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6E T2 MCQ's

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which is located outside the nucleus of an atom?
a)
proton
b)
electron
c)
neutron
d)
ion
2.
Which is a substance?
a)
fruit salad
b)
table salt
c)
spaghetti
d)
granola cereal
3.

Which is the best model for a homogeneous mixture?

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
Which is a property of all atoms?
a)
a nucleus with a positive charge
b)
more electrons than protons
c)
same number of protons as neutrons
d)
a positively charged electron cloud
5.
Which is another name for a solution?
a)
heterogeneous mixture
b)
homogeneous mixture
c)
compound
d)
A. element
6.
Which would you most likely be able to separate into its parts by filtering?
a)
heterogeneous mixture of two solids
b)
homogeneous mixture of two solids
c)
heterogeneous mixture of two liquids
d)
homogeneous mixture of two liquids
7.
Where is almost all the mass of an atom located?
a)
in the nucleus
b)
in the electrons
c)
in the protons
d)
in the neutrons
8.
Which best describes an electron cloud?
a)
an area of charged particles with a fixed boundary
b)
a solid mass of charge around the nucleus
c)
electrons on a fixed path around the nucleus
d)
mostly empty space with tiny charged particles in it
9.
Which class of matter is the least evenly mixed?
a)
compounds
b)
homogeneous mixtures
c)
heterogeneous mixtures
d)
solutions
10.

The figure shows models of three different atoms. What can you conclude about the three models shown in the figure?

a)

They all show the same isotope.

b)

They all show the same element.

c)

They all show negative ions.

d)

They all show positive ions.

11.

How many atoms are in the particle?

a)

5

b)

2

c)

1

d)

3

12.

Look at the periodic table block below for potassium. How many electrons does an uncharged atom of potassium have?

a)

40

b)

39

c)

19

d)

20

13.

Which kind of matter might contain only this type of particle?

a)

a heterogeneous mixture

b)

a homogeneous mixture

c)

a compound

d)

an element

14.
A girl pours a spoonful of sugar into a glass of warm water. She stirs the water until the sugar disappears. When she tastes the water, she notices that it is now sweet. Which describes the kind of matter in the glass?
a)
a substance
b)
an element
c)
a compound
d)
a solution
15.
Which correctly describes a compound but not a mixture?
a)
All the atoms are of the same element.
b)
The substances can be separated without breaking bonds.
c)
All the molecules have at least two atoms.
d)
The combination of substances never changes.
16.
What is the atomic number of an atom that has 2 electrons, 3 protons, and 4 neutrons?
a)
3
b)
2
c)
4
d)
7
17.
Which is true about carbon-12 compared with carbon-13?
a)
Carbon-13 has more neutrons.
b)
Carbon-12 has more neutrons.
c)
Carbon-12 has more protons.
d)
Carbon-13 has more protons.
18.
Which of these is a chemical property?
a)
density
b)
boiling point
c)
flammability
d)
solubilty
19.
Which is a property of all solids?
a)
Weak forces exist between particles.
b)
Particles vibrate in all directions.
c)
Particles are far apart.
d)
Volume and shape can easily change.
20.
Which characteristic is a chemical property?
a)
highly flammable
b)
mass of 15 kg
c)
woolly texture
d)
golden color
21.
Which property of an object depends on its location?
a)
volume
b)
weight
c)
density
d)
mass
22.
Which is a physical change?
a)
burning wood
b)
rusting iron
c)
spoiling food
d)
melting ice
23.

How are the particles of a gas different from the particles of a liquid shown here?

a)

They move more slowly.

b)

They have stronger attractions.

c)

They are farther apart.

d)

They have less energy.

24.
Which is a physical change?
a)
exploding dynamite
b)
chopping onions
c)
digesting food
d)
burning natural gas
25.
Which stays the same when a substance changes from a liquid to a gas?
a)
density
b)
forces between particles
c)
distance between particles
d)
mass
26.
Which is a chemical change?
a)
boiling water
b)
copper turning green in air
c)
slicing a potato
d)
freezing fruit juice
27.
Which would be most useful for identifying an unknown liquid?
a)
mass
b)
volume
c)
density
d)
weight
28.

What mass is measured on this balance?

a)

35 g

b)

45 g

c)

145 g

d)

135 g

29.
Which describes the particles in a substance with no definite volume or shape?
a)
Particles are close but can move freely.
b)
Particles are close but can vibrate in all directions.
c)
Particles are far apart and cannot move.
d)
Particles are far apart and move freely.
30.

Which diagram shows a chemical change?

a)
b)
c)
d)
31.
Which is NOT true about firewood that burns completely?
a)
Oxygen from the air combines with substances in the wood.
b)
The wood gives off thermal energy and light.
c)
Ashes and gases form from the substances in the wood.
d)
The total mass of substances in this process decreases.
32.
What causes a chemical reaction when you prepare scrambled eggs?
a)
mixing the egg yolks and the egg whites together
b)
sprinkling pepper onto the cooked eggs
c)
removing the eggs from the shells
d)
heating the eggs in a pan
33.

What is the mass of the object on the balance scale?

a)

30 g

b)

22 g

c)

22.7 g

d)

22.5 g

34.

Based on the results of this experiment, what can you conclude about heating this unknown substance?

a)

Heating caused no changes.

b)

Heating made it solid in 60 minutes.

c)

Heating melted it in 30 minutes.

d)

Heating melted it in 60 minutes.

35.
Which is a sign of a physical change?
a)
The metal on a car starts to rust.
b)
Ice forms on a puddle in winter.
c)
Yeast causes bread dough to rise.
d)
Bread gets moldy with age.
36.
What is the BEST way to separate and save the parts of a sand-and-water mixture?
a)
Boil the mixture and collect the steam.
b)
Pour the mixture through a filter that only the water can pass through.
c)
Pour a strong acid into the mixture to dissolve the sand.
d)
Lift the sand out of the mix with a spoon.
37.

Of the three unknown substances tested, two are the same substance and one is different. Which two substances do you think are the same? Explain your reasoning.

a)

2 & 3

b)

1 & 2

c)

None

d)

1 & 3

38.

What can you conclude about the original state of the substance?

a)

It is a solid.

b)

It is part solid and part liquid.

c)

It is a liquid.

d)

It is part liquid and part gas.

39.
Which is true when an ice cube melts?
a)
Volume increases
b)
Volume decreases
c)
Volume and mass do not change.
d)
Volume increases but mass does not change.
e)
Volume and mass increase.
40.
Which describes the formation of a precipitate?
a)
A gas forms when a solid is placed in a liquid.
b)
A liquid forms when a block of metal is heated.
c)
Bubbles form when an acid is poured onto a rock.
d)
A solid forms when one liquid is poured into another.
41.
Which does Earth’s rotation affect?
a)
earth-Sun distance
b)
hours of daylight
c)
length of month
d)
change of seasons
42.
Between which planets is the asteroid belt located?
a)
Uranus and Neptune
b)
Saturn and Uranus
c)
Mars and Jupiter
d)
Earth and Mars
43.
What percentage of stars are larger and more massive than the Sun?
a)
10 percent
b)
50 percent
c)
90 percent
d)
30 percent
44.

Which season is illustrated below?

a)

summer in the northern hemisphere; winter in the southern hemisphere

b)

winter in the northern hemisphere; summer in the southern hemisphere

c)

spring in the northern hemisphere; fall in the southern hemisphere

d)

fall in the northern hemisphere; spring in the southern hemisphere

45.
When is a solar eclipse visible?
a)
only when the Moon is waxing
b)
only when the Moon is full
c)
only when the Moon is waning
d)
only when the Moon is new
46.
Where is the solar system located?
a)
in the center of the Milky Way
b)
near a spiral arm of the Milky Way
c)
in the halo of the Milky Way
d)
outside the Milky Way
47.
Which statement about the Moon is true?
a)
The Moon does not rotate.
b)
The Moon orbits the Sun.
c)
The Moon has one side that never faces the Sun.
d)
The Moon has one side that never faces Earth.
48.
Which is a property of the outer planets?
a)
few moons
b)
ring systems
c)
short orbits
d)
rocky surfaces
49.
What objects in the solar system are larger than Earth?
a)
and Venus
b)
Mercury
c)
Mars
d)
the outer planets and the Sun
e)
Neptune
50.

Which star below is the coolest?

a)

A

b)

D

c)

C

d)

B

51.
Which solar system objects have orbits that take them farthest from the Sun?
a)
comets
b)
planets
c)
asteroids
d)
meteoroids
52.
Which planet is most like Earth in size and makeup?
a)
Mercury
b)
Mars
c)
Venus
d)
Saturn
53.
Which statement about tides is true?
a)
High tides occur twice each day in all coastal areas on Earth.
b)
Low tides and high tides never vary in height.
c)
Weather has no effect on tides.
d)
Tides can be predicted.
54.
What time of year is Earth’s northern hemisphere closest to the Sun?
a)
in July
b)
in January
c)
during winter
d)
in April
e)
during summer
55.
Which is the main component of stars?
a)
rock
b)
dust
c)
nitrogen
d)
hydrogen
56.

The figure shows a model for spring tides, which are characterized by high tides that are higher and low tides that are lower than usual. What numbers show the positions of the Moon that would cause spring tides?

a)

3 and 4

b)

2 and 4

c)

1 and 3

d)

1 and 2

57.
Pluto is an example of what kind of object?
a)
dwarf planet
b)
comet
c)
asteroid
d)
meteoroid
58.
How does the Sun compare to other stars in the universe?
a)
It is whiter than most other stars.
b)
It is more massive than most other stars.
c)
It is farther away than most other stars.
d)
It is hotter than most other stars.
59.

What event occurs when Earth, the Moon, and the Sun are in the positions shown?

a)

solar eclipse

b)

lunar eclipse

c)

neap tide

d)

new moon

60.
Galaxies are classified by shape. What shape is the galaxy that includes the Sun, Earth, and the rest of the solar system?
a)
regular
b)
spiral
c)
elliptical
d)
irregular
61.

Which arrow shows the motion of Earth if there were no gravity between Earth and the Sun?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

62.
Which objects in the solar system develop long tails during part of their orbits?
a)
asteroids
b)
comets
c)
moons
d)
meteoroids
63.
Which Earth system contains living things?
a)
hydrosphere
b)
geosphere
c)
atmosphere
d)
biosphere
64.
Which is an example of an interaction between the atmosphere and the geosphere?
a)
weathering
b)
ocean currents
c)
breathing
d)
storms
65.
Which are two characteristics of minerals?
a)
liquid and gas
b)
living and inorganic
c)
solid and natural
d)
artificial and organic
66.
What are the major gases of the atmosphere?
a)
nitrogen and oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide and water vapor
c)
nitrogen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water vapor
67.
Which reservoir holds the largest amount of freshwater?
a)
rivers
b)
lakes
c)
ice
d)
groundwater
68.

The diagram below shows the water cycle. Which number represents precipitation?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

4

d)

2

69.
What does the hydrosphere contain?
a)
plants
b)
water
c)
air
d)
soil
70.

The diagram below shows the layers of the atmosphere. The arrow is pointing to which layer?

a)

mesosphere

b)

troposphere

c)

exosphere

d)

stratosphere

71.
What is the middle layer of the geosphere?
a)
crust
b)
core
c)
inner core
d)
mantle
72.
Rocks are classified according to
a)
structure
b)
color
c)
size
d)
formation
73.
Which of Earth’s systems includes the crust, the mantle, and the core?
a)
geosphere
b)
atmosphere
c)
hydrosphere
d)
biosphere
74.
How much of Earth’s water is freshwater?
a)
97 percent
b)
3 percent
c)
79 percent
d)
1 percent
75.
Earth’s ozone layer absorbs solar radiation, protecting the biosphere. Which atmospheric layer includes the ozone layer?
a)
Troposphere
b)
Exosphere
c)
Stratosphere
d)
Thermosphere
76.
Through which process does water leave the hydrosphere and enter the atmosphere?
a)
condensation
b)
deposition
c)
evaporation
d)
precipitation
77.
Though the geosphere is described as the solid part of the Earth, which part is liquid?
a)
inner core
b)
outer core
c)
crust
d)
mantle
78.

Which process is occurring in the area circled in the figure?

a)

precipitation

b)

transpiration

c)

deposition

d)

condensation

79.
Which process recycles water from the biosphere to the atmosphere?
a)
condensation
b)
transpiration
c)
precipitation
d)
deposition
80.
Which sequence accurately shows the events that form sedimentary rock?
a)
compaction → cementation → melting
b)
erosion → volcanic eruption → weathering
c)
weathering → erosion → deposition
d)
volcanic eruption → cooling → crystallization
81.

Which gas is represented by the shaded portion on the pie chart?

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrogen

c)

water vapor

d)

carbon dioxide

82.
What is the source of most energy in the United States?
a)
natural gas
b)
coal
c)
oil
d)
nuclear energy
83.
Which can reduce the amount of organic material discarded in landfills?
a)
biomass energy
b)
wind energy
c)
water energy
d)
solar energy
84.
One disadvantage of using metallic mineral resources is that these resources are
a)
easy to mine.
b)
inexpensive.
c)
renewable.
d)
nonrenewable.
85.
About how much of Earth’s water is available for humans to use?
a)
97.0 percent
b)
0.90 percent
c)
0.01 percent
d)
3.0 percent
86.
Which energy source produces radioactive waste?
a)
biomass
b)
hydroelectric power
c)
geothermal
d)
nuclear power
87.

The table below shows the energy sources used to produce electricity in the United States. What can you infer from the table?

a)

Oil is more widely used for electricity than hydroelectric power.

b)

More than 80 percent of U.S. electricity comes from nonrenewable sources.

c)

Hydroelectric power is more widely used for electricity than nuclear power.

d)

About 19.4 percent of U.S. electricity comes from renewable sources.

88.
Which factor would best determine whether a home is suitable for solar energy?
a)
strength of daily winds
b)
nearness to tectonically active areas
c)
number of sunny days per year
d)
difference in tidal heights
89.
Which product comes from a metallic mineral resource?
a)
drywall
b)
table salt
c)
aluminum
d)
gravel
90.
Which is a renewable land resource?
a)
forests
b)
trees
c)
minerals
d)
soil
91.
Where is most water on Earth located?
a)
rivers
b)
oceans
c)
lakes
d)
underground
92.
Which natural event can result in air pollution?
a)
runoff from farms
b)
volcanic eruption
c)
burning fossil fuels
d)
littering a stream
93.

The graph below shows how the amount of sulfur compounds in the atmosphere has changed since the passage of the Clean Air Act. Based on the data in the graph, what can you infer about the act?

a)

The act has helped increase pollutants in the atmosphere.

b)

The act has helped decrease pollutants in the atmosphere.

c)

The act has incentives for use of renewable resources.

d)

The act has not impacted the amount of pollutants in the atmosphere.

94.
Which activity does NOT reduce the use of fossil fuels?
a)
walking to the store
b)
watering plants less often
c)
riding a bicycle to school
d)
unplugging DVD players
95.

Which is the most-used renewable energy resource in the United States?

a)

nuclear energy

b)

natural gas

c)

biomass

d)

hydroelectric

96.

What percentage of the energy used in the United States comes from burning fossil fuels?

a)

62 percent

b)

88 percent

c)

93 percent

d)

40 percent

97.
Which practice emphasizes the use of renewable energy resources?
a)
installing solar panels on buildings
b)
teaching others about vampire energy
c)
replacing sprinklers with watering cans
d)
buying battery-operated electronics
98.
Which is a nonrenewable land resource?
a)
streams
b)
minerals
c)
crops
d)
trees
99.

Which alternative energy resource is used to make electricity in the figure?

a)

hydroelectric power

b)

geothermal energy

c)

tidal power

d)

solar energy

100.
Which practice is a wise use of land resources?
a)
composting
b)
conserving water
c)
strip mining
d)
deforestation
101.

Which type of air pollution is labeled A in the figure?

a)

fertilizer runoff

b)

photochemical smog

c)

acid precipitation

d)

nuclear waste

102.
Approximately how much water on the Earth is in oceans?
a)
97 percent
b)
75 percent
c)
3 percent
d)
1 percent
103.
Which is a source of biomass energy?
a)
uranium
b)
wood
c)
sunlight
d)
wind

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