WorksheetsOrtho Quiz 2
Total questions: 66
Worksheet time: 15hrs 49mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the most common tendon affected in rotator cuff tears?
a)
Infraspinatus tendon
b)
Supraspinatus tendon
c)
Chicken tenders
d)
Subscapularis tendon
2.
A study found subjects with scapular dyskinesia and less upward rotation; elevating the humerus to 90 degrees of scaption resulted in decreased subacromial distance.
a)
true
b)
false
3.
Studies have found tat with UE elevation functional tasks, people with SAPS have:
a)
decreased scapular up rotation
b)
increased scapular up rotation
c)
decreased posterior tipping
d)
increased posterior tipping
4.
In addition to altered GH and scapular kinematics, SAPS can also be caused by anatomic anomalies such as:
a)
Hooked acromion
b)
Acromial bone spurs
c)
Thoracic kyphosis
5.
Subacromial bursa fluid measured at 2.1mm is considered:
a)
bursal fibrosis
b)
bursal effusion
c)
normal
6.
Which structure has a higher amount of nociceptor free nerve endings?
a)
GH capsule
b)
Subacromial bursa
c)
RC tendons
d)
LH of biceps tendon
e)
AC ligament
7.
With severe bursal fibrosis, acromioplasty has poorer outcomes than mild cases.
a)
true
b)
false
8.
Management and pharmacotherapies of early tendonopathy includes:
a)
load reduction
b)
pain management
c)
NSAIDS
d)
Coricosteroids
9.
Exercise of reactive tendonopathy includes:
a)
plyometrics
b)
throwing
c)
jumping
d)
olympic weightlifting
e)
gradual loading
10.
Type of exercise that is most effective for later statges of tendonopathy
a)
plyometrics
b)
isometric
c)
concentric
d)
eccentric
11.
Tendonopathy is always homogenous in nature throughout the entire tendon.
a)
true
b)
false
12.
A combination of these special tests will increase the likelihood to rule in a full tear RC tendon if all were tested positive:
a)
Painful arc
b)
Drop-arm test
c)
ER resistance test
d)
Empty can test
e)
Lift off test
13.
A combination of these special tests wil increase the likelihood to rule in SAPS if all were tested positive:
a)
ER resistance test
b)
Hawkins-Kennedy test
c)
Painful arc
d)
Neer's test
e)
Empty can test
14.
Muscle hypertrophy results in muscle stiffness.
a)
true
b)
false
15.
What is the correct ratio of titin to myosin filaments
a)
6 to 1
b)
4 to 1
c)
2 to 1
d)
1 to 1
e)
1 to 6
16.
A shortened muscle has the least capacity for generating tension.
a)
true
b)
false
17.
With a lengthened muscle, the length-tension curves shifts to the:
a)
left
b)
right
c)
no change
18.
Changes in number of sacromeres in series happen in these situations:
a)
muscle hypertrophy
b)
muscle shortening
c)
muscle lengthening
19.
What scapular muscles are commonly reported as weak in SAPS?
a)
upper traps
b)
serratus anterior
c)
pec minor
d)
middle traps
e)
lower traps
20.
Which RC is most commonly involved in partial thickness tears?
a)
subscapularis
b)
infraspinatus
c)
supraspinatus
d)
teres minor
21.
A partial thickness tear of RC tendon resulting in greater than 1/4 but less than 1/2 the remaining thickness is considered:
a)
Grade 1
b)
Grade 2
c)
Grade 3
22.
Full thickness RC tears have the highest diagnostic accuracy with this type of imaging:
a)
ultrasound
b)
magnetic resonance
c)
computed tomography
d)
radiography
23.
What are the main effects due to joint manipulation?
a)
neurophysiological
b)
mechanical
c)
psychological
d)
anatomical
e)
perceptual
24.
If a patient tells they have been using steroids chronically, you can mobilze their joints.
a)
Yes, always
b)
Yes, with caution
c)
No, never
25.
A patient medical record indicates past history of rheumatoid arthritis and they tell you that it's currently flaring up. Would you continue with a Grade 2 joint mobilization?
a)
Yes
b)
No
26.
Compared to joint distractions, joint mobilizations may exceed physiological end range.
a)
true
b)
false
27.
What grade of passive assessory motion is considered normal?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
e)
5
28.
Is joint mobilization specifically mentioned in Californian legislature?
a)
No
b)
Yes
29.
Who was the first PT to popularize oscillatory joint mobilizations?
a)
Maitland
b)
McKenzie
c)
Cyriax
d)
Still
e)
Mulligan
30.
Studies show that in individuals with SAPS, decreased scapular upward rotation has been associated with:
a)
Inadequate activity of the serratus anterior
b)
Inadequate activity of the rhomboids
c)
Increased activity of the upper traps
d)
Inadequate activity of the middle/lower traps
31.
Studies show that in individuals with SAPS, decreased posterior tipping of the scapula has been associated with:
a)
Pec minor lengthening
b)
Inadequate activity of the serratus anterior
c)
Pec minor shortening
d)
Increased activity of the serratus anterior
32.
What mechanisms could lead to SAPS?
a)
Altered scapular kinematics
b)
Hooked acromion
c)
Posterior shoulder tightness
d)
Altered GH kinematics
e)
All of the above
33.
True or False: The GHJ capsule contains high density mechanoreceptors and nociceptor free nerve endings
a)
true
b)
false
34.
True or False: The Subacromial bursa contains a higher density of nociceptor free nerve endings than any other structure in the shoulder
a)
true
b)
false
35.
True or False: Underloading or overloading will have the same changes to the tendon's cellular matrix
a)
true
b)
false
36.
Which are proposed neurophysiological effects of Joint Mobilization?
a)
Gate-Control Theory
b)
Opiod Analgesia Theory
c)
Non-Opiod Analgesia Theory
d)
Relaxation of Hypertonic Muscle Theory
e)
Muscle Inhibition Theory
37.
Which are proposed mechanical effects of Joint Mobilization?
a)
Movement of Synovial Fluid
b)
Plastic deformation of collagen fibers
c)
Breaking cross-linkages of collagen fibers
d)
Release entrapped meniscoid
38.
Which are proposed psychological effects of Joint Mobilization?
a)
Power of touch in intelligent, professional, and caring manner
b)
Influence of ROM improvement
c)
Physiology of joint cavitation
39.
In bursitis or RC tendinitis, which special test is most sensitive and most specific, respectively?
a)
Cross-body Adduction and Painful arc
b)
Drop-arm and Hawkins-Kennedy
c)
Infraspinatus muscle and Speed
d)
Neer impingement and Cross-body Adduction
40.
In a partial tear, which special test is most sensitive and most specific, respectively?
a)
Neer impingement and Cross-body Adduction
b)
Cross-body Adduction and Hawkins-Kennedy
c)
Drop-arm and Painful arc
d)
Speed and Neer impingement
41.
In a fulll-thickness tear, which special test is most sensitive and most specific, respectively?
a)
Neer impingement and Cross-body Adduction
b)
Infraspinatus muscle and Supraspinatus muscle
c)
Painful arc and Drop-arm
d)
Hawkins-Kennedy and Speed
42.
Individuals with subacromial pain syndrome can have the following except
a)
decreasesd scapular upward roation
b)
increased scapular elevation
c)
increased posterior tipping
d)
decreased posterior tipping
e)
over active traps with reduced serratus anterior activity
43.
What test(s) are "suitable" for screening or rulling out subacromial pain syndrome
a)
Hawkins-Kennedy
b)
Neer
c)
Full & Empty can
d)
External Rotation Lag Sign
e)
A and B
44.
MULTIPLE SELECTION: Which TWO of the following structures have a lower density of nociceptor free nerve endings compared to the other three?
a)
The AC ligament
b)
The CA ligament
c)
The CC ligament
d)
The subacromial bursa
e)
The middle band of the GH ligament
45.
Of the tests we know, the best test for ruling OUT a partial rotator cuff tear is what? (Note: Spin-Snout does not apply here)
a)
Neers
b)
Cross body adduction test
c)
Painful arc
d)
Drop arm test
e)
ER resistance test
46.
If a patient presents with pain in 50-70 degrees of abduction, which of the following groups is more likely the root of the issue?
a)
The inert structures
b)
The rotator cuff muscles
c)
The mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell.
47.
True or false: Alabama sucks for ruling against PTs in favor of chiro's for something PTs had been doing longer.
a)
true
b)
false
48.
Which mobilization is performed perpendicular to the treatment plane?
a)
Distraction
b)
Gliding
c)
Compression
49.
Which of these is NOT a precaution for joint mobilization?
a)
Osteoporosis
b)
Hypermobility
c)
Disc pathology
d)
Acute trauma
50.
Which special test is the most specific for full thickness rotator cuff tears?
a)
Painful arc sign
b)
Neer sign
c)
Drop arm test
d)
Cross-body adduction test
51.
What is the minimal clinically important difference for the DASH Questionnaire?
a)
10 points
b)
15 points
c)
18 points
d)
20 points
52.
According to the Park study, what three tests should be used in combination for full thickness RC tears?
a)
painful arc
b)
Neer's impingement test
c)
ER lag sign
d)
drop-arm test
e)
ER resistance test
53.
What are the minimal clinically important difference values for SPADI and DASH questionnaires?
a)
SPADI: 15 points
b)
DASH: 10 points/quick DASH: 15 points
c)
DASH: 15 points/quick DASH 10 points
d)
SPADI: 18 points
e)
SPADI: 12 points
54.
Which mobilization grades have contraindications?
a)
grade I
b)
grade II
c)
grade III
d)
grade IV
e)
grade V
55.
All of the following are factors in the onset of Tendinopathy except<br />
a)
Time between loading
b)
Circulating cytokine production
c)
Shape of Load
d)
Compression
e)
Body Composition
56.
Which Special Tests are appropriate when examining for SLAP lesions?<br />
a)
Biceps Load Test II
b)
Jerk Test
c)
Speed’s Test
d)
Neer’s Test
e)
Yerguson’s Test
57.
NSAIDs and corticosteroids are good choices for pharmacotherapies for which of the following?
a)
Unloaded tendon
b)
Reactive tendinopathy
c)
Normal tendon
d)
Tendon disrepair
e)
Degenerated tendon
58.
You suspect a possible supraspinatus tear or tendinopathy. Which of the following special tests would you NOT use?
a)
External Rotation Lag Sign
b)
Internal Rotation Lag Sign
c)
Drop Arm Test
d)
Empty Can Test
e)
Full Can Test
59.
Who was the first physiotherapist to relate manipulation to arthrokinematics?
a)
James Mennell
b)
John Mennell
c)
FM Kaltenborn
d)
Brian Mulligan
e)
Robin McKenzie
60.
What GH component motions are paired incorrectly with the glide ?
a)
lateral distraction: all motions
b)
inferior glide: flex, abd, scap
c)
anterior glide: ER, abd, ext, horiz abd
d)
Posterior glide: IR,ext, horiz add
61.
Which special tests are paired correctly?
a)
crank test- anterior instability
b)
Fowler sign- posterior instability
c)
Jerk Test- anterior instability
d)
Sulcus sign- inferior instability
e)
Speed's test- AC pathology
62.
T/F The best test to rule out a partial thickness tear is the cross-body add test
a)
true
b)
false
63.
T/F The painful arc sign is the best way to rule in/confirm SAPS
a)
true
b)
false
64.
Choose the correct pairings of minimal clinically important difference (MCID) and questionnaire.
a)
SPADI: 10
b)
SPADI: 8
c)
DASH: 10
d)
Quick DASH: 15
e)
DASH: 18
65.
What is "shrug" sign in relation to SAPS?
a)
Inability to abduct arm without elevating shoulder
b)
Inability to raise shoulder
c)
If can't raise shoulder then issue with upper trap
d)
Proves shortness of scapular depressors
e)
Associated with weak abductors
66.
T/F. A single tendon has high probability of having heterogeneous pathology meaning that it can have reactive on degenerative tendinophathy.
a)
true
b)
false
100 %
