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REVISION

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is correct about the image of an object formed by a convex mirror?

a)

Virtual , upright , diminished

b)

Real , upright , diminished

c)

Virtual , inverted , magnify

d)

Real , inverted , magnify

2.

Diagram 17 shows an object is placed in front of the plane mirror.

Which is the correct position of the image?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

3.

The depth of a swimming pool appears to be less than its actual depth. The light phenomenon which causes this is

a)

Reflection

b)

Interference

c)

Diffraction

d)

Refraction

4.
What colours is white light made from?
a)
Orange, Green, Pink, Magenta, Peach, Rose, Lemon
b)
Red, Orange Yellow, Green, Black, Indigo, Violet
c)
Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet
d)
Red, Orange, Yellow, Grey, Blue, Indigo, Violet
5.

Which property of light is illustrated in this image?

a)

Light travels at 300,000,000m/s

b)

Light travels in straight lines

c)

Light is a wave

d)

Light is a particle

6.

What is the name given to a material which lets most of the light pass through it?

a)

Opaque

b)

Translucent

c)

Clear

d)

Transparent

7.

What is the name given to the type of material which will not let any light pass through?

a)

Opaque

b)

Translucent

c)

Clear

d)

Transparent

8.

What is the speed of light

a)

300 m/s

b)

300,000 m/s

c)

300,000,000 m/s

d)

300,000,000,000 m/s

9.

Which of the following is non-luminous?

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.

Which of the following is luminous?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

Which of the following describes an image formed in a plane mirror?

a)

Laterally inverted

b)

Same size as object

c)

Same distance behind mirror as object is in front

d)

Enlarged

e)

Inverted

12.

Which letter is the normal line?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

13.

At what angle will the reflected ray strike the second mirror?

a)

30

b)

45

c)

60

d)

90

14.

Which letter is the reflected ray?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

15.

What is the angle of incidence?

a)

10°

b)

30°

c)

60°

d)

80°

16.

What is the angle of incidence?

a)

10°

b)

30°

c)

60°

d)

80°

17.
Which parts of your eye are transparent?
a)
retina
b)
optic nerve
c)
cornea and lens
d)
iris
18.
This part of the eye carries the message from your eye to the part of your brain that controls vision. 
a)
cornea
b)
lens
c)
optic nerve
d)
retina
19.
In dim light, your pupil will be 
a)
larger
b)
smaller
20.
In bright light, your pupil will be
a)
larger
b)
smaller
21.
The part of your eye that gives it its color.  It is a muscle that controls the size of your pupil.
a)
cornea
b)
lens
c)
pupi
d)
iris
22.
The back of the eye;  an upside-down image of whatever you are looking at is projected here. 
a)
lens
b)
cornea
c)
pupi
d)
retina
23.
The first part of the eye that light hits. 
a)
lens
b)
cornea
c)
pupil
d)
retina
24.
The lens of your eye is convex.  Because of this, what happens to light as it passes through the lens? 
a)
Light is absorbed. 
b)
Light is reflected. 
c)
Light is refracted.
d)
Light is transmitted. 
25.
Which part of the eye focuses light onto the retina? 
a)
Cornea
b)
Pupil
c)
Lens
d)
Optic Nerve
26.
In order for your brain to process the light waves that enter your eye, what must your eye do to those waves before sending them to the brain?
a)
Nothing, the light waves just get sent to the brain.
b)
Light waves have to be converted into sound waves by the eye. 
c)
Light waves have to be converted into nerve impulses by the eye. 
d)
Light waves have to be refracted by the eye. 
27.
Which part of the eye is the place where images are inverted?  
a)
Retina
b)
Cornea
c)
Lens
d)
Iris
28.
Which of the following is the correct order in which light travels through the eye?  
a)
Cornea, Lens, Retina, Pupil, Optic Nerve
b)
Pupil, Cornea, Lens, Retina, Optic Nerve
c)
Cornea, Retina, Lens, Pupil, Optic Nerve
d)
Cornea, Pupil, Lens, Retina, Optic Nerve
29.
Regulates the amount of light entering the eye and gives the eye its color.
a)
Iris
b)
Lens
c)
Pupil
d)
Retina
30.
What is letter E?
a)
Vitreous humor
b)
Retina
c)
Cornea
d)
Optic nerve
31.
What is letter F?
a)
Retina
b)
Pupil
c)
Vitreous humor
d)
Iris
32.
What is the cornea?
a)
clear structure that bends light to focus on the retina
b)
white outer layer of the eyeball
c)
clear layer that forms front of the eye
d)
gel that fills space
33.
These are the structures in the eye that perceives color
a)
Rods
b)
Cones
c)
Blind Spot
d)
Pupil
34.
This structure focuses the images in the environment
a)
Sclera
b)
Lens
c)
Retina
d)
Cones
35.

What is a cataract?

a)

Shortening of the eyeball

b)

Cornea has too little curvature

c)

Double vision

d)

Clouding of the lens

36.

Which eye disease has blurred images and clouding of the lens?

a)

Myopia

b)

Pink Eye

c)

Cataracts

d)

Hypermyopia

37.

Oil spill is a threat to organisms living in ..........................

a)

Forests

b)

Deserts

c)

Seas

d)

Plains

38.

Relationship between a biotic community and an abiotic environment is called...............

a)

Biodiversity

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Symbiosis

d)

Survival

39.

All the different kinds of animals living in their natural surroundings are called ..........of that place.

a)

Fauna

b)

Flora

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

40.

All the different kind of plants living in their natural surroundings are called the .........of that place

a)

Flora

b)

Fauna

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

41.

The book which keeps a record of all endangered animals, plants and other species is called..............

a)

IUCN

b)

Red Data Book

c)

National park

d)

Sanctuary

42.

Large scale cutting of trees are called

a)

Reforestation

b)

Afforestation

c)

Deforestation

d)

None of these

43.

Illegal hunting of wild animals for commercial uses is called

a)

Pollution

b)

Conservation

c)

Poaching

d)

None of these

44.

A major threat of survival of organisms like variety of plants and animal which exist on earth is due to................

a)

Desertification

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Deforestation

d)

Both desertification and deforestation

45.

The existence of a diverse variety of plants and animals living in a region is called_______.

a)

Species

b)

Flora

c)

Fauna

d)

Biodiversity

46.

Loss of biodiversity is also because of _______ in human population.

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Spread

d)

Fight

47.

Group of organisms of the same species forms a ...............

a)

Species

b)

Population

c)

Biosphere

d)

Community

48.

Which of the following activities cannot help in conservation?

a)

Natural Disasters

b)

Recycling of polythene

c)

Recycling of metal

d)

Recycling of cardboard

49.

The natural environment of plant or animal species where it lives and reproduces is called

a)

Ecosystem

b)

Biosphere

c)

Habitat

d)

None of these

50.

Clearing of forests and using that land for other purposes

a)

Drought

b)

Reforestation

c)

Deforestation

d)

Biologi

51.

Does ground level water increases or decreases due to deforestation?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

52.

What is desertification?

a)

When desert turns into land

b)

When soil turns into desert

c)

When soil grows cactus

d)

When desert collects a lot of sand

53.

Areas where animals are protected from any disturbance to them and their habitat

a)

National Park

b)

Wildlife Sanctuary

c)

Biosphere reserve

d)

Zoo

54.

Part of the earth in which living organisms exist or which supports life

a)

Wildlife

b)

Biodiversity

c)

Biosphere

d)

Biodegradable

55.

Species of plants and animals which are found exclusively in a particular area

(a)  

56.

Group of population which are capable of interbreeding

(a)  

57.

Which substance give heat and light after combustion

a)

Flame

b)

Fuel

c)

Combustion

d)

None of these

58.

Burning of charcoal in a closed room will produce

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Nitrogen dioxide

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Sulphur dioxide

59.

The substances which have very low ignition temperature will

a)

Catch fire easily

b)

Will not catch fire

c)

Catch fire after some time

d)

None of these

60.

Ignition temperature is

a)

Lowest temperature at catch fire

b)

Higher temperature at catch fire

c)

Any temperature

d)

1000 C

61.

Combustion is a

a)

Natural process

b)

Chemical process

c)

Physical process

d)

None of these processes

62.

When magnesium ribbon burnt it produce

a)

Magnesium hydroxide

b)

Magnesium oxide

c)

Magnesium chloride

d)

Magnesium sulphate

63.

Which one of the following is fuel of our body?

a)

Petrol

b)

Diesel

c)

Water

d)

Food

64.

Which one of the following is combustible?

a)

Iron nail

b)

Glass

c)

Stone pieces

d)

Paper

65.

In the presence of water, ignition Temperature of paper is-

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Remain constant

d)

None of these

66.

Which of the following is inflammable Substances?

a)

Petrol

b)

Wood

c)

Paper

d)

Straw

67.

Fire extinguisher-

a)

Raise up temperature of fuel

b)

Bring down the temperature of fuel

c)

Cut off the supply of air

d)

None of these

68.

Which is the hottest part in the flame of the candle

a)

Yellow

b)

Wax part

c)

Black

d)

Blue

69.

Combustion is a reaction in which a substance reacts with

a)

hydrogen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Chlorine

70.

What is the main chemical component present in striking surface of a matchbox?

a)

Potassium chlorate

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Potassium

d)

Graphite

71.

An ideal fuel is cheap, readily available, easily combustible and easy to transport. It has high calorific value. It does not produce gases or residues that pollute the environment. Based on the above statements which of the following is closest to being an ideal fuel?

a)

Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)

b)

Kerosene

c)

Petrol

d)

Coal

72.

When a cracker is ignited, a sudden reaction takes place with the evolution of heat, light and sound. Identify the type of combustion?

a)

Explosion

b)

Random combustion

c)

Rapid combustion

d)

Spontaneous combustion

73.

Which of the following is inflammable Substances?

a)

Petrol

b)

Wood

c)

Paper

d)

Straw

74.

Which is the hottest part in the flame of the candle

a)

Yellow

b)

Wax part

c)

Black

d)

Blue

75.

Good fuel is

a)

Readily available

b)

Cheap

c)

Burn easily in air

d)

All of these

76.

Ideal fuel has ____________ calorific value

a)

Zero

b)

Low

c)

Moderate

d)

High

77.

The least hot zone of a candle flame is

a)

non-lumious zone

b)

luminous

c)

dark zone

d)

blue zone at the base of the wick

78.
Which type of fire extinguisher should be used on a fire involving flammable liquids such as grease or oil?
a)
Water
b)
Carbon Dioxide 
c)
Dry Chemical
d)
Foam
79.
Water is not used to control fires involving electrical appliances.
a)
False
b)
True
80.
Which of the following fuel has highest calorific value?
a)
Wood
b)
coal
c)
Hydrogen
d)
petrol
81.

Moderately hot zone in a candle flame

a)

outer zone

b)

middle zone

c)

innermost zone

d)

wax candle

82.
what is the type of combustion 
which occurs rapidly and produce heat and light?
a)
rapid combustion
b)
spontaneous combustion
c)
fast combustion
d)
explosion
83.

When water is poured over burning wood, the fire goes off. This is because

a)

temperature of wood decreases

b)

temperature of water goes up

c)

molecules of water reacts with oxygen present in the flame

d)

the flame vapourises

84.

Fire is extinguished by

a)

removing all combustible substance

b)

cutting off supply of air

c)

cooling the burning substance

d)

all the these

85.

CNG and LPG are the examples of

a)

solid fuels

b)

liquid fuels

c)

gaseous fuels

d)

they aren't fuels

86.

what is combustion

a)

chemical process

b)

physical process

c)

none of these

d)

both a & b

87.

What distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell? (How do you tell them apart) Hint: There's 3 ways (Check all 3)

a)

Central Vacuole

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Chloroplasts

88.

____ is credited with being the first scientist to observe cork cells.

a)

Leewenhoek

b)

Shleidon

c)

Hooke

89.

Bacteria is classified as a what?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

90.

Which organelle is the command center for eukaryotic (plant and animal) cells?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosome

91.

What is the difference between a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Prokaryotes do not have a nucleus or organelles, but a eukaryotic cell does

b)

Eukaryotic cells do not have a nucleus or organelles, but prokaryotes do

92.

Which of the following is a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Plant

c)

Plant and animal

d)

Animal

93.

How can you tell that this is a prokaryote or eukaryote cell?

a)

It is a prokaryote because it doesn't have a nucleus

b)

It is a eukaryotic cell because it has a cell wall and a nucleus

c)

It is eukaryotic because it does not a nucleus nor a cell membrane

d)

It is prokaryote because it has a cell wall

94.

What is the purpose of the nucleus?

a)

It is the command center, contains DNA, and cell division

b)

It protects the cell

c)

It stores energy for the cell

d)

It gets rid of waste in the cell

95.

The outermost layer of a plant cell and animal cell is...

a)

Plant cell - cell membrane, animal cell - cell wall

b)

Plant cell - cell wall; animal cell - cell membrane

c)

Plant and animal cell - cell wall

d)

Plant and animal cell - cell membrane

96.

What does a plant cell have that an animal cell doesn't have?

a)

Cell Membrane and Cell Wall

b)

Cell Wall and Mitochondria

c)

Cell Wall and Nucleus

d)

Cell Wall and Chloroplast

97.

What is the jelly-like substance that keeps the organelles floating?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

ER

d)

Cytoplasm

98.

Which organelle holds the cell together? (found in both an animal and plant cell)

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Ribosome

99.
What tool do you use to view the cells?
a)
metric ruler
b)
centrifuge
c)
microscope
d)
telescope
100.
An organism made of one cell is called
a)
unicellular organism
b)
multicellular organism
101.
what is a cell classified as?
a)
a basic unit of structure and function of all living organisms
b)
a unit based on only plants and animals that are living
102.

The star which appears stationary from the earth

a)

Pole star

b)

Shooting Stars

c)

Sirius

d)

Alpha Centauri

103.

It takes nearly how many solar days for the moon to make one complete revolution around the earth?

a)

23.5

b)

24.5

c)

27.5

d)

29.5

104.

how many stars are there in the constellation 'THE GREAT BEAR' ?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

105.

Brightest star in the night sky

a)

sun

b)

Sirius

c)

Pole star

d)

Proxima centauri

106.

Stars appears to move from

a)

west to east

b)

north to south

c)

east to west

d)

south to north

107.

which of the following constellation is like a distorted form of letter W or M?

a)

Big dipper

b)

Small dipper

c)

Cassiopeia

d)

Sirius

108.

............are the patterns of stars in the sky

a)

Moon phases

b)

Constellation

c)

Solar system

d)

Big dipper

109.

The changes in the moon's appearance is called

a)

Earth

b)

Solar system

c)

Moon phases

d)

Constellation

110.

The .............orbits the sun while the ......... orbit the eath.

a)

Moon,earth

b)

Earth,moon

c)

Earth,sun

d)

Moon,sun

111.

........... is the closest planet to the sun.

a)

Venus

b)

Earth

c)

Mercury

d)

Mars

112.

What causes earth to have day and night?

a)

The moon moves between earth and the sun

b)

Earth revolves around the sun

c)

Stars move around earth in a pattern.

d)

Earth rotates on its axis

113.

Why do seasons occur?

a)

Because of the distance earth is from the sun

b)

Because earth tilts on its axis

c)

Because earth rotates on its axis

d)

Because earth is surrounded by air

114.

In which direction does earth rotates?

a)

North to south

b)

South to north

c)

West to east

d)

East to west

115.

The inner planets are

a)

Jupiter Saturn Uranus Neptune

b)

Earth Jupiter Mars Neptune

c)

Mercury Neptune moon sun

d)

Mercury Venus Earth Mars

116.

The outer planets are

a)

Jupiter Saturn Uranus Neptune

b)

Pluto Neptune moon sun

c)

Mercury Venus Earth Mars

d)

Mercury Neptune moon sun

117.

The differences between inner planets and Outer planets are

a)

Inner planets are large and Rocky while outer planets are smaller and made mostly of gas

b)

Inner planets are large and made of gas while outer planet are smaller and Rocky

c)

Inner planet are small and Rocky while outer planets are large and made mostly of gas

d)

Inner planets are small and made of gas while outer planets are large and rocks

118.

The sun rises in the ..........., and set in the .............

a)

North and South

b)

South and north

c)

West and East

d)

East and West

119.

What Moon phase is this?

a)

Waxing gibbous

b)

Waxing crescent

c)

Waning gibbous

d)

Waning crescent

120.

The most suitable unit to measure the distance between stars and planets is ________

a)

km

b)

light year

c)

light unit

d)

trillion

121.

Identify ursa minor

a)
b)
c)
d)
122.

Identify hunter

a)
b)
c)
d)
123.

Morning and evening star

a)

mercury

b)

mars

c)

uranus

d)

venus

124.

Farthest planet from the sun

a)

uranus

b)

pluto

c)

neptune

d)

mercury

125.

Most asteroids are found between the orbits of mars and Jupiter. This region is called (a)  

126.

On which day is the moon not visible to us?

a)

Full moon

b)

Crescent moon

c)

New moon

d)

Both Full moon and New moon

127.

Which of the following is the largest planet?

a)

Saturn

b)

Jupiter

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

128.

(a)   comet appears after nearly 76 years.

129.
Which of these problems can be caused by air pollution?
a)
Respiratory problems
b)
Reduced food sources for humans
c)
Increased disease for humans
d)
Decrease in global temperatures
130.

What causes acid rain?

a)

High concentrations of sulfuric or nitric acid from pollution

b)

Fertilizer use

c)

Pesticide use

d)

CFCs

131.

Acid rain can damage

a)

Drinking water sources

b)

Aquatic life

c)

Architecture/buildings

d)

All options are correct

132.
The ozone layer protects us from
a)
UV rays
b)
CFCs
c)
Increased atmospheric heat
d)
Decreased atmospheric heat
133.

The ozone layer is damaged by

a)

CFCs

b)

Increase in greenhouse gases

c)

Increased global temperatures

d)

Sulfuric and nitric acids

134.
Which of the following are greenhouse gases?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Methane
c)
Water vapor
d)
All answers are correct
135.
Greenhouse gases, in moderate amounts, keep the Earth's temperature stable
a)
True
b)
False
136.
Increase in which gas is primarily responsible for increased global warming?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Water vapor
c)
Methane
d)
Nitric oxides
137.
What does this diagram illustrate?
a)
Ozone Layer
b)
The Greenhouse Effect
c)
Ultraviolet Radiation
d)
Layers of the atmosphere
138.

A rapid growth of algae could lead to:

a)

A reduction of oxygen levels in the water

b)

Water that can support more life

c)

An increase in oxygen levels

139.

There is nothing we can do to stop water pollution.

a)

True

b)

False

140.

What can happen to fish when there is not enough oxygen in the water?

a)

They can suffocate

b)

They can't float

c)

They can't see

d)

Nothing. Fish don't need oxygen

141.
Global warming is due to 
a)
Greenhouse gases
b)
Nitric and sulfuric acids
c)
CFCs
d)
Ozone depletion
142.
Dust, ash and pollen are examples of this air pollutant
a)
Lead
b)
Ground-level ozone
c)
Particulate matter
d)
Nitrogen oxides
143.
Combines with other pollutants to form acid rain
a)
Nitrogen oxides & sulfur dioxide
b)
Particulate matter & lead
c)
Nitrogen oxides & ground-level ozone
d)
Sulfur dioxide & ground-level ozone
144.
Pollution hanging over urban areas that causes reduced visibility is called
a)
Air pollution
b)
Temperature inversion
c)
Light pollution
d)
Smog

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