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IMMUNOLOGY SEROLOGY-PRELIM EXAM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation:

a)

Lysozyme

b)

Complement

c)

Immunoglobulins

d)

Commensal organisms

2.

Which two organs are considered the primary lymphoid organs in which immunocompetent cells originate and mature?

a)

Thyroid and Peyer’s patches

b)

Thymus and bone marrow

c)

Spleen and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

d)

Lymph nodes and thoracic duct

3.

T cells travel from the bone marrow to the thymus for maturation. What is the correct order of the maturation sequence for T cells in the thymus?

a)

Bone marrow to the cortex; after thymic education, released back to peripheral circulation

b)

Maturation and selection occur in the cortex; migration to the medulla; release of mature T cells to secondary lymphoid organs

c)

Storage in either the cortex or medulla; release of T cells into the peripheral circulation

d)

Activation and selection occur in the medulla; mature T cells are stored in the cortex until activated by antigen

4.

Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker appears during the first stage of T-cell development and remains present as an identifying marker for T cells?

a)

CD1

b)

CD2

c)

CD3

d)

CD4 or CD8

5.

Which markers are found on mature, peripheral helper T cells?

a)

CD2, CD3, CD4

b)

CD1, CD3, CD4

c)

CD2, CD3, CD8

d)

CD1, CD2, CD4

6.

Which T cell expresses the CD8 marker and acts specifically to kill tumors or virally infected cells?

a)

Helper T cells

b)

T suppressor

c)

T cytotoxic

d)

T suppressor

7.

How are cytotoxic T cells (TC cells) and natural killer (NK) cells similar?

a)

Do not bind to infected cell

b)

Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers

c)

Effective against virally infected cells

d)

Require antibody to be present

8.

What is the name of the process by which phagocytic cells are attracted to a substance such as a bacterial peptide?

a)

Phagotaxis

b)

Chemotaxis

c)

Degranulation

d)

Diapedesis

9.

Which immunoglobulin(s) help(s) initiate the classic complement pathway?

a)

IgA and IgD

b)

IgM and IgD

c)

IgG and IgM

d)

IgG only

10.

What is the purpose of C3a, C4a, and C5a, the split products of the complement cascade?

a)

To bind with specific membrane receptors of lymphocytes and cause release of cytotoxic substances

b)

To cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils

c)

To bind with membrane receptors of macrophages to facilitate phagocytosis and the removal of debris and foreign substances

d)

To regulate and degrade membrane cofactor protein after activation by C3 convertase

11.

Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen?

a)

Fab

b)

Fc

c)

Constant Light Chains

d)

Constant Heavy Chain

12.

Which region of the IgE immunoglobulin molecule binds with eosinophil for parasite killing?

a)

Fab

b)

Fc

c)

Constant Light Chains

d)

Constant Heavy Chain

13.

Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement?

a)

Variable region of the Heavy Chain (VH)

b)

Constant region of the Heavy Chain

c)

Variable region of Light Chain

d)

Constant region of Light Chain

14.

Which immunoglobulin class(es) has (have) a J chain?

a)

IgM

b)

IgE and IgD

c)

IgM and IgA

d)

IgG3 and IgA

15.

Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response?

a)

IgG1

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

16.

Which immunoglobulin is mostly involved in allergic reaction?

a)

IgG1

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

17.

Which immunoglobulin appears in highest titer in the secondary response?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

18.

Direct antigen recognition is a function of what type of immunity?

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Specific immunity

c)

Adaptive immunity

d)

Passive immunity

19.

Which immunoglobulin cross links mast cells to release histamine?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

20.

All of the following are functions of immunoglobulins except:

a)

Neutralizing toxic substances

b)

Facilitating phagocytosis through opsonization

c)

Interacting with cytotoxic T cells (TC) to lyse viruses

d)

Combining with complement to destroy cellular antigens

21.

All of the following describes an IgM antibody except:

a)

Response in primary infection

b)

Largest antibody

c)

Most abundant type of antibody in serum

d)

Reacts at cold temperature

22.

Toll-like receptors are found on which cells?

a)

T cells

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

B cells

d)

Large granular lymphocytes

23.

Macrophages produce which of the following proteins during antigen processing?

a)

IL-1 and IL-6

b)

γ-Interferon

c)

IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10

d)

Complement components C1 and C3

24.

T regulator cells, responsible for controlling autoimmune antibody production, express which of the following phenotypes?

a)

CD3, CD4, CD8

b)

CD3, CD8, CD25

c)

CD3, CD4, CD25

d)

CD8, CD25, CD56

25.

Measurement of serum levels of the following serves as a screening test for multiple allergies.

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

26.

Antibody class and antibody subclass are determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the:

a)

Constant of heavy chain

b)

Constant region of light chain

c)

Variable region of heavy and light chain

d)

Constant regions of heavy and light chain

27.

Molecules with repeating units are non complex and are less antigenic.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Which of the following represents the relative concentration of immunoglobulins in decreasing order in normal serum?

a)

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD

b)

IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD

c)

IgG, IgD, IgA, IgM

d)

IgG, IgA, IgD, IgM

29.

T lymphocytes are incapable of functioning as:

a)

cytotoxic cells

b)

helper cells

c)

phagocytic cell

d)

suppressor cell

30.

T cells are incapable of:

a)

collaborating with B cells in some antibody responses

b)

secretion of immunoglobulins

c)

secretion of lymphokines

d)

producing positive skin tests

31.

Substances that are antigenic only when coupled to a protein carrier are:

a)

opsonins

b)

haptens

c)

adjuvants

d)

allergen

32.

Which of the following chemical classes of antigens is most likely to activate the alternative pathway of complement?

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

polysaccharides

d)

hapten

33.

Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is associated with a secretory component (transport piece)?

a)

IgA

b)

IgD

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

34.

It serves as monoclonal activators of lymphocytes.

(a)  

35.

Antibodies associated with anaphylactic reaction following blood transfusion?

a)

IgA

b)

IgD

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

36.

Jenner’s work with cowpox, which provided immunity against smallpox, demonstrates which phenomenon?

a)

Natural immunity

b)

Attenuation of vaccines

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Cross-immunity

37.

The process of inflammation is characterized by all of the following except

a)

Increased blood supply to the area

b)

Migration of white blood cells.

c)

Appearance of acute-phase reactants.

d)

Decreased capillary permeability

38.

Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity?

a)

Autoimmunity

b)

Acquired

c)

Adaptive

d)

Natural

39.

The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a?

a)

Phagosome

b)

Lysosome

c)

Vacuole

d)

Phagolysosome

40.

Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except?

a)

Monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents

b)

Tracking the normal progress of surgery.

c)

Diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection

d)

Determining active phases of rheumatoid

41.

The action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody in which of the following ways?

a)

CRP acts before the antibody appears.

b)

Only the antibody triggers the complement cascade.

c)

Binding of the antibody is calcium-dependent.

d)

Only CRP acts as an opsonin

42.

A heterophile antigen is one that?

a)

is a self-antigen

b)

exists in unrelated plants or animals

c)

has been used previously to stimulate antibody response

d)

is from the same species but is different from the host

43.

How many antigen binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have?

a)

5

b)

4

c)

10

d)

2

44.

Which would be the best immunogen?

a)

Protein with a molecular weight of 200,000

b)

Nylon

c)

Polysaccharide with a molecular weight of 250,000

d)

Protein with a molecular weight of 175,000

45.

This region is found on the carboxy-terminal end of the immunoglobulin.

(a)  

46.

Blood phenotype that is resistant to P. vivax infection.

(a)  

47.

This type of immunoglobulins are derived from a single clone of cells.

(a)  

48.

The hinge region is high in (a)   that aids in the flexibility of the immunoglobulin structure.

49.

Type of antigen that induces an antibody production and reacts specifically with it.

(a)  

50.

Which of the following statements about immunoglobulins is true?

a)

Immunoglobulins are produced by T lymphocytes

b)

The IgA class is determined by the gamma heavy chain.

c)

The IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules.

d)

There are two subclasses of IgG.

51.

The classic antibody response pattern following infection with hepatitis A is:

a)

increase in IgM antibody; decrease in IgM antibody; increase in IgG antibody

b)

detectable presence of IgG antibody only

c)

detectable presence of IgM antibody only

d)

decrease in IgM antibody; increase in IgG antibody of the IgG3 subtyp

52.

Which of the following complement components is a strong chemotactic factor as well as a strong anaphylatoxin?

a)

C3a

b)

C3b

c)

C5a

d)

C4a

53.

Which of the following activities is associated with C3b?

a)

opsonization

b)

anaphylaxis

c)

vasoconstriction

d)

chemotaxis

54.

Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta hence part of natural humoral immunity of a fetus?

a)

IgG1

b)

IgG2

c)

IgG3

d)

IgG4

55.

A haptenic determinant will react with:

a)

both T cells and antibody

b)

T cells but not antibody

c)

neither T cells nor antibody

d)

antibody but not T cells

56.

A concentrate of lymphocytes is most likely to be prepared from peripheral blood by

a)

density gradient centrifugation

b)

ultracentrifugation

c)

zone electrophoresis

d)

freeze fractionation

57.

Macrophages are characterized by:

a)

cytoplasmic receptors for C3 complement

b)

surface CD3 expression

c)

in vitro synthesis of immunoglobulin

d)

large amounts of rough endoplasmic reticulum

58.

Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is enhanced by which of the following

a)

opsonin

b)

antigen

c)

hapten

d)

secretory piece

59.

Avidity may be defined as the:

a)

degree of hemolysis

b)

titer of an antigen

c)

dilution of an antibody

d)

strength of a reacting antibody

60.

Which of the following cells respond best to concanavalin A in culture?

a)

T lymphocytes

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

macrophages

d)

eosinophils

61.

A patient's abnormal lymphocytes form rosettes with sheep red blood cells, are positive for CD2 antigen, lack C3 receptors, and are negative for surface immunoglobulin. This can be classified as a disorder of:

a)

T cells

b)

B cells

c)

monocytes

d)

null cells

62.

The correct sequence of events in successful phagocytosis is:

a)

chemotaxis, opsonization, phagosome formation, and the action of antibacterial substances

b)

destruction of bacteria or particulate matter, movement of phagocytes, engulfment, and

digestion

c)

opsonization, chemotaxis, phagosome formation, and the action of antibacterial substances

d)

engulfment, opsonization, digestion, and destruction of bacteria or particulate matter

63.

In hybridoma technology, the desirable fused cell is the:

a)

myeloma-myeloma hybrid

b)

myeloma-lymphocyte hybrid

c)

lymphocyte-lymphocyte hybrid

d)

lymphocyte-granulocyte hybrid

64.

A patient with a B-cell deficiency will most likely exhibit:

a)

decreased phagocytosis

b)

increased bacterial infections

c)

decreased complement level

d)

increased complement levels

65.

Cells that are precursors of plasma cells and also produce immunoglobulins are:

a)

macrophages

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

T lymphocytes

d)

monocytes

66.

He was credited for his work on antibody diversity.

a)

Ellie Metchnikoff

b)

Niels K. Jerne

c)

Susumu Tonegawa

d)

Robert Koch

67.

It is defined as the study of a host’s reaction when antigens are introduced in the body.

a)

Immunity

b)

Immunology

c)

Immunohematology

d)

Seroloy

68.

Which of the following is not true about natural immunity?

a)

The response of the body each time it encounters the antigen is the same

b)

Resistance on foreign microorganisms via natural means

c)

Requires prior exposure to develop

d)

Functions in early stages of host defense in response to foreign agents

69.

The third line of defense against foreign invading microorganisms is/are?

a)

T cells and B cells

b)

Phagocytic cells

c)

External defense system

d)

All of the above

70.

Normally, the most predominant bacteria in the Gastrointestinal tract are?

a)

E. coli

b)

Salmonella

c)

Shigella

d)

Bacteroides

71.

If there is impaired chemotaxis of WBCs, what could be the possible associated condition that the patient have?

a)

Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome

b)

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

c)

Job syndrome

d)

G6PD

72.

If there is a defect on the release of reactive oxygen intermediate, what do you think is the condition that may be detected to the patient?

a)

Chediak Higashi syndrome

b)

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

c)

Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome

d)

Job Syndrome

73.

What immunity will be achieved/acquired if the patient is injected by polio vaccine?

a)

Natural Active

b)

Natural Passive

c)

Artificial Active

d)

Artificial Passive

74.

A pregnant mother who is RH negative was injected with Rhogam or anti-D as requested by her OB doctor, what do you think is the type of immunity that she acquired after injection?

a)

Natural Active

b)

Artificial Active

c)

Natural Passive

d)

Artificial Passive

75.

This type of T helper cells are against extracellular antigens.

a)

Th1

b)

Th2

c)

Th3

d)

Th4

76.

T suppressor cells:

a)

CD25

b)

CD16

c)

CD4

d)

CD8

77.

Normal ratio of CD8:CD4

a)

3:1

b)

1:2

c)

2:1

d)

1:3

78.

All of the following are mitogens that activates B cells except?

a)

Protein A

b)

Phytohemagglutinin

c)

Phorbol myristate

d)

Concanavaline A

e)

Lipopolysaccharide

79.

During density gradient centrifugation, the 4rth layer in the tube (top to bottom) after centrifugation is?

a)

Ficoll-Hipaque

b)

Mononuclear cells

c)

RBCs and granulocytes

d)

Plasma

80.

Prozone is due to:

a)

antibody excess

b)

antigen excess

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

81.

Louis Pasteur is considered the father of Immunology, what does Robert Koch known for?

a)

Discovery of cross immunity

b)

Discovery of live attenuated rabies vaccine

c)

Discovery of cellular immunity on TB

d)

Determination of complement fixation

82.

Phagocytosis was demonstrated by?

a)

Robert Klaus

b)

Robert Koch

c)

Louis Pasteur

d)

Rodney Porter

e)

Ellie Metchnikoff

83.

Among the given pairs, choose the incorrect one:

a)

Porter and Edelman: Antibody Structure

b)

Kohler and Milstein: Hybridoma Technology

c)

Bordet and Gengou: Complement fixation

d)

Grabar and Williams: Immunoelectrophoresis

e)

Jierne and Burnet: Template theory of antibody production

84.

A latex agglutination test for CRP is run on a 12-year old girl who has been ill for the past 5 days with an undiagnosed disease. The results obtained are as fol lows: weakly reactive with the undiluted serum and

negative for both the positive and negative controls.

What should the technologist do next?

a)

Repeat the entire test

b)

Report the results as indeterminate

c)

Report the result as positive

d)

Obtain a new sample

85.

Phagocytic cells are cells that have the ability to ingest, and sometimes digest, foreign particles, such as bacteria, carbon, dust, or dye. If a student wants to perform an vitro phagocytosis, the cells that should be excluded in the experiment is _____________________________ .

a)

Macrophages

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Neutrophils

e)

Monocytes

86.

Which of the following applies to the term "immunity"?

a)

It is the study of a host’s reaction when foreign substances are introduced in the body.

b)

It is the overall reaction of the body to injury or invasion by an infectious agent.

c)

The capability of the individual to resist harmful microorganisms.

d)

None of the given choices.

87.

Which of the following is more likely to be diagnostic of an acute infection?

a)

A total acute antibody titer of 2 followed by a convalescent titer of 16

b)

A total acute antibody titer of 80 followed by a convalescent titer of 40

c)

A total antibody titer of 80

d)

An IgG antibody titer of 80

88.

How does the secondary humoral immune response differ from the primary response?

a)

The lag phase (the time between exposure to immunogen and production of antibody) is longer in the secondary immune response.

b)

IgM is the predominant antibody class produced in the secondary immune response.

c)

The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response.

d)

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes play an important role in the secondary response.

89.

A major advantage of passive immunization compared to active immunization is that

a)

Antibody is available more quickly

b)

Antibody persists for the life of the recipient

c)

IgM is the predominant antibody class provided

d)

Oral administration can be used

90.

The higher the dose of an antigen, the more immunogenic it is.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

What is the molecular weight of an antigen in order to be considered highly immunogenic?

a)

>100,000 daltons

b)

>10,000 Daltons

c)

6, 000-10, 000 daltons

d)

<1, 000 daltons

92.

All of the following are actions of an adjuvant except?

a)

Coats the antigen

b)

Prolongs the time which the antigen stays in the hosts system

c)

Enhances an immune response

d)

Produces a local inflammatory response that attracts a large number of immune system cells to the injection site.

e)

None of the given choices

93.

Given the type of an antigen, which do you think can elicit the best immune response particularly if used for immunization?

a)

Homologous antigen

b)

Heterologous antigen

c)

Autologous antigen

d)

Alloantigen

94.

Determine what is being described below:

This antigen is complete and able to evoke an immune response.

a)

Immunogen

b)

Antigen

c)

Haptens

d)

All of the given choices

95.

Poison ivy is an example of _______ that once in contact with skin causes contact dermatitis.

a)

Immunogen

b)

Antigen

c)

Hapten

d)

All of the given choices

96.

At which circumstances does alloantigens are considered very important?

a)

tissue transplantation and blood transfusions

b)

autoimmune diseases

c)

cross immunity

d)

all of the given choices

97.

At which circumstances does autoantigens are considered very important?

a)

tissue transplantation and blood transfusions

b)

autoimmune diseases

c)

cross immunity

d)

all of the given choices

98.

Which of the following influence an immune response against an immunogen or antigen?

a)

Age

b)

Antigen Dose

c)

Route of administration

d)

Genetic composition

e)

All of the given choices

99.

Rh and Lewis antigens are made up of:

a)

Glycoproteins

b)

Glycolipids

c)

Nucleic acids

d)

Proteins

100.

A, B, and H antigens are made up of:

a)

Glycoproteins

b)

Glycolipids

c)

Nucleic acids

d)

Proteins