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January 1997 Diploma Exam

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 2hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A likely explanation of how receptors in the human brain are stimulated by opiates is that opiates

a)

bind to neurotransmitters

b)

act in the same way as cholinesterase

c)

increase the strength of action potentials

d)

have molecular shapes similar to neurotransmitters

2.

The neuron in an experiment is taken from a spinal cord. The propagation of an action potential in the neuron was slower than the 24 m/s that is typical with sensory neurons. Why?

a)

Myelination was absent in this spinal neuron

b)

Axon length is much longer in sensory neurons

c)

The Nodes of Ranvier were absent in sensory neurons

d)

The neurotransmitters were blocked in this spinal neuron

3.

The voltmeter showed a negative reading and the sodium ion concentration remained constant outside the axon. How could this be explained?

a)

The threshold for the neuron was not reached

b)

The sodium pump had exhausted ATP reserves

c)

The action potential was established and sustained

d)

The dendrites were stimulated by release of acetylcholine

4.

In a resting neuron, the outside of the cell membrane is

a)

positive, and the sodium ion concentration is greater in the fluid outside the axon than in the cytoplasm

b)

negative, and the sodium ion concentration is greater in the fluid outside the axon than in the cytoplasm

c)

positive, and the sodium ion concentration is greater in the cytoplasm than in the fluid outside the axon

d)

negative, and the sodium ion concentration is greater in the cytoplasm than in the fluid outside the axon

5.

Which correctly identifies the most likely location of lesions in each disease?

a)

Location of lesions in fatal familial insomnia: cerebellum

Location of lesions in Creutzfeldt/Jakob disease: hypothalamus

b)

Location of lesions in fatal familial insomnia: medulla oblongata

Location of lesions in Creutzfeldt/Jakob disease: hypothalamus

c)

Location of lesions in fatal familial insomnia: cerebellum

Location of lesions in Creutzfeldt/Jakob disease: cerebrum

d)

Location of lesions in fatal familial insomnia: medulla oblongata

Location of lesions in Creutzfeldt/Jakob disease: cerebrum

6.

The mutated DNA triplet 178 would be transcribed to the mRNA codon

a)

AAC

b)

TTG

c)

UUG

d)

GAC

7.

What are the structures that are responsible for the production of the components of semen (in lowest-to-highest numerical order)?

(a)  

8.

The structures that are directly affected by hormones secreted from the pituitary gland are structures

a)

6, 9, and 10

b)

9, 10, and 13

c)

8, 10, and 11

d)

8, 11, and 13

9.

What point on the diagram is best matched with the correct event?

a)

Point 1 - ovulation

b)

Point 2 - menstruation

c)

Point 3 - formation of the follicle

d)

Point 4 - formation of the corpus luteum

10.

Provide the sequence of numbers for the terms that would correctly complete the following statement:

During human fertilization, ____ gametes produced by ____ unite to form a ____ zygote that undergoes ____ to form a fetus.

(a)  

11.

Which hormone, if given to the egg donor, would promote the growth and development of ova?

a)

LH

b)

FSH

c)

Estrogen

d)

Progesterone

12.

During the process of implantation, the enzymes secreted by the

a)

ovum digest the zygote membrane

b)

sperm digest the zygote membrane

c)

blastocyst digest a portion of the endometrium

d)

blastocyst digest a portion of the corpus luteum

13.

If a substance was present in the embryo that inactivated the MIH hormone, males babies would be born with

a)

female reproductive ducts and male sex chromosomes

b)

male reproductive ducts and female sex chromosomes

c)

male reproductive ducts and female secondary sex characteristics

d)

female reproductive ducts and female secondary sex characteristics

14.

Which is a logical inference derived from this information?

a)

Male and female embryos would be anatomically similar at one stage of their development

b)

The genital ridge would continue to secrete sex hormones during the remaining seven months of pregnancy

c)

Injection of large quantities of testosterone into a pregnant female would change the sex chromosomes of the developing embryo

d)

Injection of large quantities of estrogen into a pregnant female would enhance the development of existing sex organs in the embryo

15.

The increasing level of HCG from the time of fertilization until week 8 serves to

a)

maintain the function of the corpus luteum

b)

determine the sex of the developing embryo

c)

inhibit the development of the endometrium

d)

direct the processes of ovulation and fertilization

16.

Removal of the mother's ovaries before the seventh week of pregnancy leads to a miscarriage. After 12 weeks, removal of the ovaries usually has no effect on pregnancy. An explanation for these observations is that

a)

after 12 weeks, the endometrium is easily shed

b)

after 12 weeks, the placenta maintains the pregnancy

c)

the follicle remains well developed for at least 12 weeks

d)

implantation is not firmly established until the 12th week

17.

Sequence the events that occur during breast feeding.

(a)  

18.

Which hormones would be used in the hormone therapy treatment of endometriosis?

a)

FSH and LH

b)

LH and estrogen

c)

FSH and progesterone

d)

Progesterone and estrogen

19.

The process of fertilization would be directly affected by scarring resulting from endometriosis in structure

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

20.

At puberty, the LH in the human male directly

a)

inhibits the production of sperm

b)

stimulates the production of testosterone

c)

causes the growth of facial and body hair

d)

stimulates the maturation of the seminiferous tubules

21.

The two point-mutations in DNA that would change the code for oxytocin to ADH occur

a)

at 1, where T would be replaced by A

at 2, where A would be replaced by C

b)

at 1, where A would be replaced by T

at 2, where C would be replaced by A

c)

at 1, where U would be replaced by A

at 2, where U would be replaced by G

d)

at 1, where U would be replaced by A

at 2, where G would be replaced by U

22.

If a pregnant woman failed to produce oxytocin, what would be the result?

a)

Urination would be more frequent

b)

ADH levels in the bloodstream would drop

c)

Uterine contractions would not begin for labour

d)

Oxytocin levels would increase in the bloodstream

23.

Although the adenine base composition of DNA from the above organisms is very similar, these organisms vary greatly in their characteristics. The cause of this variation is that the DNA molecules of the respective organisms contain different

a)

pairings of nitrogen bases

b)

sugars in their nucleotides

c)

sequences of nitrogen bases

d)

proteins in their nucleotides

24.

Which correctly identifies processes 1 and 2 and indicates the locations in which these processes occur?

a)

Process 1: transcription - nucleus

Process 2: translation - cytoplasm

b)

Process 1: translation - cytoplasm

Process 2: transcription - nucleus

c)

Process 1: translation - nucleus

Process 2: transcription - cytoplasm

d)

Process 1: transcription - cytoplasm

Process 2: translation - nucleus

25.

Using the DNA sequence TCAGGA, the dipeptide formed is

a)

threonine, glycine

b)

threonine, proline

c)

serine, proline

d)

serine, glycine

26.

Which correctly identifies the enzyme-directed processes 1, 2, and 3?

a)

Process 1: ligase

Process 2: restriction enzymes

Process 3: ligase

b)

Process 1: restriction enzymes

Process 2: restriction enzymes

Process 3: ligase

c)

Process 1: ligase

Process 2: ligase

Process 3: restriction enzymes

d)

Process 1: restriction enzymes

Process 2: ligase

Process 3: restriction enzymes

27.

Which statement about the DNA fragments on the gel plates is correct?

a)

Band 1 has more base pairs than band 5

b)

Band 3 has more base pairs than band 2

c)

Band 1 has the least number of base pairs

d)

Band 5 has the largest number of base pairs

28.

The use of this new technology is valuable for the conviction of criminals because, with the exception of identical twins, every individual is unique with regard to the

a)

type of nucleotides found in DNA

b)

type of proteins produced by DNA

c)

protein sequence in some segments of DNA

d)

nucleotide sequence in some segments of DNA

29.

The process that occurs during interval K-L is

a)

cytokinesis

b)

chromatid separation

c)

replication of genetic material

d)

synapsis of homologous chromosomes

30.

On the graph, N likely indicates the completion of which mitotic event?

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

31.

On the graph, interval N-P corresponds to the period between the end of

a)

mitosis and the beginning of stage 1

b)

stage 2 and the beginning of stage 3

c)

stage 1 and the end of stage 2

d)

stage 1 and the end of mitosis

32.

One difference between mitosis and meiosis is that, during mitosis,

a)

One replication of chromosomes and one division occurs

b)

One replication of chromosomes and two divisions occur

c)

Two replications of chromosomes and one division occurs

d)

Two replications of chromosomes and two divisions occur

33.

Starting from a single cell, spermatogenesis in horses produces

a)

one cell with 33 chromosomes

b)

two cells, each with 66 chromosomes

c)

four cells, each with 33 chromosomes

d)

three cells, each with 22 chromosomes

34.

A human with Klinefelter syndrome has 47 chromosomes and has the XXY chromosome set instead of XY. From what does this abnormality result?

a)

The process of mitosis does not occur properly

b)

An error in replication produces an extra X chromosome

c)

Crossing over results in the formation of an extra chromosome

d)

Nondisjunction occurs in either the formation of the sperm or the egg

35.

The fact that the Dionne Quintuplets were identical indicates that they developed from

a)

one ovum that was fertilized by five different sperm cells

b)

five separate eggs that were released from an ovary simultaneously and then fertilized

c)

one zygote that split into five separate surviving embryos during initial mitotic divisions

d)

one ovum that underwent mitosis to produce five eggs, each of which was fertilized by one sperm cell

36.

In the F1 generation, the allele for yellow seeds would have been found in

a)

about 50% of the female gametes and 50% of the male gametes produced by F1 plants

b)

all of the female gametes and none of the male gametes produced by F1 plants

c)

all of the male gametes and none of the female gametes produced by F1 plants

d)

none of the male gametes or female gametes produced by F1 plants

37.

The phenotypic ratio of a cross between YyTt pea plant and a yyTt pea plant is

a)

3 yellow tall : 3 yellow short : 1 green tall : 1 green short

b)

1 yellow tall : 1 yellow short : 1 green tall : 1 green short

c)

3 yellow tall : 1 yellow short : 3 green tall : 1 green short

d)

1 yellow tall : 1 yellow short : 3 green tall : 3 green short

38.

In a cross between a RrYy and a RRYY plant, what fraction of the offspring would be expected to have the genotype RRYy?

a)

1/2

b)

1/4

c)

3/8

d)

1/8

39.

What percentage of the gametes (as a whole number) produced by a pea plant heterozygous for both seed shape and seed colour would be expected to contain both the allele for wrinkled and the allele for green? (a)   %

40.

Which pattern of inheritance for flower colour is demonstrated by this sweet pea plant variant?

a)

X-linked recessive

b)

Autosomal recessive

c)

Autosomal dominant

d)

Incomplete dominance

41.

Analysis of a DNA sample from the nuclei of the purple flowers determined that the thymine content of the nucleotides in the DNA was 23%. What is the likely content of adenine, cytosine, and guanine in the DNA?

a)

Adenine: 23%

Cytosine: 27%

Guanine 27%

b)

Adenine: 23%

Cytosine: 27%

Guanine 23%

c)

Adenine: 27%

Cytosine: 23%

Guanine 23%

d)

Adenine: 27%

Cytosine: 23%

Guanine 27%

42.

A man who is heterozygous for the disease allele marries a woman who is homozygous for the normal recessive allele. What is the probability that their first child is a boy and has Huntington's disease (as a value from 0 to 1, rounded to two decimal places)?

(a)  

43.

Of the following, the parent and child combination that could be possible is

a)

parents 1 and baby Y

b)

parents 2 and baby Z

c)

parents 3 and baby W

d)

parents 4 and baby X

44.

The probability (from 0 to 1, rounded to two decimal places) that a mother with blood type O and a father with the genotype IBi would have a child with blood type O is (a)   .

45.

A colour-blind male with brown eyes and his green-eyed wife who has normal colour vision have a daughter who is colour-blind and has blue eyes. What is the genotype of this child?

a)

XcbXcbBb

b)

XcbXcbGb

c)

XcbXcbbb

d)

XcbYbb

46.

If individual 1 has blue eyes, genotypes of her parents could be

a)

mother XXbb, father XcbYGB

b)

mother XXcbGb, father XYbb

c)

mother XcbXcbGG, father XYbb

d)

mother XXcbGb, father XcbYBB

47.

Three genes have been identified on chromosome 2 in Drosophila (fruit flies). They control eye colour, body hair (bristles), and wing shape. The genes are:

1 cinnabar eyes

2 short bristles

3 curved wings

The crossover frequency between 1 and 3 is 18%, between 2 and 3 is 24.5%, and between 1 and 2 is 6.5%. Construct a gene map of three genes and indicate their order by number.

(a)  

48.

This information indicates that the genotype for the unknown male is likely

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

either homozygous recessive or heterozygous

d)

either homozygous dominant or heterozygous

49.

The gene pool of Drosophila is affected by the Sd allele because this allele

a)

produces new gene combinations

b)

increases genetic diversity

c)

favours natural selection

d)

increases in frequency

50.

If a researcher samples 10 000 Drosophila from this population, the number of flies expected to by homozygous dominant for body colour is

a)

400

b)

3200

c)

6400

d)

9600

51.

These relationships are not applicable when there is

a)

a large population size

b)

absence of migration from a population

c)

random mating between members of a population

d)

selection against a particular genotype in a population

52.

If a change in the environmental conditions in western Africa caused an increase in the mosquito population, what would likely happen to the frequencies of the alleles HbA and HbS?

a)

The frequency of both alleles would increase

b)

The frequency of both alleles would decrease

c)

The frequency of the HbA allele would increase and the frequency of the HbS allele would decrease

d)

The frequency of the HbA allele would decrease and the frequency of the HbS allele would increase

53.

The relationship between humans and Plasmodium falciparum is called

a)

parasitism

b)

mutualism

c)

competition

d)

commensalism

54.

The presence of eyespots on the wings of butterflies is an example of

a)

mimicry

b)

mutualism

c)

camouflage

d)

competition

55.

The relationship between the barnacles and the whales is one of

a)

predation

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism