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2020 APES Fall Exam Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

On the slopes of the Appalachian Mountains, ecologists have studied some closely related salamander species for decades. When these salamander species live in separate valleys they tend to have very similar food size choices. When these species co-exist in a mountain valley, their food choices tend to differ, with some species selecting small insects and others selecting larger insects. This may be an example of

a)

competitive exclusion.

b)

resource partitioning.

c)

habitat fragmentation.

d)

mutualism.

e)

commensalism

2.

Because the black rhinoceros is a keystone species

a)

removal of the rhinoceros would cause drastic changes in the ecological structure of its community.

b)

it is the largest organism in its community.

c)

it lives in large cooperative herds that dominate other species in its community.

d)

it eats more than any other species in its community.

e)

its populations are larger than populations of other organisms in its community.

3.

Use Figure 4-8. In which biome would you expect to find in an area with an average temperature of 10o C and 100 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Tundra

b)

Boreal forest

c)

Temperate rainforest

d)

Temperate grassland

e)

Temperate seasonal forest

4.

Which of the following is a characteristic of tropical rain forests? AP

a)

They rarely receive more than 100 centimeters of rain per year.

b)

Their soils typically have a high pH.

c)

Their soils are relatively poor in nutrients.

d)

They do not exhibit a great deal of species diversity.

e)

They generally occur in the rain shadows of mountain ranges.

5.

Which is NOT an ecological service provided by wetlands?

a)

Wetlands store rainwater.

b)

Wetlands are frequently used for agriculture because of the suitability of the soil.

c)

Wetlands provide breeding site for birds and fish.

d)

Wetlands slowly release water into the ground and streams.

e)

Wetlands filter pollutants from water.

6.

Eutrophic lakes

a)

have very low productivity as a result of acid rain.

b)

have very high productivity as a result of high levels of nutrients.

c)

have low nutrient levels.

d)

are formed by glaciers.

e)

usually have no fish.

7.

Coral bleaching refers to

a)

the effect of phosphates on coral reefs.

b)

the result of overfishing in coral reefs.

c)

the effect of a coral parasite.

d)

the death of algae within the tissue of corals.

e)

an invasive species of white corals found in the Caribbean.

8.

What is the affect of deforestation on the carbon cycle?

a)

Increase in the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere

b)

Decrease in the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere

c)

Increase in the amount of photosynthesis

d)

Increase in the amount of cellular respiration performed by producers

e)

Deforestation has no impact on the carbon cycle

9.

What happens during nitrogen fixation?

a)

Bacteria in the soil convert nitrate into nitrogen gas and nitrous oxide.

b)

Nitrogen wastes are converted by bacteria into ammonium.

c)

Organisms convert nitrogen into carbon dioxide and energy.

d)

Atmospheric nitrogen diffuses into the soil and is converted into ammonia.

e)

Nitrogen is absorbed by plants.

10.

Major anthropogenic sources of nitrogen pollution include commercial fertilizers, vehicle exhaust, industrial air pollution, and

a)

disposal of refrigeration units

b)

discharge of sewage to surface waters

c)

ocean dumping of trash

d)

use of persistent pesticides

e)

oil spills like those in the Gulf of Mexico

11.

Which process uses water to transport nutrients through soil?

a)

Infiltration

b)

Percolation

c)

Decomposition

d)

Leaching

e)

Nitrification

12.

How does an algal bloom affect the oxygen content of the water?

a)

An algal bloom will cause the oxygen content in the water to increase overall.

b)

An algal bloom will cause the oxygen content in the water to decrease, leading to hypoxic condition

c)

An algal bloom will have no impact on the oxygen content of the water.

d)

An algal bloom will cause rapid fluctuations of oxygen in the water.

e)

An algal bloom will cause the oxygen content to vary based on depth of the water.

13.

A forest has a GPP of 3.8 kg C/m2/year and the rate of cellular respiration is 2.4 kg C/m2/year. What is the NPP?

a)

6.2 kg C/m2/year

b)

1.4 kg C/m2/year

c)

1.0 kg C/m2/year

d)

9.12 kg C/m2/year

e)

1.58 kg C/m2/year

14.

Which best describes the concept of gross primary production?

a)

Total amount of energy available to primary consumers

b)

Total amount of energy available from the Sun

c)

Total amount of solar energy that producers capture via photosynthesis

d)

Total amount of energy available within an ecosystem

e)

Total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

15.

The terrestrial biomes shown in the diagram above vary in net primary productivity. The explanation for the variation includes which of the following?


I. Temperature

II. Precipitation

III. Longitude

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II only

e)

II and III only

16.

Choose the correct sequence for energy flow within an ecosystem

a)

Herbivores --> producers --> carnivores --> scavengers

b)

Producers --> herbivores --> carnivores --> scavengers

c)

Producers --> carnivores --> herbivores --> carnivores

d)

Scavengers --> producers --> herbivores --> carnivores

e)

Carnivores --> scavengers --> producers --> herbivores

17.

Use Figure 3-1. Which organism is a secondary consumer?

a)

Zebra

b)

Beetle

c)

Lion

d)

Earthworm

e)

Giraffe

18.

Use Figure 3-3. Looking at the ecological pyramid above, what would be the most likely number of joules to fill in x, y, and z?

a)

x =100; y =1000; z =10,000

b)

x =1; y=500; z =10,000

c)

x =10,000; y= 500; z =1

d)

x =50; y=50,000; z =500,000

e)

x =10,000; y =1000; z =10

19.

In an estuary a zooplankton consumes a phytoplankton with a small globule of PCBs attached to it. A fish consumes the zooplankton as well as many other zooplankton. A larger fish consumes the small fish and then a gull consumes the larger fish. The increased concentration of the chemical at the top of the food chain is an example of

a)

biomagnification.

b)

bioaccumulation.

c)

synergistic properties.

d)

PCB persistence.

e)

synergistic interactions.

20.

What is a watershed?

a)

A network of streams leading to a larger river

b)

A network of rivers and bays that lead to the ocean

c)

A reservoir of water stored underground

d)

An area of land that drains to a particular water body

e)

An extensive wetland system leading to a bay

21.

What is most significant when determining the diversity of an ecosystem?

a)

The number of organisms present

b)

The number of species present

c)

The amount of land the ecosystem covers

d)

The amount of precipitation an ecosystem receives

e)

The interactions between producers and consumers

22.

Use Figure 5-1. Which is the best description of the two communities shown?

a)

Community 1 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 2.

b)

Community 1 has a higher evenness and higher richness than Community 2.

c)

Community 1 has a higher evenness and equal richness to Community 2.

d)

Community 2 has a higher evenness and higher richness than Community 1.

e)

Community 2 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 1.

23.

A river contains two species of trout—brown trout and rainbow trout. Brown trout survive in temperatures between 40 and 73 degrees Fahrenheit. Rainbow trout survive in temperatures between 60 and 78 degrees Fahrenheit. The population of rainbow trout is much larger than the population of brown trout. A cold spell causes the river water temperature to fall to 58 degrees. The rainbow trout begin to die and the brown trout populations are unaffected. This is because brown trout have

a)

a smaller population size.

b)

larger range of tolerance in regard to temperature.

c)

a greater level of genetic recombination.

d)

an adaptation to be able to survive in warm water.

e)

resilience to any variability in temperature changes

24.

Earthworms live in many grass and forest ecosystems, and aerate soil as they burrow. They ingest organic matter and travel between soil horizons. These traits, taken collectively, refer to the __________ of the earthworm.

a)

niche

b)

habitat

c)

community profile

d)

ecosystem profile

e)

resource partition profile

25.

Which is NOT one of the five ecosystem services that are used to calculate instrumental value?

a)

Species biodiversity

b)

Resilience

c)

Support systems

d)

Regulating services

e)

Provisions

26.

Products obtained from nature that humans can use such as lumber, medicines and food crops are known as

a)

ecological benefits.

b)

provisions.

c)

supplies.

d)

service values.

e)

intrinsically valuable.

27.

Processes that help to balance the ecosystems, such as balancing nutrient cycling, are known as

a)

provisions.

b)

regulating services.

c)

support systems.

d)

resilience.

e)

cultural services.

28.

Madagascar and the Seychelles are both islands in the western Indian Ocean. Madagascar is over 1,000 times larger than the Seychelles. Using the theory of island biogeography an ecologist would predict that

a)

there is greater species richness on Madagascar.

b)

there is less species richness on Madagascar.

c)

there is a higher species density in the Seychelles.

d)

the species richness is the same on both islands.

e)

there are more niche specialists in the Seychelles.

29.

In Europe, half of all livestock breeds from 1900 are now extinct. Of the remaining livestock, over one third are currently at risk of extinction. This decline in livestock diversity is largely the result of

a)

famines and droughts over the last century, which have limited the quantity of food.

b)

natural selection of species in domestic settings, which has limited genetic diversity.

c)

humans breeding only the most productive types of livestock, which has reduced livestock species.

d)

climate change in Europe, which has caused many species to go extinct.

e)

pesticide use across the continent, which has caused inbreeding depression.

30.

What is the IUCN label for species that are at high risk of extinction?

a)

Threatened

b)

Declining

c)

Near-threatened

d)

Species of least concern

e)

Endemic

31.

Non-local species that spread rapidly across large areas are known as

a)

alien species.

b)

invasive species.

c)

exotic species.

d)

native species.

e)

endangered species.

32.

What is the primary reason that species are overharvested?

a)

Market demand for goods associated with a species

b)

Apathy towards species conservation

c)

Lack of awareness about endangering species

d)

Lack of legislation to protect species

e)

Lack of food support from the United Nations

33.

Increased emissions of CO2 has led to an increase in ocean acidification. This increase in ocean acidification (decrease in pH) can cause calcium carbonate to dissolve, and therefore disrupt the ability of marine organisms to make or protect shells. What does this example illustrate?

a)

How climate change can decrease marine biodiversity

b)

How climate change can increase marine biodiversity

c)

How artificial selection operates in marine biomes

d)

How natural selection affects survival

e)

How calcium carbonate bioaccumulates in the ocean

34.

The greatest threat to the northern spotted owl population is

a)

commercial salmon harvesting groups.

b)

increased soil erosion near owl watering holes.

c)

continued logging of old growth forests in the Pacific Northwest.

d)

coal mining in the Ohio River valley.

e)

acid deposition.

35.

__________ succession begins on bare rock after glaciers have passed, or on newly formed volcanic islands.

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Climax

d)

Pioneer

e)

Tertiary

36.

The first plant community that forms on bare rock often includes organisms such as

a)

herbs and conifers.

b)

grasses and weeds.

c)

broad-leaf trees and conifers.

d)

lichens and mosses

e)

woody shrubs and conifers.

37.

Which is a density-independent factor that can limit population size?

a)

Predation

b)

Weather

c)

Availability of nest sites

d)

Competition

e)

Food quantity

38.

Following the exponential growth stage of Paramecium in Gause’s experiment, a population graph would begin to display an ________ -shaped curve as the population approaches ___________ .

a)

S; carrying capacity

b)

J: carrying capacity

c)

S; secondary succession

d)

J; density maximization

e)

J; logistic growth

39.

A population of rabbits, introduced to an island, has rapid growth for a few years and then slows. What is a likely reason for this pattern?

a)

The carrying capacity has been reached.

b)

The sex ratio has changed.

c)

Immigration has diminished.

d)

The intrinsic growth rate has changed.

e)

The population has experienced a die-off.

40.

The ___________ growth model is used to predict the growth of populations that are subject to density-______________ constraints, such as increased competition for food, water, or nest sites.

a)

logistic; dependent

b)

logistic; independent

c)

exponential; independent

d)

exponential: dependent

e)

exponential; carrying capacity

41.

Use Figure 6-1 to select the option that correctly labels point A and point B.

a)

A = point where overshoot begins; B = growth rate

b)

A = point where growth begins to slow; B = carrying capacity

c)

A = point of slowest growth; B = carrying capacity

d)

A = point where growth begins to slow; B = growth rate

e)

A = point where die-off begins; B = highest growth rate

42.

Which pattern describes a type I survivorship curve?

a)

Low survivorship early in life with few individuals reaching adulthood

b)

Low survivorship early in life with many individuals reaching adulthood

c)

Constant decline in survivorship throughout most of the lifespan

d)

High survival throughout the lifespan until individuals die in old age

e)

High survival throughout the lifespan until individuals die during adolescence

43.

Which of the following is not a K-selected species?

a)

Elephant

b)

Human

c)

Mouse

d)

Panda

e)

Zebra

44.

Climate change poses a threat to niches of living organisms and to their survival. Niche ____________ are more likely to survive changing climate conditions because ______________.

a)

specialists; they have a variety of food sources and acceptable temperature ranges

b)

specialists; they are more populous on Earth

c)

generalists; they have a variety of food sources and acceptable habitats

d)

specialists; they have a larger quantity of available food sources

e)

generalists; they have less competition

45.

A koala’s diet is mainly composed of eucalyptus leaves. Although eucalyptus leaves are low in nutritional value and poisonous to many animals, koalas inhabit eucalyptus woodlands and generally sleep on the trees themselves. In this example the koala is most likely

a)

a niche generalist.

b)

a community specialist.

c)

a habitat specialist.

d)

a niche specialist.

e)

a habitat generalist.

46.

Choose the description that best describes this graph

a)

Type I could represent the house mouse which is a typical r-selected species

b)

Type III could represent elephants which are typical K-selected species

c)

Type I could represent an oak tree species that experiences very low survivorships early and late in life

d)

Type II could represent a coral species that has a constant decline in survivorship throughout its life

47.

Malthus believed that human populations grow ____ while food supply grows ____.

a)

linearly; exponentially

b)

linearly; sigmoidally

c)

exponentially; linearly

d)

exponentially; logarithmically

e)

logarithmically; exponentially

48.

What has historically kept the world population out of food deficit?

a)

Private charity

b)

Exponential population growth

c)

Food surpluses from developed nations

d)

Innovations in agricultural practices

e)

Government assistance

49.

The total fertility rate (TFR) is an estimate of

a)

the average number of children in a population that will survive past infancy.

b)

the average number of years an infant born in a population can be expected to live.

c)

the average number of children each woman in a population will bear.

d)

the number of births per 1000 people per year in a particular population.

e)

the percentage of women in a population that have borne at least one child.

50.

What shape is the age structure diagram of a typical developing nation?

a)

Column

b)

Inverted triangle

c)

Pyramid

d)

Diamond

e)

Circular

51.

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10 percent would double in

a)

7 years.

b)

10 years.

c)

15 years.

d)

17 years.

e)

70 years.

52.

Use Figure 7-1. Population B would most likely be in which phase of demographic transition?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

Between 3 and 4

53.

According to the theory of demographic transition, rapid growth occurs during phase

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

54.

According to the theory of demographic transition, birth rates decline during phase

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

Between 1 and 2.

55.

Haiti has an ecological footprint of 0.5 ha per capita. Haiti’s population is currently approximately 10 million citizens, and an area of 2.7 million ha. What is the total ecological footprint of Haiti?

a)

1.35 million ha

b)

1.5 million ha

c)

2.7 million ha

d)

5 million ha

e)

10 million ha

56.

What is the importance of the ozone layer?

a)

It contributes to the greenhouse effect.

b)

It prevents gamma radiation from reaching Earth’s surface.

c)

It converts UV radiation to IR radiation.

d)

It absorbs incoming UV rays.

e)

It reflects incoming heat back into space.

57.

Use Figure 4-3. Which zone is the exosphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

58.

Which of the following is NOT true about the Sun’s energy heating Earth?

a)

The angle at which the Sun’s rays hit Earth depends on the latitude.

b)

The Sun’s rays are concentrated over a smaller surface area at the equator than in higher latitudes.

c)

The polar regions reflect more sunlight than the tropical regions.

d)

The Sun’s rays are more strongly reflected in the lower latitudes.

e)

The unequal heating of Earth helps determine an area’s climate.

59.

What latitude receives the most direct sunlight throughout the year?

a)

90o N

b)

30o- 60o N

c)

0o

d)

30o- 60o S

e)

90o S

60.

Use Figure 4-2. According to the figure, which has the highest albedo?

a)

Asphalt

b)

Fresh snow

c)

Forest

d)

Croplands

e)

Water

61.

Ground level ozone is classified as a pollutant because it reduces lung function and

a)

its concentrations are low but the particle size is high.

b)

it occurs in the atmosphere only.

c)

it is entirely anthropogenic in nature.

d)

it can degrade plant surfaces.

e)

it is an unstable molecule.

62.

Which chemical reaction produces tropospheric ozone?

a)

NO2 + O3 --> NO4 + O

b)

O2 + O2 --> O3

c)

SO2 + O2 --> SO2 + O3

d)

NO + O3 --> NO2 + O2

e)

NO2 + O2 --> NO + O3

63.

In the stratosphere, diatomic oxygen (O2) can be separated into two free oxygen atoms by

a)

CFCs.

b)

VOCs.

c)

UV radiation.

d)

infrared radiation.

e)

sulfur dioxide.

64.

How do CFCs affect ozone production?

a)

UV radiation frees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone.

b)

Infrared radiation frees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone.

c)

UV radiation frees a fluorine atom, which breaks down ozone.

d)

Infrared radiation frees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone.

e)

UV radiation frees a carbon atom, which breaks down ozone.

65.

The depletion of ozone over Antarctica is greatest during

a)

August through November.

b)

December through February.

c)

February through May.

d)

June through August.

e)

December and June.

66.

Which is NOT associated with the thinning ozone layer?

a)

Increased incidences of asthma

b)

Increased incidences of skin cancer

c)

Increased incidences of cataracts

d)

Reduction in photosynthetic activity in plants

e)

Suppressed immune system

67.

Use Figure 4-1. Which position would correspond with winter in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

68.

What is the best explanation for the amount of rain that occurs at the equator?

a)

A high amount of wind at the equator leads to storms and rain.

b)

A large amount of water in the equatorial oceans leads to more rain.

c)

Warm air rises at the equator condenses at a high altitude, and falls back to Earth as rain.

d)

Low pressure at the equator causes warm air to spread out and release moisture.

e)

As the air rises, it becomes warmer and releases moisture back to Earth as rain.

69.

Use Figure 4-5. A plane leaves the North Pole. Initially, it flies directly south towards point B. Which is the most likely landing site for the plane if it maintains a straight path to the south?

a)

Site A

b)

Site B

c)

Site C

d)

Site D

e)

Site A or D

70.

You observe a mountain that has lush vegetation on one side and a dry desert on the other side. What is a likely explanation for this pattern?

a)

Acid rain is affecting the dryer, desert side.

b)

The dryer side does not have as much nutrients in the soil.

c)

The heavily vegetated side receives more sunlight.

d)

The dry side is the result of the rain shadow effect.

e)

The heavily vegetated side is a protected preserve.

71.

The Coriolis effect and prevailing winds contribute to the formation of gyres in the oceans. Which direction do these gyres flow in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

North to south

b)

South to north

c)

Clockwise

d)

Counterclockwise

e)

East to west

72.

As water freezes or evaporates, what happens to the salinity of the remaining ocean water?

a)

Salinity decreases

b)

Salinity increases

c)

There is no change to salinity

d)

Salinity increases as water freezes, decreases as water evaporates

e)

Salinity increases as water evaporates, decreases as water freezes

73.

In what location does El Niño occur?

a)

Tropical Atlantic Ocean

b)

Northern Atlantic Ocean

c)

Tropical Pacific Ocean

d)

Northern Pacific Ocean

e)

Indian Ocean

74.

Magma circulates in convection cells in Earth's

a)

crust.

b)

asthenosphere.

c)

core.

d)

lithosphere.

e)

mid-ocean ridge.

75.

What happens at a hot spot?

a)

Water rises.

b)

Plates spread.

c)

Magma rises.

d)

Fault zones appear.

e)

Magma sinks.

76.

Which best describes the theory of plate tectonics?

a)

Earth’s asthenosphere is divided into plates, which move.

b)

Earth’s mantle is divided into plates, which move.

c)

Earth’s lithosphere is divided into plates, which move.

d)

Earth’s core is divided into plates, which move.

e)

The crust of the Earth is solid.

77.

Use Figure 8-1. The asthenosphere is shown at

a)

point B.

b)

point C.

c)

point E.

d)

point G.

e)

point I.

78.

What is the difference between weathering and erosion?

a)

Weathering is a chemical process; erosion is strictly physical.

b)

Weathering refers to the breakdown of rock; erosion refers to the removal of rock from its landscape.

c)

Erosion refers to the breakdown of rock; weathering refers to the removal of rock from its landscape.

d)

Weathering happens in the tropics; erosion happens in temperate climates.

e)

Weathering occurs from wind; erosion happens from water.

79.

Soil is

a)

richest in the humid tropics because warm temperatures and high rain cause rapid decomposition.

b)

nutrient poor in the humid tropics because high rain leaches nutrients from the ground.

c)

most fertile nearest to the poles because it contains high amounts of decomposed organic matter.

d)

thickest on steep slopes in very dry areas because nutrients do not get leached away.

e)

low in organic matter on the surface in temperate areas because of rapid decomposition.

80.

Mineral nutrients are present primarily in the

a)

A horizon, the zone of eluviation.

b)

B horizon, the subsoil.

c)

E horizon, the zone of leaching.

d)

C horizon, the parent rock.

e)

B horizon, the topsoil.

81.

Use Figure 8-3. In Figure 8-3, what is the percentage of sand, silt, and clay at point A?

a)

40 percent sand, 20 percent silt, 40 percent clay

b)

40 percent sand, 30 percent silt, 10 percent clay

c)

30 percent sand, 40 percent silt, 30 percent clay

d)

40 percent sand, 40 percent silt, 20 percent clay

e)

35 percent sand, 35 percent silt, 30 percent clay

82.

Soil degradation is caused by

a)

compaction from heavy machinery.

b)

burrowing animals such as earthworms.

c)

nitrogen fixing bacteria.

d)

animal waste.

e)

invasive species.

83.

Which pesticide breaks down relatively rapidly?

a)

Persistent herbicide

b)

Nonpersistent herbicide

c)

Persistent insecticide

d)

Nonpersistent insecticide

e)

Synthetic pesticides

84.

An orange grower sprays a pesticide over the orchard to eradicate a worm eating the oranges. The next day, many dead honeybees are found throughout the orchard. The pesticide was probably

a)

a genetically modified pesticide.

b)

a selective pesticide.

c)

a broad-spectrum pesticide.

d)

a nonpersistent pesticide.

e)

an organic pesticide.

85.

Which areas of the world are most susceptible to desertification?

a)

Existing deserts

b)

Humid equatorial regions

c)

Temporal chaparral

d)

Areas adjacent to the poles

e)

Areas adjacent to existing deserts

86.

Which statement about sustainable agriculture is NOT true?

a)

Sustainable agriculture is often based on traditional agriculture techniques.

b)

Sustainable agriculture emphasizes long-term use of the land.

c)

Because sustainable agriculture is labor intensive, it is expensive in areas with high labor costs.

d)

Sustainable agriculture does not take into account the economic viability of the farmer.

e)

Sustainable agriculture uses techniques to protect soil substrate and nutrients.

87.

No-till farming will most likely to lead to all of the following except a

a)

decrease in the use of herbicides.

b)

decrease in wind erosion.

c)

decrease in water erosion.

d)

regeneration of natural soil horizons.

e)

reduction in CO2 emissions from the soil.

88.

Which is NOT a technique of integrated pest management (IPM)?

a)

Crop rotation

b)

Intercropping

c)

Planting herbicide resistant crops

d)

Habitat creation for pest predators

e)

Increased use of traditional pesticides

89.

Which is a strategy to practice intercropping?

a)

Planting carrots and lettuce in the same field to promote synergistic interaction

b)

Planting carrots every odd calendar year and planting lettuce every even calendar year

c)

Planting carrots on an even interval throughout the entire field

d)

Planting carrots on one half of a field, while the remaining portion remains fallow

e)

Clearing land for carrot production for a few years and then moving to a new location

90.

Spray irrigation

a)

was the first type of irrigation used.

b)

is 75-95 percent efficient.

c)

is valuable because it does not use much energy.

d)

is the least water intensive type of irrigation.

e)

is the most efficient type of irrigation.