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Worksheets7 August 1999
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Congenital muscular torticollis is a musculeskeletal anomaly with the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
a. Children referred to PT before one year of age have better outcomes than those referred later.
b. Conservative treatment approach is a stretching program to lengthen the involved muscle
c. Clinical features include a head tilt away from the side of the shortened muscle and head rotation toward the ipsilateral side.
d. Restricted neck range of motion secondary to a shortened sternocleidomastoid
e. A surgical treatment approach is lengthening of the involved muscle
Which of the following statements is true of individuals without cardiopulmonary abnormalities?
a. The increases in ventilation (VE) and CO are inverselyproportional to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
b. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the decrease in metabolic rate allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
c. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
d. The increases in ventilation (VE), and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
e. The increase in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the decrease in respiratory rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to lower than baseline values during exercise
To be admitted to the PT-OT examination, the applicant at the time of filing of application must satisfy the following requirements, EXCEPT:
a. A foreign applicant can be admitted to the PT-OT examination even if his country of citizenship does not allow Filipino therapists to practice in his country on the same as the subjects/citizens of that country
b. Clinical experience must include neurological musculoskeletal, pulmonary, cardiovascular, pediatrics and psychosocial functions
c. He/she is at least twenty-one years of age
d. Must have completed at least nine months of clinical internship in physical and occupational therapy in an adequate PT-OT dept of a certified hospital or clinic under the supervision of a competent and duly registered therapist
e. Applicant must have received a degree from a school of physical and occupational therapy duly recognized by the government
The Problem Oriented Medical Record is a system based on the following, EXCEPT:
a. Identification of a specific treatment plan
b. Assessment of the effectiveness of the treatment plans
c. Preparation of the informed consent
d. Formation of present and past information about the patient
e. Development of a specific, current problem
The Radial Nerve innervates the following muscle
a. Extensor lndicis Propius
b. The Medial Lumbricals
c. Two Radial Lumbricals
d. Flexor Digitorum Communis
e. Abductor Pollicis Brevis
A terminal lateral rotation of the tibia is said to "lock" the joint when the knee is fully extended. This key is the
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Biceps Femoris
c. Piriformis
d. Soleus
e. Popliteus
Leaning the trunk forward when standing from a sitting position is better accomplished because:
a. Forward shifting of the line of gravity
b. Increased posterior torque
c. Center of gravity is shifted forward
d. Increased base of support
Signs of cardiac dysfunction include the following, EXCEPT:
a. A heart rate that is either excessively high of exceptionally low during exercise
b. An increase in diastolic blood pressure during exercise that is greater than 15 to 20 mm Hg
c. Electrocardiographic changes such as dysrythmias or ST-segment depression
d. A diastolic blood pressure that does not rise progressively as work level increases
e. A systolic blood pressure that falls during exercise
If the tendon surface become irritated and rough, and if the sheath becomes inflamed and continues tendon, the following condition may be diagnosed:
a. Tendinitis
b. Epicondylitis
c. Stenosing tenosynovitis
d. Tenobursitis
e. Cystitis
In Allen Test, if the hand does not react, of it if flushes very slowly
a. The released artery is not occluded
b. The released vein is not occluded
c. The released artery is partially or completely occluded
d. The released vein is partially or completely occluded
e. The released artery and vein are partially or completely occluded
Mean arterial pressure is expected to increase if
a. Stroke volume increases
b. There is maintained exertion
c. Calcium channel blockers are administered
d. cardiac output decreases
e. there is generalized vasodilatation
Licenses of registered physical and occupational therapists shall be renewed upon presentation of credit units earned in the past three years totaling
a. 30 credit units
b. 50 credit units
c. 70 credit units
d. 60 credit units
e. 80 credit units
Denervation hypersensitivity
a. Is due to an increased in the number of receptors
b. Is due to a decrease in the sensitivity of receptors.
c. Is due to an increase in the amount of neurotransmitters released
d. Results from avulsion of the nerve
e. Is due to an increased sensitivity to neurotransmitter.
Crystalloids and colloids solution in water
a. Blood platelets
b. White Blood Cells
c. Plasma
d. Macrophages
e. Phagocytes
Decreases vascular resistance by inhibiting calcium mediated contraction of vascular smooth muscle:
a. Calcium channel blockers
b. Beta adrenergic blockers
c. Diuretics
d. Calcium channel blockers
e. Angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme inhibitors
A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward above the temporal pole, and then continues on the superolateral surface, almost horizontally backwards, marking the line along which the hemisphere became folded. The speech and - hearing area are both closely associated with it.
a. Medial
b. Central
c. Lateral
d. Collateral
e. Calcarine
This joint is the upper extremity's only attachment to the trunk.
a. Sternoclavicular
b. Acromioclavicular
c. Scapulothoracic
d. Glenohumeral
e. Scapulothoracic
The shape of articulating surfaces of bi-axial joints are either
a. Plane or saddle
b. Condyloid or ellipsoid
c. Pivot or condyloid
d. hinge or pivot
e. ball and socket
Area of skin supplied by one dorsal root.
a. Erector pill
b. Dermatome
c. Myotome
d. Epidermis
e. Dermis
Proximal side to side tremor found on heel to chin or finger-nose testing:
a. Cerebellar tremor
b. Parkisonian tremor
c. Myoclonus
d. Senile Tremor
Theoretical relationships are established between the primary concept to be measured and one or more other concepts in this type of validity.
a. Prescriptive
b. Content
e. Face
d. Construct
c. Predictive
Facial expression is an age-related change that may affect expressive communication in the elderly. The sagging cheeks or jowls which give a resting appearance of "anger" or "crabbiness" to many elderly are actually the result of
a. Pessimistic outlook over the years
b. Significant loss of fat in the muscle fibers of the face
c. Denervated facial nerve
d. None of these
e. All of these
The following statements describe the Median Nerve, EXCEPT:
a. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus.
b. It accompanies the axillary and brachial arteries.
c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch, the anterior interosseous nerve
d. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow region
e. It enters with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles and all lumbricals
The following statement characterize the Radial Nerve, EXCEPT:
a. A little father down the arm, it passes obliquely lateralwards to run behind the humerus in its spiral groove, deep to the Triceps
b. As it crosses the elbow joint, it supplies the muscles arising from the lateral supracondylar ridge: the Brachioradialis and Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
c. It is the largest nerve of the upper limb
d. Its nerve divides include C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
e. The nerve divides into a long Superficial Branch and Deep Branch or Posterior Interosseous Nerve.
The Act known as the Philippine Physical and Occupational Therapy Law, creating the board of examiners for PT and OTs is known as Republic Act No.
a. 8066
b. 5680
c. 5670
d. 8056
e. 5690
Assistive devices are often used and prescribed to facilitate the process of gait training. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. These devices may be used as permanent functional aids the can be used for home or community ambulation.
b. When a person using an assistive device has compromised cardio respiratory function, the increased demand may not be within the limits of his or her reserve capacity
c. Ambulating while using an assistive device is known to create a metabolic demand different from that for unassisted ambulation
d. Assistive devices are used as transitional aids towards the goal of independent ambulation
e. The decreased metabolic demand with the use of assistive devices is at least in part due to the lower speed
The following statement characterize De Quervain's disease, .EXCEPT:
a. Combinations of hand twisting and forceful gripping can cause the disease
b. Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the tendons
c. Attributed to excessive friction between two thumb tendons and their common sheath
d. Affects the tendons on the side of the wrist and at the base of the thumb
e. The tendons affected are connected to the muscles on the back of the forearm that contract to pull the thumb back and away from the hand.
These procedures stretch the spinal cord and reproduce pain. The patient is in supine and asked to forcibly flex his head onto this chest with his hands behind his head. The result may be pain in cervical spine, and occasionally in the low back or down the legs indicating meningeal irritation, nerve root involvement or irritation of the dural covering of the nerve root.
a. Kernig Test
b. Milgram Test
c. Gaeslan's Sign
d. Hoover Test
e. Naffziger Test
The osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitial is maintained because
a. The vasa recta is permeable only to water and not to the solutes
b. The oncotic concentration in the vasa recta increases from the cortex to the medulla
c. The rate of fluid flow in the vasa recta is slower than the tubules
d. The flow of fluid in the ascending extremities of the vasa recta is perpendicular but along the same direction
e. The direction of fluid in the descending and ascending limb of the vasa recta is parallel and counter to each other
Neurodevelopment treatment (NDT) is the most commonly used approach to treatment with cerebral palsy. The 7vfollowing statements describe NDT, EXCEPT:
a. Treatment outcomes are supposed to be achieved through physical handling of the child during movement, giving the child more normal sensorimotor experiences
b. As the child gains postural control, the therapist gradually withdraws support
c. This approach focuses on encouraging and building upon normal movement patterns and normal postural reactions while trying to reduce abnormal movements
d. Current interpretations of NDT does not include the importance of functional skill practice in treatment
e. It is implicit in NDT that improved postural control will lead to improvement in functional skills without necessarily working on these specific skills
True hip pain in rheumatoid involvement of the hip produces pain on the
a. Lateral aspect of the high
b. Groin
c. On the acetabular area
d. medial aspect of the thigh
e. posterior aspect of the thigh
Resolution No. 381, Series of 1995 standardized the guidelines and procedures for the implementation of the continuing - T professional education program, which includes the following, EXCEPT:
a. The CPEC is composed of a chairman, from the members of the PRB, and two members, the first is the president of the PPTA and OTAP, the second is the president of the Association of PT and OT Schools
b. The Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Council for PT and OT assists its corresponding Professional Regulatory Board (PRB) for PT and OT in implementations CPE program.
c. The CPEC does not accept, approve applicants for accreditation of CPE providers
d. The term of office of the chairman of each CPE council is co-terminus with his/her incumbency in the PRB.
e. The term of office of the first and second member is co-terminus with his/her incumbency as officer of their respective organizations.
Disinfection is a process distinct from sterilization. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. Something that is sterile is free of any microbial life.
b. Disinfection is a process that results in the complete removal of all microbial life from an object.
c. Sterilization may be accomplished through autoclaving of irradiation by x-rays or gamma rays
d. Disinfection tends to kill vegetative microorganisms or inhibit their growth
e. Most disinfectants are chemicals, generally used on inanimate objects or surfaces rather than on living tissues.
The following characterizes straight posterior knee instability, EXCEPT:
a. May be caused by hyperextension, when some other force is directed against the extended knee
b. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate ligament and the miniscotibial portions of the capsule
c. May be caused by hyperextension, when a weight falls on the extended joint
d. Rupture is caused by a force directed against the flexed knee that strikes the anterior aspect of the tibial head and drives it rearward
e. Primary structures involved are the posterior cruciate ligament and the posterior part of the capsule
Following statements characterize pernicious anemia, EXCEPT:
a. Degeneration of dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord including gray matter
b. There is diminished two-point discrimination and joint sensation
c. Loss of position and vibration sense in the legs and positive Romberg sign.
d. Difficulty in walking and tingling sensations in the feet
e. In later stages, muscle stretch reflex may disappear.
Vestibular influence on the geocentric frame of reference are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Detection of head acceleration
b. Tibialis anterior muscle activity increases during ambulation when head is tilted backward.
c. Otolith organs provide reference for head position with respect to earth-vertical
d. No influence on trunk and limb stability when head position changes
e. Used for repositioning the eyes based on changes in head orientation
Deep tendon reflexes are
a. Polysynaptic nerve response
b. Excitatory transmission
c. Monosynaptic reflex response
d. Excitatory presynaptic potential
e. Bisynaptic reflex pressure
The following statements describe the "Carrying Angle", EXCEPT:
a. The angularity of the extended and supinated limb disappears on pronation
b. As the ulna swings round the trochlear from flexion to extension, the trochlear is forced gradually lateralwards.
c. The difference in circumference between the two ends (ulna and trochlear) of the hour-glass is responsible for forcing the ulna gradually out of line with the humerus
d. The difference in alignment between humerus and ulna is compensated for when the lower end of the radius crosses over the medial side of the ulna
e. This difference in alignment between the humerus and ulna amounts to about 15 degrees when the elbow is fully extended
Allograft rejection is a result of
a. Formation of antibodies and sensitized lymphocytes, either or both of which may destroy the acquired immunity
b. Histocompatibility complexes
c. That function to which protects an individual from toxins that might cause tissue damage
d. Destruction of the antigen by phagocytosis, a property of innate immunity
e. Provoked immunity
These mechanoreceptors are found in the skin and connective tissues surrounding bones vibration:
a. Muscle spindle
b. Ruffini's end organs
c. Miessner's corpuscles
d. Pacinian Corpuscles
e. Krause's end bulb
A pathway of communication between the two hemispheres is created as these fibers cross the midline from one '‘ hemisphere to the other.
a. Transhemisphere
b. Projection
c. Commissural
d. Superior Longitudinal Bundle
e. Association
The aorta leaves this chamber of the heart.
a. Right ventricle
b. It bypasses the heart
c. Right auricle
d. Left Ventricle
e. Left auricle
Nerve cells at rest are positively charged on the outside and negatively charged on the inside
a. Active Potentials
b. Action Potential
c. Hyperpolarization
d. Depolarization
e. Resting membrane potential
The following statements describes Down Syndrome, EXCEPT:
a. Deficit in eye-hand coordination laterality, and visual control were present in older children.
b. The present of monosynaptic reflex during platform perturbations suggested that balance problem do not result from hypotonia but from defects within higher-level postural control mechanisms
c. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down Syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance strength and visual motor controls than the group without
d. In children 1-6 years of age postures responses to loss of balance were slow and therefore insufficient for maintaining stability
e. Attainment of early motor milestones is though to be delayed because of problems with ligamentous laxity in some joints, decreased strength, and hypotonia.
Transaction of the pituitary stalk will produce
a. Increased LH Ant.
b. Decreased TSH Ant.
c. Decrease prolactin
d. increased FSH
e. increased ACTH
The following statements apply to Duchenne (pseudohypertrophic) dystrophy, EXCEPT:
a. Subject is still able to rise from a forward flexed position without using his hands to assist the movement
b. Contractures are common and patients seldom survive into the third decade
c. The enlargement of the muscles is due to fatty infiltration and the muscles are weak.
d. A primary, genetic disorder characterized by early weakness and enlargement of the musculature of the calves, thighs, hips and shoulders
e. Onset is in the first five years of life and occurs almost exclusively in boys
This structure resist the tendency of the femur to slide forwards off the plateau like tibial surface in actions such as in a jumping with knees bent:
a. Lateral collateral ligamenti
b. Posterior cruciate ligament
c. Medial and lateral menisc
d. Anterior cruciate ligament
e. Medial collateral ligament
Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through the following, EXCEPT:
a. Soft tissues passively limit dorsiflexion to the muscle moment developed about the ankle during the stance phase.
b. Decrease the plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions.
c. There is knee hyperextension during the stance phase
d. There is decreased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase
e. There is decreased peak hip extension in late stance phase
This joint is primarily responsible for inversion/eversion and abduction/adduction of the foot.
a. Talonavicular
b. Talocrural
c. subtalar
d. transverse tarsal
e. calcaneocuboid
This muscle has an extensive origin from the whole lower half of the shaft of the humerus and inserted by a tendon into the tuberosity of the ulna below the coronoid process, its sole concern is flexion of the elbow joint
a. Brachialis
b. Brachioradialis
c. Pronator Teres
d. Biceps brachii
e. Coracobrachialis
When force is applied at a site intermediate between the fulcrum and the weight to be moved, this lever
a. Does not exist
b. Is a first class lever
c. Is a second class lever
d. can not be moved
e. is a third class lever
Following statements are true of upper motor neurons, EXCEPT:
a. Provides final direct link with muscles through myoneural junctions
b. Synapse directly on alpha, beta and gamma motorneuron in the spinal cord and cranial nerve nuclei.
c. Completely contained within the central nervous system
d. Synonymous to corticospinal tract
e. Lesion results in exaggerated deep reflexes and muscle rigidity.
Gait patterns between young (20-40 y.o.) and old (60-80 y.o) people differ in their gait performance as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Ankle dorsiflexion is slightly increased in older, while ankle plantar flexion was decreased in older people.
b. Peak hip flexion exhibit a slightly increase in the older persons.
c. Peak knee extension is significantly less in the older persons.
d. Stride length is significantly greater in the younger persons.
e. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old
The following statements describe clavicular motion, EXCEPT:
a. After the shoulder has been abducted 90 degrees, clavicular transverse rotation occurs to complete scapular upward rotation and shoulder flexion
b. The clavicle rotates at the sternoclavicular joint approximately 40 degree around its long axis.
C. Clavicle motion include elevation-depression and protraction-retraction
d. Tightening of the trapezoid and conoid ligaments cause the upward rotation of the clavicle
e. When clavicular rotation is prevented, arm elevation is limited to 90 degrees.
The following statements are true of the hips, EXCEPT:
a. The anterior and lateral portions of the greater trochanter are covered by the tensor fascia latae and the gluteus medius muscle
b. When the iliac crests are not level in relation to each other, it is usually because of pelvic obliquity
c. When the greater trochanter is unequal, they may be due to a congenital dislocation of the hip or a hip fracture that has healed in a poor position.
d. The pubic tubercles are just above the top of the greater trochanter.
e. About three inches from the top of the iliac crest, the iliac tubercle marks the widest point on the crest
Functional capacity evaluation are often used to determine the following, EXCEPT:
a. A person's readiness to return to work
b. The degree of the person's disability in order to collect disability pay
C. The need for further rehabilitation
d. Physical capabilities and work tolerance
e. The need for job modification
In this lifting technique the individual establishes a wide, solid base of support with one foot positioned in front of the other. The body is slightly over the load with the knees bent in half squatting position. No bending at the waist takes place. In beginning the lift, the head moves first, followed by the straightening of the legs.
a. Golfer's lift
b. Deep squat lift
C. Tripod lift
d. power lift
e. Partial squat lift with support
Bilateral vestibular deficits results in the following, EXCEPT:
a. None of these
b. Oscillopsia
c. Skew deviation
d. disequilibrium
e. postural instability
The following statements are true of the Pituitary Gland, EXCEPT:
a. Its rich blood supply is derived from the small branches of the Right and Left Internal Carotid Arteries
b. It is made of the Anterior and Posterior Lobe that function differently
c. It is a pea-size gland hanging by a stalk, the infundibulum, from the floor of the third ventricle of the brain, just behind the optic chiasm
d. Its shape and appearance resembles a miniature pine cone, projecting backwards from the back of the roof of the ventricle.
These carpal bones form the radiocarpal joint by their biconcave distal end of the radius and the biconcave proximal articulating surfaces.
a. Scaphoid and Capitate
b. Scaphoid and Lunate
c. Capitate and Lunate
d. Lunate and Capitate
e. Scaphoid and Trapezoid
Which of the following meal will be emptied first?
a. 300 cal semi solid high protein
b. 300 cal liquid high carbohydrate
c. 300 cal liquid high protein
d. 300 cal solid high protein
e. 300 cal solid high carbohydrate
A frame of reference for balance and head control that provides spatial coordinates for limb and body-segment _ positions:
a. Exocentric
b. Proprioceptive
c. gravitational
d. Egocentric
e. geocentric
This great parasympathetic nerve supplies the thorax and abdomen.
a. Abducens
b. Hypoglossal
c. Pelvic Splanchnic
d. Vagus
e. Glossopharyngeal
The following statements characterize carpal tunnel syndrome, EXCEPT
a. Pain, numbness and tingling of the hands
b. Advanced cases may include wasting of the hypothenar eminence and an apparent clumsiness of the hand
c. Condition may affect both hands or only the dominant hand
d. Symptoms are most often acute while sleeping
e. Uncomfortable sensations are usually felt on the first three fingers and the base of the thumb
In the revised category-ratio rating of perceived exertion (RPE), a rating of 7 is described as
a. Very strong
b. Very, very strong
c. Somewhat strong
d. Weak
e. Moderate
Feedback information about the kinematic or kinetic components of the movement being attempted by the patient.
a. Result Oriented
b. Knowledge of Performance
c. Knowledge of Function
d. Knowledge of Results
e. Performance Oriented
The following characteristics describe Type IIA muscle fibers, EXCEPT:
a. Contained in motor units characterized by a high firing frequency or discharge rate
b. High threshold for activation and slow-twitch contraction.
c. Have cytological properties that fall between type I and type IIB fiber
d. Relatively fatigue resistant
e. With intermediate levels of glycolytic and oxidative enzyme activity
If there is anterior cruciate instability, the tibia will rock
a. Backward
b. Medially
c. Forward
d. laterally
e. diagonally
A solute with a high partition coefficient is
a. Moves through the cell membrane with difficulty
b. Where saturation can occur
c. Directed against a chemical gradient
d. More soluble in fat than in water
e. More soluble in water than in fat.
70. Suggested dimension (in feet) for a treatment cubicle area is L
a. 10 x 10
b. 8 x 8
c. 6 x 8
d. 8 x 12
e. 8 x 10
This vertically-directed device acts as the privet round which the rotation occurs and which brings this lateral rotation of the tibia (or medial rotation of the femur) to a halt.
a. Lateral collateral ligament
b. Posterior cruciate ligament
c. Medial ligament
d. Semilunar cartilages
e. Anterior cruciate ligament
Energy costs during walking adults with below knee amputations (BKAs) and those without amputation may be generalized as follows,EXCEPT:
a. When adults with BKAs walked at the same speed as adults without, their energy costs were approximately 32% greater.
b. Energy costs are the same between adults with BKAs and those without when walking at the same speed.
c. They have the same energy costs because the person with amputations walked at slower speeds.
d. Adults with BKAs and short residual limbs (less than 6% of total body height) has a 40% increase when they perform the same activities.
e. Adults with BAKs and long residual limbs (greater than 8% of total body height) had a 10% increase in oxygen consumption compared with adults without.
Hypocoagulopathy can lead to
a. Increased heart workload
b. Hemorrhage and edema
c. Embolus formation
d. thrombus formation
e. increased breathing
Normally, the movement of the contents of the gastrointestinal tract is slowest along this segment.
a. Mouth
b. Large intestine
c. esophagus
d. small intestine
e. stomach
The following statements characterize thoracic outlet syndrome, EXCEPT:
a. There is numbness in the fingers of the hand
b. Involves both the nerves and adjacent blood vessels of the shoulder and the upper arm
c. Arm may feel as if it is "going to sleep"
d. There is compression of the nerves and blood vessels between the neck and shoulder
e. Wrist pulse remain strong
The following statements describe work hardening programs, EXCEPT
a. Attempts to meet the functional and physical needs of clients
b. Emphasize physical conditioning through strengthening endurance, and coordination exercises
c. Supposed to simulate or duplicate actual job takes
d. Work oriented
e. A job specific type of rehabilitation program that attempts to address vocational and behavioral needs of clients
Shortly after the brachial plexus exit the vertebral bodies and pass between the scalenus anticus and medius muscles, - the nerve roots of C5 and C6 join to form
a. The middle trunk
b. The posterior cord
c. The lateral cord
d. the upper trunk
e. the lower trunk
In retinacular test, the proximal IP joint is held in a neutral position and the distal IP joint attempts to move into flexion. When the proximal IP joint is flexed to slightly relax the retinaculum, and the distal IP joint still does not flex
a. The distal IP joint capsule is probably contracted
b. There is no contraction in the distal IP joint capsule
c. The retinacular ligaments are loose
d. The retinacular ligaments are tight
e. None of these
Coordination disturbances are usually assessed through the following methods, EXCEPT:
a. "finger-to-nose test"
b. Reciprocal tracking tasks
c. Tracking tasks
d. unilateral tapping tracking tasks
e. kinematic analysis
Depolarization is initiated when this moves inside the cell.
a. Potassium
b. Magnesium
c. Chloride
d. sodium
e. permanganate
Normal spread of excitation in the heart is:
a. SAN-->AVN —> Bundle of his —> Purkinje Fibers Ventricles
b. AVN Bundle of His Atrium Purkinje Fibers Ventricles
c. SAN —> AVN Purkinje Fibers —> Bundle of His Ventricles
d. SAN Bundle of His AVN Purkinje Fibers Ventricles
e. AVN SAN Purkinje Fibers Ventricles Atria
Supplying the lower limb, this artery enters the thigh in the midline in front then descends vertically.
a. Tibial Artery
b. Left Femoral Circumflex Artery
c. Femoral Artery
d. Sciatic Artery
e. Popliteal Artery
The sensory cranial nerve supply of the eyeball is
a. Fourth (Trochlear)
b. Third (Oculomotor)
c. Sixth (Abducens)
d. Opthalmic Division of the Fifth (Trigeminal)
e. Seventh (Facial)
Muscle contraction strength gradation can be accomplished in the following manner, EXCEPT:
a. Motor neurons with greatest innervations ratio are activated initially activating few muscle fibers.
b. Increasing the frequency of stimulation of individual motor units
c. Simultaneously recruiting the number of activated motor unit
d. Initially activating few muscle fibers.
e. As each active muscle fiber is developing maximum tension, the percentage of time is increased.
Factors contributing to neuropathic plantar ulceration in patients with diabetes include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Food deformities
b. Limited mobility of the great toes metatarsophalangeal joint
c. Limited mobility of the talocrural joint
d. Limited mobility of the subtalar joint
e. Increased plantar sensation
The following are true of Tetanic contractions, EXCEPT:
a. Serial, continuous contractions, in which individual contractions cannot be distinguished
b. Series of increasingly stronger twitch contractions occurring in response to repeated contractions
c. They occur in response to a bombardment of the muscle by rapid, successive stimuli
d. Incomplete Tetanic contractions may convert to a normal contraction if the excessive stimulation ceases abruptly
In evaluating the client, the caregiver
a. Initiate planning for extended treatment as necessary.
b. Prepare and document the treatment plan and program
c. Determines the client's current conditions his functional abilities and limitations
d. Documents client's condition and functional outcome abilities
e. Determines and selects the appropriate treatment techniques and equipment
Splints that incorporate some elastic component such as springs of rubber bands that exerts a force on the joint but allow for some change of joint position.
a. Dynamic-progressive
b. Static-progressive
c. Static-progressive
d. Static
e. Dynamic
When defining the motion between the foot and leg, a common center of rotation is assumed with this joint primarily responsible for dorsiflexion/plantar flexion components:
a. Metatarsophalangeal
b. Talonavicular
c. Talocrural
d. transverse tarsal
e. calcaneocuboid
The following statements are true of biceps brachii, EXCEPT:
a. A simultaneous flexion of the shoulder and elbow and rwination of the forearm will result from an isolated, unopposed contraction of the biceps.
b. When the forearm is supinated, it acts in flexion of the elbow with or without a load, in slow or in fast movements in either concentric or eccentric contraction
c. Its effectiveness as a supinator is almost four times as effective as the supinator at an angle of 90 degrees
d. It is most effective as a supinator when the elbow is flexed at about a 145 degree angle.
e. Its effectiveness as a supinator diminishes as the elbow is extended
The following statements describe repair of acute instability, EXCEPT
a. Advancement of the posterior oblique ligament is a reconstructive procedure that is almost always used
b. Peripheral tears of the medial meniscus is salvaged buy suturing the structure to the capsular ligaments
c. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is usually intact and will hold sutures well
d. Repair of an acute case by direct suture is usually avoided
e. Ligament stapling is avoided because it tends to "strangle"
Segmental development is evidence of the human torso's nerve supply of an orderly series of spinal nerves; i. e one pair of spinal nerve supplies this strip-like area of skin, and is known as a
a. Myotome
b. Terminal Branches
c. Dermatome
d. Spinal Nerves
e. Vertebral Nerves
Differentiation of these three vesicles at the rostral end of the neural tube initiates brain development.
a. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and metencephalon
b. Telencephalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon
c. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and rhombencephalon
d. Mesencephalon, rhombencephalon and metencephalon
e. Prosencephalon, rhombencephalon and myelencephalon
When digital muscles have their proximal attachment in the forearm or humerus, they are classified as
a. Extrinsic
b. Thenar
c. Intrinsic
d. midtrinsic
e. hypothenar
These muscles retract the protracted scapula and turn the glenoid fossa downwards, thus forcibly lowering the raised arm, with other muscles, they keep the scapula applied to the chest wall.
a. Serratus Anterior
b. Trapezius
c. Pectoralis minor
d. Rhomboids
e. Levator Scapulae
The most important factor giving rise to a concentrated urine is the presence of
a. Digital convoluted tubule
b. Proximal tubule
c. Anti-diuretic hormone
d. Well develop zonula occludes at the collecting tubule
e. Non-reabsorbable solute in the lumen of the connecting tubule
Neuromuscular electrical stimulation has been used for the following, EXCEPT:
a. Facilitate motor control
b. Increase strength
c. Temporarily reduce hyperreflexia
d. improve range of motion
e. muscle reeducation
As gliding occurs, the "No" movement takes place on the surface of these joints that are nearly flat and circular.
a. Axial
b. Atlanto-occipital
c. Atlanto-axial
d. axial-occipital
e. occipital
The most important substance regulating blood pressure that is produced by the kidney is
a. Vasopressin
b. Renin
c. Atrial natriuretic hormone
d. prostaglandin
e. progesterone
The following are true of palmar prehension pattern, EXCEPT:
a. Large objects may be held by widening the grip
b. This grasp is used to pick up small objects.
c. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the hand grasps around it, and the thumb closes in over the glass.
d. The thumb opposes one or more of the other digits.
