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AP Bio Review of Unit 6

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though they look and perform completely different?

a)

The two different cells become mutated

b)

The proteins expressed in each cell are different

c)

They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.

d)

The genome of the different cells changes

2.
The lac operon genes only become expressed if:
a)
lactose binds to the repressor
b)
glucose binds to the repressor
c)
lactose binds to the operator
d)
the repressor binds to the operator
3.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
4.

What does a promoter do?

a)

it allows a gene to be transcribed

b)

it creates a DNA segment

c)

it is another word for ribosomes

d)

it is another word for RNA

5.

Translation is a process where:

a)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of rRNA codons.

b)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of tRNA codons.

c)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of mRNA codons.

d)

a DNA nucleotide sequence is used to produce mRNA codon sequence.

6.
Which factor can affect the epigenome?
a)
nutrition
b)
exercise
c)
stress 
d)
all of these factors can affect the epigenome
7.

A mutation within the promoter region has occurred. What would potentially happen to transcription rate?

a)

Mutated promoters decrease the rate of transcription.

b)

Mutated promoters increase the rate of transcription.

c)

Mutated promoters can increase or decrease the rate of transcription.

d)

Mutated promoters cease transcription of the adjacent gene.

8.

Attachment of ______ groups to ______ will cause promotion of gene expression due to looser DNA.

a)

acetyl, DNA

b)

methyl, DNA

c)

acetyl, histones

d)

methyl, histones

9.

All of the following occur before mature RNA is formed except:

a)

Addition of a poly-A tail

b)

Addition of a 3' cap

c)

Addition of a release factor

d)

Removal of introns

e)

Alternative splicing

10.

The protein that functions in unwinding DNA strands before replication occurs is called:

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

Single-strand binding proteins

c)

Helicase

d)

Ligase

e)

Spliceosome

11.

What type of gene control is shown in this image?

a)

processing control

b)

transcriptional control

c)

post translational control

d)

mRNA stability control

12.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
13.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
14.

What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?

a)

to add modified guanine to the 3' end of the mRNA

b)

to indicate the site of translational termination

c)

to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA

d)

to help protect the mRNA from degradation so it can exist longer in the cytoplasm

15.
What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence
5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'
a)
met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
b)
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
c)
met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
d)
met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
16.

Prokaryotes have plasmids. What are plasmids?

a)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

b)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

c)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

d)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

17.

Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

18.

Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.

a)

directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'

b)

synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous

c)

directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'

d)

synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous

19.

Identify which molecule binds to the promoter region

a)

Ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Helicase

d)

RNA polymerase

20.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
21.
All of the following are true about DNA methylation EXCEPT
a)
takes place on the DNA
b)
enzymes add a methyl group
c)
when it occurs, transcription is more likely to occur
d)
chromatin becomes more tightly packed
22.

In the trp operon, __ acts as a __ and helps the repressor bind to the operator.

a)

tryptophan, corepressor

b)

tryptophan, inducer

c)

lactose, corepressor

d)

lactose, inducer

23.

Which of the following are types of post-transcriptional control of genes in eukaryotes?

a)

alternative RNA splicing or processing

b)

gene silencing through RNA interference

c)

destruction of ubiquitin tagged proteins

d)

all of the above

24.

Which of the following polypeptides is coded for by the following

mRNA sequence:

AUG GUU AAA CGA CAA UCC

a)

Val, Lys, Phe, Gly, Ser

b)

Met Asp, Phe, Ala, Arg

c)

Met, Val, Lys, Arg, Gln, Ser

d)

Ile, Gln, Lys, Asp, Gln, Ser

25.

In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe?

a)

Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.

b)

Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains.

26.

Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism.

Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?

a)

12%

b)

24%

c)

31%

d)

38%

27.

If a mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?

a)

an accumulation of A and no production of B and C

b)

an accumulation of A and B and no production of C

c)

no production of either enzyme

d)

an accumulation of A, B & C

28.

A frameshift mutation could result from

a)

a base insertion only.

b)

either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

c)

a base deletion only.

29.

Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the Figure?

a)

ligase

b)

restriction enzyme

c)

helicase

d)

topoisomerase

30.

The segment of DNA shown in the figure has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments?

a)
b)
31.
Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
32.

What type of mutation is this?

a)

Nonsense mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

33.
Which molecule brings the amino acid to the ribosome?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
34.
What is the term for making an RNA copy of DNA?
a)
Transription
b)
Translation
c)
Folding
d)
Coding
35.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
36.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
37.

Elongation continues until a __________ enters the ribosome's A site. This signal tells translation to end immediately.

a)

start codon

b)

stop codon

c)

anticodon

d)

terminator

38.
What process is shown in the image?
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
DNA Synthesis
d)
DNA Replication
39.
Which is a difference between DNA and RNA
a)
RNA is double stranded
b)
RNA is not made of nucleotides
c)
RNA contains Uracil instead of Thymine
d)
RNA does not contain a sugar
40.
Biotech foods look and taste the same as traditional foods and crops. The only difference is that biotech food has
a)
fewer calories.
b)
the addition of specific minerals.
c)
genes with traits that improve something about the plant.
d)
a better chance of surviving a frost during the growing season.
41.

An argument in favor of food biotechnology is that it

a)

provides foods that cure viral diseases.

b)

provides more food to feed a growing population.

c)

provides a cash crop for low income nations.

d)

biotech foods are not controversial

42.

What is a GMO?

a)

An organism that has had its DNA modified by humans

b)

An organism missing a chromosome

c)

Epigenetics

d)

A genetically identical organism

43.

DNA can be cut, in order to insert it in a different organism, using

a)

prescription enzymes

b)

digestive enzymes

c)

restriction enzymes

d)

transcription enzymes

44.

When human DNA is inserted into a bacterial plasmid so that the bacteria will make insulin, the plasmid is referred to as

a)

transformed DNA

b)

bacterial DNA

c)

recombinant DNA

d)

transcribed DNA

45.

This is the practice of producing a genetically identical cell or organism

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

46.

This is the practice of cutting DNA and separating it by the size of the pieces

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

47.

What is the name of the international effort to sequence all of the DNA from a human?

a)

The Gene Sequencing Project

b)

The DNA Fingerprinting Project

c)

The Nuremberg Trials

d)

The Human Genome Project

48.

Which kitten is most likely the offspring of this cat?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

49.

What is the process in which an unspecialized stem cell turns into a specialized body cell?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Differentiation

c)

Respiration

d)

Genetic Modification

50.

During gel electrophoresis, the _______ pieces of DNA move farthest down the gel

a)

lightest

b)

heaviest

c)

ugliest

d)

deadliest

51.

What does transgenic mean?

a)

An organism that can change its genes at will

b)

A stem cell that can differentiate into anything

c)

An organism that has had another species' DNA put in it

d)

A bacteria that reproduces asexually

52.
Which agricultural benefit can biotechnology  provide?
a)
developing plants that are less dependent on the sun for energy
b)
developing plants that are less sensitive to variations in environmental temperatures
c)
developing plants with inheritable traits unrelated to the genetic material they contain
d)
developing plants that will not die
53.
A genome is
a)
part of a chromosome
b)
a gene inserted into a chromosome of bacteria
c)
a sequence of units in a short segment of DNA
d)
the complete sequence of an organism’s DNA  
54.
Which of these would be a concern about the use of biotechnology?
a)
creation of new pathogens
b)
making of new vaccines
c)
increased opportunities for jobs
d)
increased crop yield
55.

Which of the following is true for both bacteria and viruses?

a)

both contain genetic material

b)

can be killed using antibiotics

c)

have a cell membrane

d)

have a protein coat

56.

Which statement is true about viruses?

a)

Viruses can eat and metabolize food.

b)

Viruses can reproduce only using a host cell.

c)

Viruses can reproduce on their own at any time.

d)

Viruses contain DNA, so they are alive.

57.

One important way to control the spread of viruses in through

a)

the use of vaccines

b)

drinking a lot of tea

c)

the use of other types of bacteria

d)

the use of antibiotics

58.

Which of these is characteristic of both viruses and bacteria?

a)

They get their energy from their environment.

b)

They can reproduce on their own.

c)

They can form crystals and become dormant.

d)

They contain proteins and nucleic acids.

59.

Which of the following is a risk of overusing antibiotics to treat infections?

a)

Bacteria may become resistant to antibiotics.

b)

Antibiotics increase the rate of infection.

c)

Antibiotics cause other diseases to develop.

d)

Antibiotics only work once.

60.
What process is this?
a)
phagocytosis
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
formation of antibodies
61.

What do viruses need to reproduce?

a)

Genetic material

b)

A host cell

c)

Bacteria

d)

Insulin

62.

Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by lysing (bursting)?

a)

Lysogenic Cycle

b)

Lytic Cycle

c)

Binary Fission

d)

Conjugation

63.

Which is most often used to destroy bacteria?

a)

vaccine

b)

antibiotics

c)

vitamins

d)

water