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WorksheetsIMMUNOLOGY SEROLOGY-PRELIM EXAM
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins
From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation:
Lysozyme
Complement
Immunoglobulins
Commensal organisms
Which two organs are considered the primary lymphoid organs in which immunocompetent cells originate and mature?
Thyroid and Peyer’s patches
Thymus and bone marrow
Spleen and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
Lymph nodes and thoracic duct
T cells travel from the bone marrow to the thymus for maturation. What is the correct order of the maturation sequence for T cells in the thymus?
Bone marrow to the cortex; after thymic education, released back to peripheral circulation
Maturation and selection occur in the cortex; migration to the medulla; release of mature T cells to secondary lymphoid organs
Storage in either the cortex or medulla; release of T cells into the peripheral circulation
Activation and selection occur in the medulla; mature T cells are stored in the cortex until activated by antigen
Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker appears during the first stage of T-cell development and remains present as an identifying marker for T cells?
CD1
CD2
CD3
CD4 or CD8
Which markers are found on mature, peripheral helper T cells?
CD2, CD3, CD4
CD1, CD3, CD4
CD2, CD3, CD8
CD1, CD2, CD4
Which T cell expresses the CD8 marker and acts specifically to kill tumors or virally infected cells?
Helper T cells
T suppressor
T cytotoxic
T suppressor
How are cytotoxic T cells (TC cells) and natural killer (NK) cells similar?
Do not bind to infected cell
Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers
Effective against virally infected cells
Require antibody to be present
What is the name of the process by which phagocytic cells are attracted to a substance such as a bacterial peptide?
Phagotaxis
Chemotaxis
Degranulation
Diapedesis
Which immunoglobulin(s) help(s) initiate the classic complement pathway?
IgA and IgD
IgM and IgD
IgG and IgM
IgG only
What is the purpose of C3a, C4a, and C5a, the split products of the complement cascade?
To bind with specific membrane receptors of lymphocytes and cause release of cytotoxic substances
To cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils
To bind with membrane receptors of macrophages to facilitate phagocytosis and the removal of debris and foreign substances
To regulate and degrade membrane cofactor protein after activation by C3 convertase
Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen?
Fab
Fc
Constant Light Chains
Constant Heavy Chain
Which region of the IgE immunoglobulin molecule binds with eosinophil for parasite killing?
Fab
Fc
Constant Light Chains
Constant Heavy Chain
Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement?
Variable region of the Heavy Chain (VH)
Constant region of the Heavy Chain
Variable region of Light Chain
Constant region of Light Chain
Which immunoglobulin class(es) has (have) a J chain?
IgM
IgE and IgD
IgM and IgA
IgG3 and IgA
Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response?
IgG1
IgM
IgA
IgE
Which immunoglobulin is mostly involved in allergic reaction?
IgG1
IgM
IgA
IgE
Which immunoglobulin appears in highest titer in the secondary response?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
Direct antigen recognition is a function of what type of immunity?
Innate immunity
Specific immunity
Adaptive immunity
Passive immunity
Which immunoglobulin cross links mast cells to release histamine?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
All of the following are functions of immunoglobulins except:
Neutralizing toxic substances
Facilitating phagocytosis through opsonization
Interacting with cytotoxic T cells (TC) to lyse viruses
Combining with complement to destroy cellular antigens
All of the following describes an IgM antibody except:
Response in primary infection
Largest antibody
Most abundant type of antibody in serum
Reacts at cold temperature
Toll-like receptors are found on which cells?
T cells
Dendritic cells
B cells
Large granular lymphocytes
Macrophages produce which of the following proteins during antigen processing?
IL-1 and IL-6
γ-Interferon
IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10
Complement components C1 and C3
T regulator cells, responsible for controlling autoimmune antibody production, express which of the following phenotypes?
CD3, CD4, CD8
CD3, CD8, CD25
CD3, CD4, CD25
CD8, CD25, CD56
Measurement of serum levels of the following serves as a screening test for multiple allergies.
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Antibody class and antibody subclass are determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the:
Constant of heavy chain
Constant region of light chain
Variable region of heavy and light chain
Constant regions of heavy and light chain
Molecules with repeating units are non complex and are less antigenic.
True
False
Which of the following represents the relative concentration of immunoglobulins in decreasing order in normal serum?
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD
IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD
IgG, IgD, IgA, IgM
IgG, IgA, IgD, IgM
T lymphocytes are incapable of functioning as:
cytotoxic cells
helper cells
phagocytic cell
suppressor cell
T cells are incapable of:
collaborating with B cells in some antibody responses
secretion of immunoglobulins
secretion of lymphokines
producing positive skin tests
Substances that are antigenic only when coupled to a protein carrier are:
opsonins
haptens
adjuvants
allergen
Which of the following chemical classes of antigens is most likely to activate the alternative pathway of complement?
proteins
lipids
polysaccharides
hapten
Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is associated with a secretory component (transport piece)?
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
It serves as monoclonal activators of lymphocytes.
(a)
Antibodies associated with anaphylactic reaction following blood transfusion?
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgD
Jenner’s work with cowpox, which provided immunity against smallpox, demonstrates which phenomenon?
Natural immunity
Attenuation of vaccines
Phagocytosis
Cross-immunity
The process of inflammation is characterized by all of the following except
Increased blood supply to the area
Migration of white blood cells.
Appearance of acute-phase reactants.
Decreased capillary permeability
Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity?
Autoimmunity
Acquired
Adaptive
Natural
The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a?
Phagosome
Lysosome
Vacuole
Phagolysosome
Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except?
Monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents
Tracking the normal progress of surgery.
Diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection
Determining active phases of rheumatoid
The action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody in which of the following ways?
CRP acts before the antibody appears.
Only the antibody triggers the complement cascade.
Binding of the antibody is calcium-dependent.
Only CRP acts as an opsonin
A heterophile antigen is one that?
is a self-antigen
exists in unrelated plants or animals
has been used previously to stimulate antibody response
is from the same species but is different from the host
How many antigen binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have?
5
4
10
2
Which would be the best immunogen?
Protein with a molecular weight of 200,000
Nylon
Polysaccharide with a molecular weight of 250,000
Protein with a molecular weight of 175,000
This region is found on the carboxy-terminal end of the immunoglobulin.
(a)
Blood phenotype that is resistant to P. vivax infection.
(a)
This type of immunoglobulins are derived from a single clone of cells.
(a)
The hinge region is high in (a) that aids in the flexibility of the immunoglobulin structure.
Type of antigen that induces an antibody production and reacts specifically with it.
(a)
Which of the following statements about immunoglobulins is true?
Immunoglobulins are produced by T lymphocytes
The IgA class is determined by the gamma heavy chain.
The IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules.
There are two subclasses of IgG.
The classic antibody response pattern following infection with hepatitis A is:
increase in IgM antibody; decrease in IgM antibody; increase in IgG antibody
detectable presence of IgG antibody only
detectable presence of IgM antibody only
decrease in IgM antibody; increase in IgG antibody of the IgG3 subtyp
Which of the following complement components is a strong chemotactic factor as well as a strong anaphylatoxin?
C3a
C3b
C5a
C4a
Which of the following activities is associated with C3b?
opsonization
anaphylaxis
vasoconstriction
chemotaxis
Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta hence part of natural humoral immunity of a fetus?
IgG1
IgG2
IgG3
IgG4
A haptenic determinant will react with:
both T cells and antibody
T cells but not antibody
neither T cells nor antibody
antibody but not T cells
A concentrate of lymphocytes is most likely to be prepared from peripheral blood by
density gradient centrifugation
ultracentrifugation
zone electrophoresis
freeze fractionation
Macrophages are characterized by:
cytoplasmic receptors for C3 complement
surface CD3 expression
in vitro synthesis of immunoglobulin
large amounts of rough endoplasmic reticulum
Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is enhanced by which of the following
opsonin
antigen
hapten
secretory piece
Avidity may be defined as the:
degree of hemolysis
titer of an antigen
dilution of an antibody
strength of a reacting antibody
Which of the following cells respond best to concanavalin A in culture?
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
macrophages
eosinophils
A patient's abnormal lymphocytes form rosettes with sheep red blood cells, are positive for CD2 antigen, lack C3 receptors, and are negative for surface immunoglobulin. This can be classified as a disorder of:
T cells
B cells
monocytes
null cells
The correct sequence of events in successful phagocytosis is:
chemotaxis, opsonization, phagosome formation, and the action of antibacterial substances
destruction of bacteria or particulate matter, movement of phagocytes, engulfment, and
digestion
opsonization, chemotaxis, phagosome formation, and the action of antibacterial substances
engulfment, opsonization, digestion, and destruction of bacteria or particulate matter
In hybridoma technology, the desirable fused cell is the:
myeloma-myeloma hybrid
myeloma-lymphocyte hybrid
lymphocyte-lymphocyte hybrid
lymphocyte-granulocyte hybrid
A patient with a B-cell deficiency will most likely exhibit:
decreased phagocytosis
increased bacterial infections
decreased complement level
increased complement levels
Cells that are precursors of plasma cells and also produce immunoglobulins are:
macrophages
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
monocytes
He was credited for his work on antibody diversity.
Ellie Metchnikoff
Niels K. Jerne
Susumu Tonegawa
Robert Koch
It is defined as the study of a host’s reaction when antigens are introduced in the body.
Immunity
Immunology
Immunohematology
Seroloy
Which of the following is not true about natural immunity?
The response of the body each time it encounters the antigen is the same
Resistance on foreign microorganisms via natural means
Requires prior exposure to develop
Functions in early stages of host defense in response to foreign agents
The third line of defense against foreign invading microorganisms is/are?
T cells and B cells
Phagocytic cells
External defense system
All of the above
Normally, the most predominant bacteria in the Gastrointestinal tract are?
E. coli
Salmonella
Shigella
Bacteroides
If there is impaired chemotaxis of WBCs, what could be the possible associated condition that the patient have?
Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome
Chronic Granulomatous Disease
Job syndrome
G6PD
If there is a defect on the release of reactive oxygen intermediate, what do you think is the condition that may be detected to the patient?
Chediak Higashi syndrome
Chronic Granulomatous Disease
Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome
Job Syndrome
What immunity will be achieved/acquired if the patient is injected by polio vaccine?
Natural Active
Natural Passive
Artificial Active
Artificial Passive
A pregnant mother who is RH negative was injected with Rhogam or anti-D as requested by her OB doctor, what do you think is the type of immunity that she acquired after injection?
Natural Active
Artificial Active
Natural Passive
Artificial Passive
This type of T helper cells are against extracellular antigens.
Th1
Th2
Th3
Th4
T suppressor cells:
CD25
CD16
CD4
CD8
Normal ratio of CD8:CD4
3:1
1:2
2:1
1:3
All of the following are mitogens that activates B cells except?
Protein A
Phytohemagglutinin
Phorbol myristate
Concanavaline A
Lipopolysaccharide
During density gradient centrifugation, the 4rth layer in the tube (top to bottom) after centrifugation is?
Ficoll-Hipaque
Mononuclear cells
RBCs and granulocytes
Plasma
Prozone is due to:
antibody excess
antigen excess
Both A and B
None of the above
Louis Pasteur is considered the father of Immunology, what does Robert Koch known for?
Discovery of cross immunity
Discovery of live attenuated rabies vaccine
Discovery of cellular immunity on TB
Determination of complement fixation
Phagocytosis was demonstrated by?
Robert Klaus
Robert Koch
Louis Pasteur
Rodney Porter
Ellie Metchnikoff
Among the given pairs, choose the incorrect one:
Porter and Edelman: Antibody Structure
Kohler and Milstein: Hybridoma Technology
Bordet and Gengou: Complement fixation
Grabar and Williams: Immunoelectrophoresis
Jierne and Burnet: Template theory of antibody production
A latex agglutination test for CRP is run on a 12-year old girl who has been ill for the past 5 days with an undiagnosed disease. The results obtained are as fol lows: weakly reactive with the undiluted serum and
negative for both the positive and negative controls.
What should the technologist do next?
Repeat the entire test
Report the results as indeterminate
Report the result as positive
Obtain a new sample
Phagocytic cells are cells that have the ability to ingest, and sometimes digest, foreign particles, such as bacteria, carbon, dust, or dye. If a student wants to perform an vitro phagocytosis, the cells that should be excluded in the experiment is _____________________________ .
Macrophages
Eosinophils
Basophils
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Which of the following applies to the term "immunity"?
It is the study of a host’s reaction when foreign substances are introduced in the body.
It is the overall reaction of the body to injury or invasion by an infectious agent.
The capability of the individual to resist harmful microorganisms.
None of the given choices.
Which of the following is more likely to be diagnostic of an acute infection?
A total acute antibody titer of 2 followed by a convalescent titer of 16
A total acute antibody titer of 80 followed by a convalescent titer of 40
A total antibody titer of 80
An IgG antibody titer of 80
How does the secondary humoral immune response differ from the primary response?
The lag phase (the time between exposure to immunogen and production of antibody) is longer in the secondary immune response.
IgM is the predominant antibody class produced in the secondary immune response.
The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response.
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes play an important role in the secondary response.
A major advantage of passive immunization compared to active immunization is that
Antibody is available more quickly
Antibody persists for the life of the recipient
IgM is the predominant antibody class provided
Oral administration can be used
The higher the dose of an antigen, the more immunogenic it is.
True
False
What is the molecular weight of an antigen in order to be considered highly immunogenic?
>100,000 daltons
>10,000 Daltons
6, 000-10, 000 daltons
<1, 000 daltons
All of the following are actions of an adjuvant except?
Coats the antigen
Prolongs the time which the antigen stays in the hosts system
Enhances an immune response
Produces a local inflammatory response that attracts a large number of immune system cells to the injection site.
None of the given choices
Given the type of an antigen, which do you think can elicit the best immune response particularly if used for immunization?
Homologous antigen
Heterologous antigen
Autologous antigen
Alloantigen
Determine what is being described below:
This antigen is complete and able to evoke an immune response.
Immunogen
Antigen
Haptens
All of the given choices
Poison ivy is an example of _______ that once in contact with skin causes contact dermatitis.
Immunogen
Antigen
Hapten
All of the given choices
At which circumstances does alloantigens are considered very important?
tissue transplantation and blood transfusions
autoimmune diseases
cross immunity
all of the given choices
At which circumstances does autoantigens are considered very important?
tissue transplantation and blood transfusions
autoimmune diseases
cross immunity
all of the given choices
Which of the following influence an immune response against an immunogen or antigen?
Age
Antigen Dose
Route of administration
Genetic composition
All of the given choices
Rh and Lewis antigens are made up of:
Glycoproteins
Glycolipids
Nucleic acids
Proteins
A, B, and H antigens are made up of:
Glycoproteins
Glycolipids
Nucleic acids
Proteins
