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2021 Cos 3 Midterm

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Anything that takes up space and has mass is known as _______________.
a)
Matter
b)
Molecules
c)
Compounds
d)
Stuff
2.
What are the building blocks of MATTER?
a)
Atoms
b)
Cells
c)
Protons
d)
Neutrons
3.
A(n) ____________________ is a pure substance made of a single type of atom and cannot be broken down.
a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Molecule
d)
Mixture
4.

The protective dead layer of cells of the outer epidermis is called the:

a)

stratum spinosum

b)

stratum granulosum

c)

stratum corneum

d)

stratum basale

5.

Adipose tissue is most abundant in the ________________ layer under the skin.

a)

epidermal

b)

dermal

c)

subcutaneous

d)

transdermal

6.
The underlying or inner layer of the skin, which is also called the derma corium, cutis, or true skin, is the: 
a)
dermis
b)
papillary
c)
dermal
d)
epidermis
7.
The largest organ of the human body is the:
a)
liver
b)
skin
c)
lungs
d)
heart
8.

Which of the following is not a function of the skin

a)

Protection

b)

Temperature

c)

Excretion

d)

Transportation

9.
Fatty tissue found below the dermis is:
a)
papillae
b)
papillary layer
c)
tactile 
d)
subcutaneous tissue
10.

What is the oily substance that hydrates the skin, prevents it from being dry and makes it waterproof?

a)

sweat

b)

cerumen

c)

sebum

d)

humus

11.
The layer of skin that we see and is treated by the practitioner is the:
a)
melanin
b)
corneum
c)
keratin
d)
spinosum
12.
The clear, transparent layer just under the stratum corneum that consists of small cells through which light can pass is the:
a)
stratum spinosum
b)
stratum granulosum
c)
stratum lucidium
d)
stratum corneum
13.
The deepest layer of the epidermis, the basal cell layer, is also known as the: 
a)
stratum germinativum
b)
stratum corneum
c)
stratum spinosum
d)
keratin dermis
14.
The stratum germinativum is composed of several layers with special cells that produce a dark skin pigment called: 
a)
granules
b)
melanin
c)
elongated
d)
keratin
15.
The underlying or inner layer of the skin, which is also called the derma corium, cutis, or true skin, is the: 
a)
dermis
b)
papillary
c)
dermal
d)
epidermis
16.
The dermis layer is made up of two layers, which are the:
a)
papillary and reticular
b)
papillary and dermal
c)
dermal and tactile
d)
tactile and reticular
17.
The top of the papillary layer where it joins the epidermis is the: 
a)
epidermal-dermal connection
b)
dermis corpuscles
c)
epidermal-dermal junction
d)
epidermis junction
18.
The deeper layer of the dermis that supplies the skin with oxygen and nutrients is the: 
a)
basal layer
b)
subcutaneous layer
c)
reticular layer 
d)
papillary layer
19.
The surface of healthy skin is slightly?
a)
yellow
b)
alkaline
c)
rough
d)
acidic
20.
Water is the number one nutrient of the body and composes what percentage of the body's weight?
a)
20-30 percent
b)
35-45 percent
c)
50-70 percent
d)
40-45 percent
21.
Receptors that send messages to the brain are called?
a)
collagen
b)
papule
c)
sensory nerve fibers
d)
dermal papillae
22.
The cells that produce the dark skin pigment called melanin are?
a)
papule
b)
melanocytes
c)
keratin
d)
collagen
23.
The fibrous protein that gives the skin form and strength is called?
a)
papule
b)
collagen
c)
keratin
d)
dermal papillae
24.

Many scientists and dermatologists believe that extrinsic factors such as exposure to the sun or smoking are responsible for up to ____perfect of skin aging

a)

50

b)

60

c)

75

d)

85

25.

It is recommended that you wear a broad-spectrum sunscreen with an SPF of at least______on a dialy basis

a)

5

b)

8

c)

15

d)

30

26.

A_______is qan abnormal, rounded, solid lumo above, within, or under the skin that is larger than a papule

a)

tubercle

b)

mole

c)

macula

d)

bulla

27.

Which of these terms refers to thin, dry, or oily plates of epidermal flakes

a)

fissures

b)

keloids

c)

pustules

d)

scales

28.

Benign, ketatin-filled cysts that appear just under the epidermis and no visible openings are_____

a)

milia

b)

ulcers

c)

crust

d)

pustules

29.

An open comedo is also know as a

a)

mole

b)

birthmark

c)

blackhead

d)

whitehead

30.

Which of these is an inflammatory, uncomfortable, and often chronic disease of the skin, characterized by moderate to severe inflammation, scling and sometimes sever itching?

a)

Eczema

b)

acne

c)

psoriasis

d)

herpes simplex

31.

A__________is an abnormal brown-or wine colored skin discoloration with a circular or irregular shape

a)

mole

b)

stain

c)

chloasma

d)

lentigo

32.

The ansence of melanin pigment in the body anf skin sensitivity to light are signs of

a)

nevus

b)

lentignes

c)

asteatosis

d)

albinism

33.

What is the most dangerous form of skin cancer, often characterized by black or dark brown patches on the skin that may appear uneven in texture, jagged or raised

a)

basal cell carcinoma

b)

malignant melanoma

c)

squamous cell carcinoma

d)

verruca cell

34.

A cosmetologist must not serve a client who is suffering from an inflamed skin disorder, regardless of wheter it is infectious, unless the client________

a)

needs a facial quickly for an important event such as a wedding

b)

declares that he or she is practicing doctor-prescribed home care

c)

has a physicians note permitting the client to receive services

d)

signs a waiver clearing the cosmetologist and the salon of liability

35.

A skin condition caused by an inflammation of the sebaceous glands that is often characterized by redness, dry or oily scaling, crusting and or itchiness is

a)

contact dermatitis

b)

irritant contact dermatitis

c)

allergic contact dermatitis

d)

seborrheic dermmatitis

36.

A(n)_____is a type of keratoma

a)

callus

b)

keloid

c)

lesion

d)

excoriation

37.

Acne is a k=skin disorder characterized by chronic inflammation of the______glands

a)

sudoriferous

b)

sebaceous

c)

sweat

d)

adrenaline

38.

People have______over the intrinisic factors that affect aging skin

a)

no control

b)

little control

c)

considerable control

d)

total control

39.

A pustule is a raised, inflammed papule witha white or yellow canter containing_____is the top of the lesion

a)

water

b)

blood

c)

lymph

d)

pus

40.

A________is a large, protruding pocket-like lesion filled with sebum

a)

closed comedo

b)

sebaceous cyst

c)

bulla

d)

miliaria ruba

41.

Foul-Smelling perspiration usually noticlebale in the armpits on on the feet, that is generally caused by bacteria is

a)

hyperhidrosis

b)

miliaria

c)

anhidrosis

d)

bromhidrosis

42.

A______is a slightly raised mark on the skin formed after an injury or lesion of the skin that is healed.

a)

mole

b)

scar

c)

scale

d)

stain

43.

A contagious bacterial skin infection characterized by weeping lesions is

a)

impetigo

b)

conjuctivitis

c)

eczema

d)

herpes simplex

44.

A_______is an itchy, swollen lesion that lasts only a few hours

a)

wheal

b)

vesicle

c)

verruca

d)

tubercle

45.

A(n)_______is a crack in the skin that penetrates the dermis

a)

ulcer

b)

fissure

c)

excoriation

d)

crust

46.

A small blister or sac containing clear fulid,lying within or just beneath the epidermis is a __________

a)

tubercle

b)

tumor

c)

vesicle

d)

wheal

47.

A large blister containing a watery fluid that is similar to a vesicle is

a)

a tubercule

b)

a macule

c)

a cyst

d)

a bulla

48.

When bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, it is known as______

a)

anaerobic

b)

anesthetic

c)

hyperkinetic

d)

aerobic

49.

UVA rays, also known as____, are deep penetrating rays that can even go through a glass window

a)

enhancing rays

b)

tanning rays

c)

aging rays

d)

burning rays

50.

An acute inflammatory disorder of the sweat glands, characterized by the eruption of small, red visicles and accompanied by burning itching skin is_____

a)

hyperhidrosis

b)

miliaria ruba

c)

anhidrosis

d)

bromhidrosia

51.

The process of permanently rearranging the basic structure of overly curly hair into a straight form is called:

a)

thermal straightening

b)

chemical hair relaxing

c)

permanent waving

d)

chemical hair softening

52.

The processing time of a chemical relaxer is affected by

a)

the strength of a product

b)

the hair type

c)

base relaxers

d)

all of the above

53.

Sodium hydroxide relaxers are commonly called:

a)

lye relaxers

b)

no-lye relaxers

c)

base relaxers

d)

no-base relaxers

54.
It is important for stylists to remember that ammonia-free does not necessarily mean _____.
a)
acid-free
b)
odor-free
c)
damage-free
d)
heat-free
heat-free
55.
What are long, coiled polypeptide chains linked together end-to-end like beads?
a)
Keratin proteins
b)
Peptide bonds
c)
Amino acids
d)
Polypeptide chains
56.
Relaxers that contain two components and must be mixed immediately prior to use are _____.
a)
no-lye relaxers
b)
ammonium thioglycolate
c)
guanidine hydroxide relaxers
d)
potassium hydroxide relaxers 
57.
What is a hydroxide relaxer that does not require the application of a protective base?
a)
Metal hydroxide relaxer
b)
No-base relaxer
c)
Cream relaxer
d)
Base cream relaxer
58.
Hair that is treated with hydroxide relaxers must not be treated with _____.
a)
conditioning solutions
b)
color shampoos
c)
normalizing solutions
d)
thio relaxers
59.

The process of breaking hair's disulfide bonds during processing and converting them to lanthionine bonds when the relaxer is rinsed from the hair is known as:

a)

lanolination

b)

lanthionization

c)

neutralization

d)

normalization

60.

The relaxer cream is applied near the scalp last because processing is accelerated in the area by:

a)

body heat

b)

application speed

c)

body perspiration

d)

sebaceous glands

61.

If using a "no base" relaxer. it is recommended that a protective cream be applied:

a)

at the nape of the neck

b)

over the ear lopes

c)

at the front hairline

d)

on the full hairline and around the ears

62.

When applying a sodium hydroxide relaxer, the processing cream is applied last to the ______ and _____________.

a)

scalp area and middle of the hair shaft

b)

scalp area and ends

c)

middle of the hair shaft and hair ends

d)

nape area and ends

63.

When performing a sodium hydroxide retouch, where is the product applied first?

a)

the the hair ends

b)

to the new growth only

c)

to the middle of the hair shaft

d)

to the scalp area only

64.

A hair relaxing treatment should be avoided when an examination shows presence of:

a)

scalp abrasions

b)

strong curl

c)

excessive oils

d)

pityriasis steatoids

65.

Sodium hydroxide relaxers are commonly called:

a)

quanidine hydroxide relaxers

b)

low pH relaxers

c)

lithium hydroxide relaxers

d)

lye relaxers

66.

Relaxers that are ionic compounds formed by a metal combined with oxygen and hydrogen are known as:

a)

guanidine hydroxide relaxers

b)

low pH relaxers

c)

metal hydroxide relaxers

d)

lye relaxers

67.

What is used to restore the hair and scalp to their normal acidic pH?

a)

cream conditioner

b)

medicated shampoo

c)

conditioning filler

d)

normalizing lotion

68.

Which is NOT an example of a physical change?

a)

tearing paper

b)

molding clay

c)

burning wood

d)

chopping wood

69.
A combination of two or more substances where each keeps its own properties and both can be easily separated.
a)
mixture
b)
solution
c)
substance
d)
physical change
70.
A particular type of mixture where a substance dissolves in another; the molecules spread evenly through the other substance, such as in salt added to water.
a)
solution
b)
mixture
c)
physical change
d)
boiling point
71.

In a solution the substance that dissolves in the solvent.

a)

Solute

b)

Suspension

c)

Colloid

d)

Solvent

72.

In a solution the substance which the solute dissolves

a)

solvent

b)

suspension

c)

colloid

d)

solution

73.

_______ is a mixture in which particles will settle out.

a)

suspension

b)

colloid

c)

compound

d)

solvent

74.
A stable mixture of two or more liquids e.g. milk
a)
emulsion
b)
solution
c)
mixture
d)
insoluble
75.
A substance that can be added to an emulsion to keep the liquids completely mixed
a)
emulsifier
b)
emulsion
c)
emulsification
d)
ammunition 
76.

How well two or more substances mix together

a)

Solution

b)

Mixture

c)

Miscibility

d)

Solvent