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Livestock Midterm

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 27hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Deoxyribonucleic acid; molecule which forms the genetic code

a)

DNA

b)

Homologs

c)

Diploid

d)

Nucleotides

e)

Metaphase Plate

2.

One pair of chromosomes having corresponding loci

a)

DNA

b)

Homologs

c)

Diploid

d)

Nucleotides

e)

Metaphase Plate

3.

Having a complete pair of chromosomes and located in body cells

a)

DNA

b)

Homologs

c)

Diploid

d)

Nucleotides

e)

Metaphase Plate

4.

Any of various compounds consisting of a nucleoside combined with a phosphate group and forming the basic constituent of DNA and RNA

a)

DNA

b)

Homologs

c)

Diploid

d)

Nucleotides

e)

Metaphase Plate

5.

Center of the cell, where chromosomes align preparing to split during metaphase

a)

DNA

b)

Homologs

c)

Diploid

d)

Nucleotides

e)

Metaphase Plate

6.

Group of four synapsed chromatids that become visible during the meiotic prophase

a)

Tetrad

b)

Genotype

c)

Qualitative Inheritance

d)

Heterosis

7.

Combination of genes at a single loci

a)

Tetrad

b)

Genotype

c)

Qualitative Inheritance

d)

Heterosis

8.

Inheritance of a character that differs in its expression amongst individuals of species

a)

Tetrad

b)

Genotype

c)

Qualitative Inheritance

d)

Heterosis

9.

Marked vigor or capacity for growth often exhibited by crossbred animals; hybrid vigor

a)

Tetrad

b)

Genotype

c)

Qualitative Inheritance

d)

Heterosis

10.

Outer covering of the a seed or fruit

a)

Hull

b)

Feed

c)

Bile

d)

Chyme

e)

Endocrine

11.

Grains and by-products fed to animals

a)

Hull

b)

Feed

c)

Bile

d)

Chyme

e)

Endocrine

12.

Thick yellowish digestive fluid aiding in the digestion of fats

a)

Hull

b)

Feed

c)

Bile

d)

Chyme

e)

Endocrine

13.

Partially digested mass of food from the stomach which is forced into the small intestines

a)

Hull

b)

Feed

c)

Bile

d)

Chyme

e)

Endocrine

14.

Glands which have no ducts and therefore release hormones into the interstitial spaces which surround the cells

a)

Hull

b)

Feed

c)

Bile

d)

Chyme

e)

Endocrine

15.

Process during which food is crushed or ground by the teeth

a)

Mastication

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Additives

d)

Cud

e)

Mineral

16.

Main source of energy; composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

a)

Mastication

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Additives

d)

Cud

e)

Mineral

17.

Substances added to food to preserve flavor or improve taste and appearance

a)

Mastication

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Additives

d)

Cud

e)

Mineral

18.

Food of a ruminant regurgitated to be chewed again

a)

Mastication

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Additives

d)

Cud

e)

Mineral

19.

Needed for digestion; to form skeletal structures and in metabolic processes within the body

a)

Mastication

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Additives

d)

Cud

e)

Mineral

20.

Interrelated steps involved in assimilating food by the animal for use in tissue repair, growth and normal function

a)

Nutrition

b)

Feedstuffs

c)

Ruminants

21.

Associated with animal feed

a)

Nutrition

b)

Feedstuffs

c)

Ruminants

22.

Multi-compartmented stomach; cattle and sheep

a)

Nutrition

b)

Feedstuffs

c)

Ruminants

23.

Vessels which carry blood away from the heart to the body tissues

a)

Arteries

b)

Sulci

c)

Expiration

24.

Grooves holding arteries and veins in the heart

a)

Arteries

b)

Sulci

c)

Expiration

25.

Letting air out of the lungs

a)

Arteries

b)

Sulci

c)

Expiration

26.

Animal’s genetic composition

a)

Genotype

b)

Dystocia

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Inbreeding Coefficient

e)

Rotational Crossbreeding System

27.

Abnormal, slow or difficult birth; usually because of ineffective contractions of the uterus

a)

Genotype

b)

Dystocia

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Inbreeding Coefficient

e)

Rotational Crossbreeding System

28.

Mating of related individuals in which the sire and dam share at least one ancestor

a)

Genotype

b)

Dystocia

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Inbreeding Coefficient

e)

Rotational Crossbreeding System

29.

Measure of how inbred an animal is (the probability two genes of a pair in an individual will be homozygous because they are replicates of a single ancestral gene)

a)

Genotype

b)

Dystocia

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Inbreeding Coefficient

e)

Rotational Crossbreeding System

30.

Designed to maximize hybrid vigor and produce replacement females through the rotation of different sire breeds

a)

Genotype

b)

Dystocia

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Inbreeding Coefficient

e)

Rotational Crossbreeding System

31.

System in which replacement females must be purchased from or produced in a separate population; also known as Terminal Crossbreeding System

a)

Static Crossbreeding System

b)

Modified Static Crossbreeding System

c)

Pen Mating

d)

Artificial Insemination (AI)

e)

Parturition

32.

System which differs from static crossbreeding programs because it is modified to produce replacement females

a)

Static Crossbreeding System

b)

Modified Static Crossbreeding System

c)

Pen Mating

d)

Artificial Insemination (AI)

e)

Parturition

33.

Used mostly by commercial breeders; males and females coexist throughout the breeding season or year round

a)

Static Crossbreeding System

b)

Modified Static Crossbreeding System

c)

Pen Mating

d)

Artificial Insemination (AI)

e)

Parturition

34.

Process by which semen from the male is placed into the reproductive tract of the female using mechanical means rather than by natural service

a)

Static Crossbreeding System

b)

Modified Static Crossbreeding System

c)

Pen Mating

d)

Artificial Insemination (AI)

e)

Parturition

35.

Act of giving birth

a)

Static Crossbreeding System

b)

Modified Static Crossbreeding System

c)

Pen Mating

d)

Artificial Insemination (AI)

e)

Parturition

36.

Cyclic period of sexual receptivity in mammals

a)

Estrus

b)

Embryo

c)

Corpus Luteum (CL)

d)

Palpated

e)

Motility

37.

Organism in its early stages of development

a)

Estrus

b)

Embryo

c)

Corpus Luteum (CL)

d)

Palpated

e)

Motility

38.

Yellow, progesterone-secreting mass of cells which forms from an ovarian follicle after the release of a mature egg

a)

Estrus

b)

Embryo

c)

Corpus Luteum (CL)

d)

Palpated

e)

Motility

39.

Examine or explore by touching

a)

Estrus

b)

Embryo

c)

Corpus Luteum (CL)

d)

Palpated

e)

Motility

40.

Ability to move spontaneously

a)

Estrus

b)

Embryo

c)

Corpus Luteum (CL)

d)

Palpated

e)

Motility

41.

Bones which make up the vertebral column and skull

a)

Axial Skeleton

b)

Quadruped

c)

Ligament

d)

Cartilage

e)

Skeletal Muscle

42.

Walks on four legs

a)

Axial Skeleton

b)

Quadruped

c)

Ligament

d)

Cartilage

e)

Skeletal Muscle

43.

Attaches bone to bone

a)

Axial Skeleton

b)

Quadruped

c)

Ligament

d)

Cartilage

e)

Skeletal Muscle

44.

Absorbs shock and provides flexible structure; reduces joint friction

a)

Axial Skeleton

b)

Quadruped

c)

Ligament

d)

Cartilage

e)

Skeletal Muscle

45.

Attached to bone, striated and voluntary

a)

Axial Skeleton

b)

Quadruped

c)

Ligament

d)

Cartilage

e)

Skeletal Muscle

46.

Process of chewing

a)

Mastication

b)

Colic

c)

Abomasum

d)

Reticular Groove

47.

Digestive disorder that is fatal in horses

a)

Mastication

b)

Colic

c)

Abomasum

d)

Reticular Groove

48.

True stomach

a)

Mastication

b)

Colic

c)

Abomasum

d)

Reticular Groove

49.

Allows milk to travel directly from the mouth to the abomasum in young ruminant animals such as calves and lambs

a)

Mastication

b)

Colic

c)

Abomasum

d)

Reticular Groove

50.

Which of the following is NOT a way to select parents in a breeding program?

a)

Grading up

b)

Visual selection

c)

Pedigree

d)

Expected Progeny Differences

51.

What is the proper term for the measure of how inbred an animal is?

a)

Inbreeding coefficient

b)

Inbreeding measurement

c)

Inbred ratio

d)

Inbreeding results

52.

Which system consists of breeding purebred sires to commercial females?

a)

Inbreeding

b)

Linebreeding

c)

Cross breeding

d)

Grading up

53.

Which crossbreeding system produces replacement females through the rotation and produces crossbred offspring?

a)

Rotational crossbreeding system

b)

Rotational - terminal crossbreeding system

c)

Static crossbreeding system

d)

Modified static crossbreeding system

54.

In a two breed rotational crossbreeding system, which generation and sire will have a 75 percent Breed A and 25 percent Breed B?

a)

First generation; Breed B

b)

Second generation; Breed A

c)

Third generation; Breed B

d)

Fourth generation; Breed A

55.

Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of embryo transfer?

a)

Greater use of genetically superior females

b)

Decreases time and supervision of female herd

c)

Fast way to acquire offspring for progeny testing

d)

Allow females with long gestation periods to meet their genetic material

56.

Pen mating is mostly used by which of the following?

a)

Commercial breeders

b)

Purebred breeders

c)

Inbreeding breeders

d)

Small operations

57.

What is the first step in developing a breeding program?

a)

Setting goals

b)

Choosing and weighing traits

c)

Determining measurement

d)

Devising a strategy for selecting parents

58.

What type of breeding system is designed to take advantage of both hybrid vigor and breeding value?

a)

Pure breeding

b)

Impure breeding

c)

Crossbreeding

d)

Multi-breeding

59.

What is hybrid vigor?

a)

Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds

b)

The value of an animal as a parent

c)

The performance expected from the progeny of each sire or dam

d)

The mating of related individuals in which the sire and dam share at least one ancestor

60.

Chromosomes are found in pairs. Each chromosome in a given pair is known as ______________ of the other.

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Homozygous

c)

Homologs

d)

Homozygous

e)

All of the above

61.

Chromosomes align in the center of the cell along the ___________.

a)

Core

b)

Axis plate

c)

Synapse sector

d)

Metaphase plate

e)

Cytoplasm divide

62.

After meiosis, each gene has an equal opportunity to be present in the germ cell. This law is known as _________.

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Law of Physical Expression

c)

Law of Heredity

d)

Law of Independent Assortment

e)

None of the above

63.

Adam is a producer and wants to develop EPDs for his herd. He keeps accurate records and needs to know which traits he should include on the EPDs. Which of the following should be included?

a)

Birth weights

b)

Milking yields

c)

Horned or polled

d)

Coat color

e)

Both A and B

64.

Larry is a producer and wants to save time when planning his artificial insemination program. He is able to control the ovulation in all his female recipients. This process is referred to as _____________.

a)

Control birthing

b)

Ovulation sequence

c)

Selective mating

d)

Estrus synchronization

e)

None of the above

65.

CIDR stands for_____________.

a)

Compound Implant Does Recipient

b)

Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release

c)

Controlled Intramuscular Does Release

d)

Compound Implant Drug Recipient

66.

Sarah is a swine producer and wants to incorporate a new breeding method in her operation. Which method is most commonly used in the swine industry?

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

Embryo transfer

c)

Natural selection

d)

Cloning

e)

Both B and C

67.

Which is a technique producers use for collecting semen in cattle?

a)

Gloved-hand technique

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Electroejaculation

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

68.

Which of the following is the first section of the small intestine?

a)

Jejunum

b)

Ileum

c)

Duodenum

d)

Pancreas

69.

Which of the following minerals plays an important role in DNA, RNA and protein production?

a)

Zinc

b)

Iodine

c)

Sulfur

d)

Cobalt

70.

Which of the following is the main source of energy?

a)

Minerals

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Vitamins

71.

Which of the following is an ideal grain for starting cattle on feed?

a)

Oats

b)

Rye

c)

Barley

d)

Triticale

72.

Which of the following is affected by harvesting and handling methods?

a)

Palatability

b)

Feed quality

c)

Hay quality

d)

Rations

73.

The muscular tube which takes food from the mouth to the stomach is known as which of the following?

a)

Ruminant

b)

Microbes

c)

Jejunum

d)

Esophagus

74.

Carbohydrates make up what percentage of the dry weight in grass, forages and roughages?

a)

65 to 75

b)

35 to 45

c)

5 to 15

d)

75 to 85

75.

Which of the following is the largest and first compartment of a ruminant stomach?

a)

Aejunum

b)

Abomasum

c)

Reticulum

d)

Rumen

76.

What type of mineral block is usually a white color?

a)

Sodium

b)

Trace

c)

Calcium

d)

Salt

77.

Which of the following minerals plays an important role in DNA and RNA production?

a)

Potassium

b)

Iodine

c)

Zinc

d)

Manganese

78.

The integrated steps involved in assimilating food by the animal for use in tissue repair, growth and normal function is??

a)

nutrition

b)

nutrients

c)

a diet

d)

a ration

79.

A mixture of feedstuffs used to supply nutrients to an animal is

a)

a diet

b)

feed

c)

food

d)

a ration

80.

For every pound of feed consumed by the animal

a)

two to five pounds of water will be consumed

b)

six to nine pounds of water will be consumed

c)

10-14 pounds of water will be consumed

d)

15-18 pounds of water will be consumed

81.

Pelleting, hammermilling, rollermilling and steam flaking are examples of

a)

processing

b)

extrusion

c)

rations

d)

diets

82.

The composition of the feed and the manufacturers location

a)

would not be listed anywhere

b)

would be listed on the feed tag

c)

would be listed on the sack

d)

would be listed at the store

83.

Which of the following is an example of a ruminant?

a)

steer

b)

horse

c)

pig

d)

chicken

84.

The nutrient composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is

a)

protein

b)

water

c)

fat

d)

carbohydrates

85.

The major source of energy for animals is

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrates

c)

vitamins

d)

minerals

86.

The cereal grain popular as a feed for horses is

a)

grain sorghum

b)

wheat

c)

oats

d)

barley

87.

What is a human's organ of prehension?

a)

mouth

b)

teeth

c)

hand

d)

eye

88.

What is the cecum?

a)

a blind sack

b)

a site of microbial digestion

c)

a thin-walled structure

d)

all of the choices

89.

What is the chicken's true stomach?

a)

gizzard

b)

proventriculus

c)

crop

d)

cloaca

90.

The cecum is comparable to what human organ?

a)

gallbladder

b)

pancreas

c)

liver

d)

appendix

91.

What is the function of the esophagus in ruminants?

a)

carry material down

b)

carry material back up

c)

none of the choices

d)

both carry material down and back up

92.

How many stomach compartments does a ruminant have?

a)

three

b)

two

c)

one

d)

four

93.

If a horse is overfed, the excess feed escapes into what organ?

a)

small intestine

b)

large intestine or proximal colon

c)

stomach

d)

gallbladder

94.

What is another term used for proximal colon?

a)

small intestine

b)

large intestine

c)

rumen

d)

reticulum

95.

What structure aids milk in passing directly from the mouth to the abomasum in pre-ruminants?

a)

reticular groove

b)

omasum

c)

rumen

d)

cecum

96.

How many chambers are in the heart?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

97.

The only type of artery in the body which carries deoxygenated blood is ______.

a)

A superior vena cava

b)

An inferior vena cava

c)

A pulmonary artery

d)

An aorta

98.

Which chamber has the thickest muscular wall?

a)

The right atrium

b)

The left atrium

c)

Aortic semi-lunar valve

d)

Bicuspid valve

99.

The right lung is composed of how many lobes?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

100.

The trachea divides into two branches called the _________.

a)

Sulci

b)

Bronchi

c)

Chordae tendineae

d)

Cusps

101.

What structure helps to prevent food from entering the sinus cavity during swallowing?

a)

The uvula

b)

The epiglottis

c)

The bronchi

d)

The chordae tendineae

102.

Identify the waste gas removed from the blood during expiration.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Water

d)

All of the above

103.

The left lung is composed of how many lobes?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

104.

The peripheral nervous system includes the _________.

a)

Brain stem

b)

Spinal cord

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Cerebellum

105.

The central nervous system includes the _________.

a)

Peripheral nervous system

b)

Spinal cord

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic nervous system

106.

Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

a)

Protection

b)

Locomotion

c)

Blood production

d)

All of the above

107.

Tendons attach _______ to _______.

a)

Muscle/muscle

b)

Bone/bone

c)

Muscle/bone

d)

Red fibers/white fibers

108.

Muscle contraction results in muscle fiber becoming _______.

a)

Shorter

b)

Longer

c)

Smooth

d)

None of the above