, originally free-living prokaryotes
c)
by secondary endosymbiosis
d)
from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes
e)
when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protobiont
21.
Which organisms represent the common ancestor of all photosynthetic plastids found in eukaryotes?
a)
autotrophic euglenids
b)
diatoms
c)
dinoflagellates
d)
red algae
e)
cyanobacteria
22.
Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins? 1. Plasmodium<br />2. Trichomonas<br />3. Paramecium<br />4. Trypanosoma<br />5. Entamoeba<br />
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 4
c)
2 and 3
d)
2 and 4
e)
4 and 5
23.
Which of these taxa contains species that produce potent toxins that can cause extensive fish kills, contaminate shellfish, and poison humans?
a)
red algae
b)
dinoflagellates
c)
diplomonads
d)
euglenids
e)
golden algae
24.
Which group includes members that are important primary producers in ocean food webs, causes red tides that kill many fish, and may even be carnivorous?
a)
ciliates
b)
apicomplexans
c)
dinoflagellates
d)
brown algae
e)
golden algae
25.
A large seaweed that floats freely on the surface of deep bodies of water would be expected to lack which of the following?
a)
thalli
b)
bladders
c)
blades
d)
holdfasts
e)
gel-forming polysaccharides
26.
Thread-like pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis are generally characteristic of which group?
a)
radiolarians and forams
b)
gymnamoebas
c)
entamoebas
d)
amoeboid stage of cellular slime molds
e)
oomycetes
27.
A snail-like, coiled, porous test (shell) of calcium carbonate is characteristic of which group?
a)
diatoms
b)
foraminiferans
c)
radiolarians
d)
gymnamoebas
e)
ciliates
28.
What makes certain red algae appear red?
a)
They live in warm coastal waters.
b)
They possess pigments that reflect and transmit red light.
c)
They use red light for photosynthesis.
d)
They lack chlorophyll.
e)
They contain the pigment bacteriorhodopsin.
29.
The largest seaweeds belong to which group?
a)
red algae
b)
green algae
c)
brown algae
d)
golden algae
30.
Which taxon of eukaryotic organisms is thought to be directly ancestral to the plant kingdom?
a)
golden algae
b)
radiolarians
c)
foraminiferans
d)
apicomplexans
e)
green algae
31.
Choose the adaptation below that best meets each particular challenge for life on land. protection from predators
a)
tracheids and phloem
b)
secondary compounds
c)
cuticle
d)
alternation of generations
32.
Choose the adaptation below that best meets each particular challenge for life on land. protection from desiccation
a)
tracheids and phloem
b)
secondary compounds
c)
cuticle
d)
alternation of generations
33.
Choose the adaptation below that best meets each particular challenge for life on land. transport of water, minerals, and nutrients
a)
tracheids and phloem
b)
secondary compounds
c)
cuticle
d)
alternation of generations
34.
Which event during the evolution of land plants probably made the synthesis of secondary compounds most beneficial?
a)
the greenhouse effect present throughout the Devonian period
b)
the reverse-greenhouse effect during the Carboniferous period
c)
the association of the roots of land plants with fungi
d)
the rise of herbivory
e)
the rise of wind pollination
35.
Plant spores are produced directly by
a)
sporophytes.
b)
gametes.
c)
gametophytes.
d)
gametangia.
e)
seeds.
36.
The seed coat's most important function is to provide
a)
a nonstressful environment for the megasporangium.
b)
the means for dispersal.
c)
dormancy.
d)
a nutrient supply for the embryo.
e)
desiccation resistance.
37.
In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics are unique to the seed-producing plants?
a)
sporopollenin
b)
lignin present in cell walls
c)
pollen
d)
use of air currents as a dispersal agent
e)
megaphylls
38.
The main way that pine trees disperse their offspring is by using
a)
fruits that are eaten by animals.
b)
spores.
c)
squirrels to bury cones.
d)
windblown seeds.
e)
flagellated sperm swimming through water.
39.
Which structure is common to both gymnosperms and angiosperms?
a)
stigma
b)
carpel
c)
ovule
d)
ovary
e)
anthers
40.
What is true of stamens, sepals, petals, carpels, and pinecone scales?
a)
They are female reproductive parts.
b)
None are capable of photosynthesis.
c)
They are modified leaves.
d)
They are found on flowers.
e)
They are found on angiosperms.
41.
For the following questions, match the adaptations of the various fruits below with the most likely means used by the fruit to disperse the seeds contained within the fruit (A-E). The fruit is made of material high in calories.
a)
animal skin, fur, or feathers
b)
animal digestive tract
c)
water currents
d)
gravity and terrain
e)
air currents
42.
For the following questions, match the adaptations of the various fruits below with the most likely means used by the fruit to disperse the seeds contained within the fruit (A-E). The fruit is covered with spines or hooks.
a)
animal skin, fur, or feathers
b)
animal digestive tract
c)
water currents
d)
gravity and terrain
e)
air currents
43.
For the following questions, match the adaptations of the various fruits below with the most likely means used by the fruit to disperse the seeds contained within the fruit (A-E). The fruit contains an air bubble.
a)
animal skin, fur, or feathers
b)
animal digestive tract
c)
water currents
d)
gravity and terrain
e)
air currents
44.
For the following questions, match the adaptations of the various fruits below with the most likely means used by the fruit to disperse the seeds contained within the fruit (A-E). The fruit has a heavy weight and spheroidal shape..
a)
animal skin, fur, or feathers
b)
animal digestive tract
c)
water currents
d)
gravity and terrain
e)
air currents
45.
For the following questions, match the adaptations of the various fruits below with the most likely means used by the fruit to disperse the seeds contained within the fruit (A-E). The fruit has light, fibrous plumes.
a)
animal skin, fur, or feathers
b)
animal digestive tract
c)
water currents
d)
gravity and terrain
e)
air currents
46.
What is the greatest threat to plant diversity?
a)
insects
b)
grazing and browsing by animals
c)
pathogenic fungi
d)
competition with other plants
e)
human population growth
47.
A fruit is most commonly
a)
a mature ovary.
b)
a thickened style.
c)
an enlarged ovule.
d)
modified root
e)
a mature female gametophyte.
48.
Which of the following is (are) unique to animals?
a)
cells that have mitochondria
b)
the structural carbohydrate, chitin
c)
nervous conduction and muscular movement
d)
heterotrophy
e)
both A and C
49.
Cephalization is primarily associated with
a)
adaptation to dark environments.
b)
method of reproduction.
c)
fate of the blastopore.
d)
type of digestive system.
e)
bilateral symmetry.
50.
Which cells in a sponge are primarily responsible for trapping and removing food particles from circulating water?
a)
choanocytes
b)
mesoglea cells
c)
pore cells (porocytes)
d)
epidermal cells
51.
Which of the following is correctly associated with sponges?
a)
osculum
b)
body cavity
c)
cnidocytes
d)
spicules made of chitin
e)
muscle cells and nerve cells
52.
In terms of food capture, which sponge cell is most similar to the cnidocyte of a Cnidarian?
a)
zygote
b)
choanocyte
c)
gamete
d)
epidermal cell
e)
pore cell
53.
A radially symmetrical animal that has two embryonic tissue layers probably belongs to which phylum?
a)
Porifera
b)
Cnidaria
c)
Platyhelminthes
d)
Nematoda
e)
Echinodermata
54.
Which of the following are characteristics of the phylum Cnidaria?<br />1. a gastrovascular cavity<br />2. a polyp stage<br />3. a medusa stage<br />4. cnidocytes<br />5. a pseudocoelom<br />
a)
1 and 4
b)
2 and 3
c)
2, 3, and 4
d)
1, 2, 3, and 4
e)
all five of these
55.
The members of which class of the phylum Cnidaria occur only as polyps?
a)
Hydrozoa
b)
Scyphozo
c)
Anthozoa
d)
Cubozoa
e)
both B and D
56.
Generally, members of which flatworm class(es) are nonparasitic?
a)
Turbellaria
b)
Trematoda
c)
Cestoda
d)
Monogenea
e)
A, C, and D
57.
While vacationing in a country that lacks adequate meat inspection, a student ate undercooked ground beef. Sometime later the student became easily fatigued, and lost body weight. At about the same time, whitish, flattened, rectangular objects full of small white spheres started appearing in his feces. Administration of niclosamide cured the problem. The student had probably been infected by a
a)
pinworm.
b)
hookworm.
c)
nematode.
d)
tapeworm.
e)
proboscis worm.
58.
A terrestrial mollusc without a shell belongs to which class?
a)
chitons
b)
bivalves
c)
gastropods
d)
cephalopods
59.
Which molluscan class includes marine organisms whose shell consists of eight plates?
a)
chitons
b)
bivalves
c)
gastropods
d)
cephalopods
60.
While snorkeling, a student observes an active marine animal that has a series of muscular tentacles bearing suckers associated with its head. Segmentation is not observed, but a pair of large, well-developed eyes is evident. The student is observing an animal belonging to which class?
a)
chitons
b)
bivalves
c)
gastropods
d)
cephalopods
61.
Many of which of the following annelid classes are parasites?
a)
Oligochaeta
b)
Polychaeta
c)
Hirudinea (leeches)
d)
all three of these
e)
two of these
62.
Humans most frequently acquire trichinosis by
a)
eating undercooked pork.
b)
inhaling the eggs of worms.
c)
eating undercooked beef.
d)
being bitten by tsetse flies.
63.
A shared derived characteristic for members of the arthropod subgroup that includes spiders would be the presence of
a)
chelicerae.
b)
an open circulatory system.
c)
an exoskeleton.
d)
a cuticle
e)
a cephalothorax
64.
While working in your garden, you discover a worm-like, segmented animal with two pairs of jointed legs per segment. The animal is probably a
a)
millipede.
b)
caterpillar
c)
centipede.
d)
polychaete worm.
e)
sow bug
65.
Which of the following characteristics most likely explains why insects are so successful at dispersing to distant environments?
a)
hemocoel
b)
wings
c)
jointed appendages
d)
chewing mandibles
e)
internal fertilization
66.
What distinguishes complete metamorphosis from incomplete metamorphosis in insects?
a)
presence of wings in the adult, but not in earlier life stages
b)
presence of sex organs in the adult, but not in earlier life stages
c)
radically different appearance between adults and earlier life stages
d)
only A and B
e)
A, B, and C
67.
The possession of two pairs of antennae is a characteristic of
a)
spiders.
b)
insects
c)
centipedes
d)
millipedes
e)
crustaceans
68.
Which of the following describe(s) echinoderms?
a)
They have an endoskeleton of hard calcareous plates.
b)
Tube feet provide motility in most species.
c)
They have a pseudocoelom.
d)
Only A and B are true.
e)
A, B, and C are true.
69.
Which phylum is characterized by animals that have a segmented body?
a)
Cnidaria
b)
Platyhelminthes
c)
Silicea
d)
Arthropoda
e)
Mollusca
70.
Which of the following is a shared characteristic of all chordates?
a)
scales
b)
jaws
c)
vertebrae
d)
dorsal, hollow nerve cord
e)
four-chambered heart
71.
What is one characteristic that separates chordates from all other animals?
a)
true coelom
b)
post-anal tail
c)
blastopore, which becomes the anus
d)
bilateral symmetry
e)
segmentation
72.
Which of these are characteristics of all chordates during at least a portion of their development?
a)
a dorsal, hollow nerve cord
b)
pharyngeal clefts
c)
post-anal tail
d)
A and B only
e)
A, B, and C
73.
Which extant chordates are postulated to be most like the earliest chordates in appearance?
a)
lancelets
b)
adult tunicates
c)
amphibians
d)
reptiles
e)
chondrichthyans
74.
Which group's members had (have) both lungs and gills during their adult lives?
a)
sharks, skates, and rays
b)
lungfishes
c)
lancelets
d)
amphibians
e)
ichthyosaurs and plesiosaurs
75.
The ray-finned fishes are characterized by
a)
a bony endoskeleton, operculum, and usually a swim bladder.
b)
a cartilaginous endoskeleton.
c)
an amniotic egg.
d)
teeth that are replaced regularly.
e)
a lateral line system and ears with three semicircular canals.
76.
What permits reptiles to thrive in arid environments?
a)
Their bright coloration reflects the intense UV radiation.
b)
A large number of prey and a limited number of predators are available in the desert.
c)
A cartilaginous endoskeleton provides needed flexibility for locomotion on sand.
d)
Their scales contain the protein keratin, which helps prevent dehydration.
e)
They have an acute sense of sight, especially in bright sunlight.
77.
Why is the amniotic egg considered an important evolutionary breakthrough?
a)
It has a shell that increases gas exchange.
b)
It allows incubation of eggs in a terrestrial environment.
c)
It prolongs embryonic development.
d)
It provides insulation to conserve heat.
e)
It permits internal fertilization to be replaced by external fertilization.
78.
Which of the following structures are possessed only by birds?
a)
enlarged pectoral muscles and heavy bones
b)
a four-chambered heart
c)
feathers and keeled sternum
d)
a short tail and scales
e)
a large brain and endothermy
79.
Differentiation of teeth is observed in
a)
sharks
b)
bony fishes.
c)
amphibians.
d)
reptiles.
e)
mammals.
80.
Which is characteristic of all mammals, and only of mammals?
a)
a four-chambered heart that prevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
b)
giving birth to live young (viviparous)
c)
parental care of offspring
d)
having glands to produce nourishing milk for offspring
e)
using the rib cage to assist in ventilating the lungs
81.
Which are the most abundant and diverse of the extant vertebrates?
a)
ray-finned fishes
b)
birds
c)
amphibians
d)
nonbird reptiles
e)
mammals
82.
Which of the following levels of organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive?
a)
community, ecosystem, individual, population
b)
ecosystem, community, population, individual
c)
population, ecosystem, individual, community
d)
individual, population, community, ecosystem
e)
individual, community, population, ecosystem
83.
Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities?
a)
precipitation, wind
b)
nutrient availability, soil pH
c)
predation, competition
d)
temperature, water
e)
light intensity, seasonality
84.
The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is because
a)
there is more ice at the poles.
b)
sunlight strikes the poles at an lower angle.
c)
the poles are farther from the sun.
d)
the poles have a thicker atmosphere.
e)
the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun.
85.
Which of the following environmental features might influence microclimates?
a)
a discarded soft-drink can
b)
a tree
c)
a fallen log
d)
a stone
e)
all of the above
86.
As climate changes because of global warming, species' ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that
a)
have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals.
b)
have thin seed coats.
c)
produce well-provisioned seeds.
d)
have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire.
e)
disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree.
87.
Species introduced to new geographic locations
a)
are usually successful in colonizing the area.
b)
always spread because they encounter no natural predators.
c)
increase the diversity and therefore the stability of the ecosystem.
d)
can out-compete and displace native species for biotic and abiotic resources.
e)
are always considered pests by ecologists.
88.
Where would an ecologist find the most phytoplankton in a lake?
a)
profundal zone
b)
benthic zone
c)
photic zone
d)
oligotrophic zone
e)
aphotic zone
89.
Which marine zone would have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)?
a)
pelagic
b)
abyssal
c)
neritic
d)
continental shelf
e)
intertidal
90.
Probably the most important factor(s) affecting the distribution of biomes is (are)
a)
wind and ocean water current patterns.
b)
species diversity.
c)
proximity to large bodies of water
d)
climate.
e)
day length and rainfall.
91.
The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes?
a)
savanna
b)
temperate broadleaf forest
c)
temperate grassland
d)
tropical rain forest
e)
coniferous forest
92.
Suppose the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata(trees) found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species?
a)
tropical rain forest
b)
savanna
c)
desert
d)
temperate broadleaf forest
e)
temperate grassland
93.
An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile on another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?
a)
density
b)
dispersion
c)
carrying capacity
d)
quadrats
e)
range
94.
The most common kind of dispersion in nature is
a)
clumped.
b)
random
c)
uniform.
d)
indeterminate.
e)
dispersive.
95.
Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?
a)
red squirrels, who actively defend territories
b)
cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams
c)
dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree
d)
moths in a city at night
e)
lake trout, which seek out deep water
96.
A table listing such items as age, observed number of organisms alive each year, and life expectancy is known as a (an)
a)
life table.
b)
mortality table.
c)
survivorship table.
d)
rate table.
e)
insurance table.
97.
Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants?
a)
a
b)
b
c)
c
d)
d
e)
e
98.
Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the capture-recapture estimate of population size?
I. Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped.
II. The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with population after being marked.
III. No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during the course of the estimate.
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
I and II only
d)
II and III only
e)
I, II, and III
99.
As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation?
a)
The growth rate will not change.
b)
The growth rate will approach zero.
c)
The population will show an Allee effect.
d)
The population will increase exponentially.
e)
The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.
100.
Carrying capacity is
a)
seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the ocean.
b)
the maximum population size that a particular environment can support.
c)
fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time.
d)
determined by density and dispersion data.
e)
the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources.
101.
Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion?
a)
Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites.
b)
The density of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species.
c)
Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species.
d)
Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.
e)
Evolution tends to increase competition between related species.
102.
The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its
a)
habitat.
b)
logistic growth.
c)
biotic potential.
d)
carrying capacity.
e)
ecological niche.
103.
Which of the following terms best describes the interaction between termites and the protozoans that feed in their gut?
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
competitive exclusion
d)
ectoparasitism
e)
endoparasitism
104.
The species richness of a community refers to the
a)
complexity of the food web.
b)
number of different species.
c)
the bottom-heavy shape of the energy pyramid.
d)
relative numbers of individuals in each species.
e)
total number of all organisms.
105.
You are most likely to observe primary succession in a terrestrial community when you visit a(n)
a)
tropical rain forest.
b)
abandoned field.
c)
recently burned forest.
d)
recently created volcanic island.
e)
recently plowed field.
106.
Many homeowners mow their lawns during the summer and collect the clippings, which are then hauled to the local landfill. Which of the following actions would most benefit the local ecosystem?
a)
Allow sheep to graze the lawn and then collect the sheep's feces to be delivered to the landfill.
b)
Collect the lawn clippings and burn them.
c)
Either collect the clippings and add them to a compost pile, or don't collect the clippings and let them decompose into the lawn.
d)
Collect the clippings and wash them into the nearest storm sewer that feeds into the local lake.
e)
Dig up the lawn and cover the yard with asphalt.
107.
Trophic efficiency is
a)
the ratio of net secondary production to assimilation of primary production.
b)
the percentage of production transferred from one trophic level to the next.
c)
a measure of how nutrients are cycled from one trophic level to the next.
d)
usually greater than production efficiencies.
e)
about 90% in most cosystems
108.
For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy are essentially the same-they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that
a)
secondary consumers and top carnivores require less energy than producers.
b)
) at each step, energy is lost from the system as a result of keeping the organisms alive.
c)
as matter passes through ecosystems, some of it is lost to the environment.
d)
biomagnification of toxic materials limits the secondary consumers and top carnivores.
e)
top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary producers.
109.
A cow's herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n)
a)
primary consumer.
b)
secondary consumer.
c)
decomposer.
d)
autotroph.
e)
producer.
110.
Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known benefits from the dwarf mistletoes. Which of the following best describes the interactions between dwarf mistletoes and trees?
a)
mutualism
b)
parasitism
c)
commensalism
d)
facilitation
e)
competition
Reset
