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Worksheets

Science Q4 Review

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 2hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Four boxes of plastic, glass, iron and wood each are placed near a strong magnet. Which box will be attracted towards the magnet?

a)

iron

b)

wood

c)

glass

d)

plastic

2.

The two poles of a magnet are called __________.

a)

East and West

b)

Positive and Negative

c)

Up and Down

d)

North and South

3.

Which statement is true about magnetic poles?

a)

like poles attract

b)

like poles are not possible

c)

opposite pole repel

d)

opposite pole attract

4.

Loren places two bar magnets on a table. She slowly slides one magnet closer to the second magnet. Eventually, the second magnet begins to move away from the first. What can she conclude about the repulsive force between the magnets?

a)

The force increases with increasing distance between the magnets

b)

the force increases with decreasing distance between the the magnets

c)

The force is unaffected by the distance between the magnets

d)

there is no force between the magnets

5.

What causes Earth's Magnetic field?

a)

material coming out of the North and South poles

b)

Earth's liquid core spinning more slowly than Earth's surface

c)

Earth's solid core spinning faster than Earth's surface

d)

a mathematical model

6.

What is observed when iron filings are sprinkled over a magnet?

a)

magnetic poles

b)

magnetic field

c)

the nucleus of an atom

d)

the magnetic radiation

7.

Christopher constructed four electromagnets, each with different numbers of coils. He connected each of electromagnets to a 9 volt battery and counted how many paper clips each magnet could pick up. He recorded his data in the table. Which of the following is a likely explanation of his observations?

a)

Big electromagnets pick up more than small ones

b)

The more coils an electromagnet has the stronger the magnetic field it produces

c)

adding coils to an electromagnet increases the number of paper clips it can pick up

d)

the number of coils that an electromagnet has always determines its strength

8.

Which of the following is a device in which magnetism is produced by an electric current running though a wire wrapped around an iron or steel core?

a)

generator

b)

battery

c)

electromagnet

d)

motor

9.

How can you make an electromagnet more powerful?

a)

Decrease the number of coils

b)

Decrease the amount of electricity

c)

Increase the number of coils

d)

Use thicker wire

10.

A ____________ is the coiled wire in an electromagnet

a)

Battery

b)

Solenoid

c)

Iron Core

11.

In what TWO (2) ways can the domain of a magnet become scrabbled causing it to lose its magnetism?

a)

High Heat

b)

Low Temperatures

c)

Impacts

d)

Loud sounds

12.

Which of the following is true about the relationship between electricity and magnetism?

a)

Electricity can be used to create a magnet

b)

Magnetism and electricity cannot be converted into one another

c)

Magnetism is based on how gravity attracts electrical energy

d)

Electrical energy and magnetism cancel each other out

13.

When a magnet spins within a coil of wires, what is produced?

a)

blue sparks

b)

glowing light

c)

nuclear energy

d)

an electric current

14.

What will occur when a magnet spins within a coil wire?

a)

The coil becomes a permanent magnet

b)

The coil becomes very cold

c)

Electricity is produced

d)

The magnet will lose its strength

15.

In what type of wave does the energy in the wave move perpendicular to the motion of the matter?

a)

Long

b)

Longitudinal

c)

Transverse

d)

Short

16.

In what type of wave is the vibration of the particles parallel to the direction in which the wave travels?

a)

Short

b)

Longitudinal

c)

Long

d)

Transverse

17.

A wave with a high frequency will have a

a)

Long wavelength

b)

Short amplitude

c)

High amplitude

d)

Short wavelength

18.

What is the top of a transverse wave?

a)

Trough

b)

Aoex

c)

Crest

d)

Pinnacle

19.

Which of the following best describes the trough of a wave?

a)

The highest point of a wave

b)

The point at which a wave has the maximum amount of energy

c)

The stopping point in the motion of the wave

d)

The lowest point of the wave

20.

A rubber duck is floating in the water of a pond as a wave passes by raising the duck up and down. What is considered to be the medium in this situation?

a)

The Water

b)

The Rubber Duck

c)

The Wave

d)

There is no medium

21.

A string is shaken in such a way that a wave is produced. If 5 waves pass through a particular point on the string in 1 second, it is called the ________________.

a)

speed of the wave

b)

frequency of the wave

c)

amplitude of the wave

d)

wavelength of the wave

22.

The pitch of a sound is related to a wave's ______________.

a)

Wavelength

b)

Amplitude

c)

Frequency

d)

Compression

23.

Sound waves are an example of __________.

a)

Longitudinal Waves

b)

Electromagnetic Waves

c)

Waveform

d)

Transverse Waves

24.

The measurement from the crest of one wave to the crest of the next wave is the ________.

a)

Wavelength

b)

Visible Spectrum

c)

Frequency

d)

Trough

25.

Which statement about electromagnetic waves is true?

a)

Sound is an example of an electromagnetic wave.

b)

They carry matter from one place to another.

c)

They need a medium in order to propagate

d)

They do not need a medium in order to propagate.

26.

A apple looks red colored when it is seen in the sunlight. This is because the apple _________ the red light in the sun's spectrum.

a)

reflects

b)

transmits

c)

refracts

d)

absorbs

27.

On the electromagnetic spectrum, which form of radiation has wavelengths short than visible light?

a)

infrared radiation

b)

radio waves

c)

ultraviolet light

d)

microwaves

28.

Which of the following forms of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelengths?

a)

X-rays

b)

Radio waves

c)

Ultraviolet rays

d)

Visible light

29.

A transmitter on the moon emits sound and light waves to a receiver on Earth. The light waves are picked up by the receiver but sound waves are not. This happens because ___________.

a)

sound takes a very long time to cover the distance

b)

sound gets scattered before it reaches earth

c)

the atmosphere absorbs sound

d)

sound cannot travel through the vacuum

30.

Certain seismic waves will not pass through liquids. These waves do not pass through the Earth's _______.

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

inner core

d)

outer core

31.

Which seismic wave travels the fastest?

a)

tsunamis

b)

P-waves

c)

S-Waves

d)

surface waves

32.

The instrument that measures and records earthquakes waves is the___________.

a)

Richter scale

b)

seismograph

c)

bargraph

d)

spectrograph

33.

Which of these waves travel at the speed of light?

a)

sound waves

b)

tidal waves

c)

tsunami waves

d)

ultraviolet waves

34.

A waves transports _______ from one place to another.

a)

friction

b)

energy

c)

atoms

d)

amplitude

35.

What color visible light has the highest frequency?

a)

red

b)

yellow

c)

green

d)

blue

36.

Waves that travel through the Earth when an earthquake occurs are known as ___________

a)

seismic waves

b)

infrared waves

c)

cosmic waves

d)

permanent waves

37.

When a piece of metal heats up and glows, it gives off light waves and ____________.

a)

ultraviolet radiation

b)

infrared radiation

c)

X-Rays

d)

Gamma rays

38.

Which of the following would be a true statement concerning the Doppler effect?

a)

When air moves through a fan, its speed increases.

b)

A sound moving towards someone would sound higher in pitch than a sound moving away from him.

c)

The faster an object moves towards someone, the lower the pitch he will hear.

d)

An object's sound cannot change due to an object's speed.

39.

The gravitational attraction between two objects depends on the distance between the objects and their __________.

a)

magnetic attraction

b)

masses

c)

momentum

d)

volumes

40.

Newton's third law of motion states that _______________.

a)

for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

b)

an object at rest will stay at rest or an object in motion will stay in motion with a constant velocity

c)

acceleration is directly proportional to the magnitude of the force acting on it and inversely proportional to the mass of the object

d)

Whenever an object is falling, gravity pulls it down

41.

According to Newton's first law of motion, an object that is moving in a straight line at a constant speed:

a)

will gradually slow down and stop unless another force acts on it.

b)

will continue moving at the same speed but will gradually change direction on its own.

c)

will continue moving the same way at the same speed until it is acted upon by an unbalanced force.

d)

will continue moving the same way until the force that is pushing it disappears.

42.

If an object is moving at a constant speed and a force acts on it at right angles to its direction of motion, the object will ___________.

a)

stop moving

b)

slow down

c)

keep moving in the same direction

d)

change direction

43.

When the net force applied to a rocket is tripled, its acceleration will be __________.

a)

doubled

b)

tripled

c)

unaffected

d)

one-third

44.

Forces occur in pairs. The first force is called the action force. The second force would be called the:

a)

moving force

b)

momentum force

c)

reaction force

d)

kinetic force.

45.

On Earth a gallon of milk has the same mass as a gallon of milk in space, but it has a different __________.

a)

weight

b)

inertia

c)

amount of matter

d)

volume

46.

If two opposite forces act on a stationary object at the same time, and one is stronger than the other, which way will the object move?

a)

It will move toward the stronger force.

b)

It will move toward the weaker force.

c)

It will move at right angles to the two forces.

d)

It will not move.

47.

The same force acts on four objects with different masses. which would experience the greatest acceleration?

a)

20 grams

b)

60 grams

c)

100 grams

d)

200 grams

48.

The force that pulls objects toward the Earth is

a)

lunar

b)

solar

c)

magnetic

d)

gravity

49.

Suppose you were to fill a balloon with air then let go of it without tying it closed. What causes the balloon to fly away?

a)

The air around the balloon is under higher pressure, so it pulls the balloon forward.

b)

The warm air from your breath is less dense than the cooler air around the balloon, and warm air always rises.

c)

The balloon's movement is the reaction to the force of air escaping.

d)

Your breath contains helium, which is lighter than air.

50.

Suppose an astronaut floating in space throws a rock. What will happen to the rock?

a)

It will go into orbit around the astronaut.

b)

it will continue to move at constant speed in the same direction until it is acted on by another force.

c)

It will continue to move in the same direction, speeding up as it moves.

d)

It will continue to move in the same direction but will eventually slow down and stop.

51.

Based on the law of gravity, what happens if the mass of an object is increased?

a)

The object will gain volume.

b)

The object will fall to Earth faster.

c)

The object’s gravitational force will weaken.

d)

The object will have more gravitational pull.

52.

Which of the following would be the best unit of measurement for mass?

a)

N

b)

g

c)

m/s

d)

Km/s

53.

What is also known as the inertia law?

a)

Newton's 1st Law of Motion

b)

Newton's 2nd Law of Motion

c)

Newton's 3rd Law of Motion

d)

Newton's 51st Law of Motion

54.

What two factors affect gravitational force between two objects?

a)

weight and acceleration

b)

mass and weight

c)

mass and distance

d)

weight and distance

55.

Which of the following is expressed as force is equal to the mass of an object times its acceleration?

a)

Newton's 51st Law of motion

b)

Newton's 1st Law of Motion

c)

Newton's 2nd Law of Motion

d)

Newton's 3rd Law of Motion

56.

A force is

a)

A push or pull

b)

An energy source

c)

10 nitrogen atoms

d)

Equal to it weight + speed

57.

Force = ____________ x acceleration

a)

weight

b)

mass

c)

a push or pull

d)

speed

58.

What cause the plates of the Lithosphere to move?

a)

Convection currents in the asthenosphere

b)

Heat from the core make the lithosphere semi-solid and easy to move

c)

It's still a mystery

d)

Thor banging his hammer on Earth's Core

59.

Which of the following features are found at divergent plate boundaries?

a)

ocean trenches and abyssal plains

b)

mid-ocean ridges and rift valleys

c)

impact craters and alluvial fans

d)

continental shelves and submarine canyons

60.

Faults and folds are caused by ______________.

a)

the shrinking Earth

b)

the heating Earth

c)

the movement of tectonic plates

d)

volcanoes

61.

At convergent plate boundaries rocks are squeezed, pushed downward, and heated. This pressure and heat changes many rocks into ___ rocks.

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

d)

organic

62.

What type of rock forms along divergent plate boundaries?

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

d)

organic

63.

Folded mountains are commonly found at what type of plate boundary?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

d)

inactive

64.

Rift valleys often occur along what type of plate boundary?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

d)

inactive

65.

The movement of tectonic plates is believed to be caused by ___________.

a)

Earth's magnetic field

b)

The rotation of Earth

c)

The gravitational pull of the moon

d)

Convection currents in the mantle

66.

The rocky outer layer of the Earth is called the _____

a)

hydrosphere

b)

atmosphere

c)

lithosphere

d)

mantle

67.

Select the correct order of Earth's layers from least dense to most dense.

a)

asthensophere, mesosphere, outer core inner core, lithosphere

b)

lithosphere, mesosphere, asthenosphere, outer core, inner core

c)

lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesosphere, outer core, inner core

d)

lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesosphere, inner core, outer core

68.

Which layer of Earth is solid iron and nickel?

a)

lithosphere

b)

asthenosphere

c)

inner core

d)

outer core

69.

Which layer of the Earth is made of semi-solid rock and moves like warm plastic?

a)

Asthenopshere

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Outer Core

70.

At convergent boundaries, the tectonic plates __________.

a)

move apart

b)

slide past each other

c)

collide

d)

do no move

71.

A transform boundary exists where on of the Earth's plates _______________.

a)

moves away from one another

b)

slides past another plate

c)

crashes into another plate

d)

dives beneath another plate

72.

Which of the following can occur at convergent boundaries?

a)

Mountain building

b)

New crust creation

c)

Earthquakes

d)

Rift valley

e)

Volcanoes

73.

Ocean trenches are often found at what type of plate boundaries?

a)

divergent

b)

transform

c)

inactive

d)

convergent

74.

Select the two answers that best support the theory of plate tectonics

a)

Separate continents have the exact same fossils of land animals

b)

The continents fit together like the pieces of a puzzle

c)

Wegner was told about plate tectonics by a time traveloer from the future

d)

The prevailing winds of the Earth slowly push the continents around.

75.

Which of the following is the cause of most volcanoes?

a)

The dividing of continents along plate boundaries

b)

The sliding of continents past one another

c)

The melting of one plate as it is being subducted under another.

d)

Two continental crust colliding.

76.

At which of the following plate boundaries do subduction zones occur?

a)

Convergent: Continental - Continental

b)

Convergent: Continental - Oceanic

c)

Divergent: Oceanic - Oceanic

d)

Convergent: Oceanic - Oceanic

e)

Divergent: Continental - Continental

77.

Look at the diagram. What processes can be used to complete the diagram of the rock cycle?

a)

1 = cooling, 2 = weathering and erosion, 3 = pressure

b)

1 = weathering and erosion, 2 = pressure, 3 = cooling

c)

1 = weathering and erosion, 2 = cooling, 3 = pressure

d)

1 = weathering and erosion, 2 = weathering and erosion, 3 = weathering and erosion

78.

Which of the following is NOT true about the role tectonic forces play in the rock cycle?

a)

When plates pull apart, rocks melt, and magma forms igneous rocks.

b)

When plates crash together, rocks are buried and form metamorphic rocks.

c)

When plates slide over and under each other, the heat and pressure form igneous rocks.

d)

When rocks push upward and form mountains, the erosion of the mountains can produce sediment.

79.

When rocks are broken down into small pieces, like sand and gravel, the pieces are known as _______.

a)

magma

b)

sediment

c)

humus

d)

debris

80.

Which statement correctly describes the rock cycle?

a)

Igneous rock can only form by heat and pressure.

b)

Metamorphic rock can only form by crystallization.

c)

Magma can only form by compaction and cementation.

d)

Sedimentary rocks form by deposition, burial, and compaction of weathered particles and dissolved chemicals.

81.

Which of the following is a true statement about the rock cycle?

a)

Heat, pressure, cooling, weathering, erosion, and deposition change rock.

b)

The formation of rock within the cycle ends after metamorphic rocks form

c)

Weathering occurs in igneous rocks but never in sedimentary or metamorphic.

d)

Sedimentary rock can revert to metamorphic rock but never to igneous rock.

82.

The process by which rocks are broken down into smaller pieces is:

a)

Foliation

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

d)

Weathering

83.

Why do metamorphic rocks rarely contain fossils?

a)

These rocks are formed underwater, and the water dissolves the fossils.

b)

The rock formation occurs from extremely hot magma deep inside the crust where organisms do not live.

c)

These rocks undergo extremely high pressure or temperature changes when formed, which would destroy fossils.

d)

These rocks are usually formed from extremely hot magma or with severe lava explosions, which would destroy fossils.

84.

New igneous rock forms when ________.

a)

magma or lava cools and hardens

b)

dead organisms become buried for millions of years

c)

sand and gravel get compacted and cemented

d)

existing rocks get buried and squeezed

85.

Which of these is not a fossil?

a)
b)
c)
d)
86.

In this image of a cladogram, which letter is pointing to the branches?

a)

A

b)

B

87.

Cladograms do not involve time or relative age of the organisms.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Look at the labeled Cladogram. Which node represents a common ancestor for Lemurs and Lorises?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

89.

Look at the labeled Cladogram and apply what you know about cladograms. What does node D represent?

a)

The common ancestor of Apes and new world monkeys

b)

The last common ancestor of humans and old world monkeys

c)

The first ancestor of Tarsiers and old world monkeys

d)

The common ancestor that all the organisms in the cladogram share.

90.

Which of these layers of rock is the oldest?

a)

Siltstone

b)

Mudstone

c)

Conglomerate

d)

Sandstone

e)

Limestone

91.

Examine the image and place the order of events int he correct order from oldest to most recent

a)

Deposition of layer C, deposition of layer B, deposition of layer A, fault along E, intrusion of magma vein D

b)

Deposition of layer C, fault along E, deposition of layer A, intrusion of magma vein D, deposition of layer B

c)

Fault along E, intrusion of magma vein D, deposition of layer A, deposition of layer B, deposition of layer C

d)

Deposition of layer C, deposition of layer B, deposition of layer A, intrusion of magma vein D, fault along E

92.

Which of the following is a condition needed for fossilization? Select all that apply.

a)

rapid and permanent burial

b)

Burial in a place that will be easy to find in millions of years

c)

Lack of oxygen, limiting decay and scavenging

d)

Continued sediment accumulation

e)

The absence of heat or compression which might destroy the fossil

93.

Most fossils are found in:

a)

Sedimentary Rocks

b)

Loose Sediments

c)

Metamorphic Rocks

d)

Igneous Rocks

94.

Which era of Earth's history is the longest?

a)

Cambrian

b)

Precambrian

c)

Paleozoic

d)

Mesozoic

e)

Cenozoic

95.

Which of the following would be a plausible method for using genetic engineering to conserve endangered species?

a)

using gene silencing to “switch off” genes that make endangered species vulnerable

b)

using crossbreeding to combine endangered species with similar non-threatened species

c)

using cloning to increase the population of endangered species and preserve their genomes

d)

using transgenesis to insert genes into endangered species to give them traits that will make them less vulnerable

96.

A scientist wants to develop a fast-growing, pest-resistant, nutrient-rich variety of corn. What would be the fastest, most effective method of achieving this goal?

a)

Map the genomes of many varieties of corn to find one that has genes for all of these traits, then “switch on” these genes.

b)

Isolate genes for these desired traits from any organisms known to have them, and then use transgenesis to insert the genes into the corn genome.

c)

Find corn varieties with some of these traits and breed them together over multiple generations until all the traits are combined.

d)

Culture cells from a fast-growing corn variety in a lab, feeding them nutrients and exposing them to pesticides until they develop resistance.

97.

Scientists have genetically engineered crops to be resistant to herbicides. This allows farmers to kill weeds with small doses of herbicides that don’t harm the crops. Why, then, are people concerned that transgenic plants may lead to an increase in the use of herbicides?

a)

Cross-pollination could pass herbicide-resistant genes to the weeds.

b)

Weeds may naturally develop herbicide resistance with each dose.

c)

Herbicide-resistant crops may grow out of control and become weeds.

d)

Cross-pollination could cause the crops to lose their herbicide resistance.

98.

Two basic categories of genetic engineering are.... (Select all that apply)

a)

Natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

Evolution

d)

Gene Modification

99.

Changes in a species that enable it to survive changes in the environment are known as ______.

a)

Ecosystems

b)

Adaptations

c)

Biomes

d)

Alleles

100.

A walking stick is an insect that looks like a twig. How does this adaptation help the walking stick to survive?

a)

It is small so it needs to eat less food.

b)

It is able to stay cooler.

c)

It is able to run after prey faster in the trees.

d)

Its appearance makes it difficult for predators to see it.

101.

A certain species of rodent eats only one type of plant. A disease attacks those plants and wipes them out. Which of the following best explains what might happen next?

a)

The number of this type of rodent will not be affected.

b)

The number of this type of rodent will decrease to a point near extinction.

c)

The number of this type of rodent will increase and overpopulate.

d)

The number of this type of rodent will double in size.

102.

How does a species survive a climate change over thousands of years?

a)

It reproduces more rapidly.

b)

It hibernates and waits for better climate conditions.

c)

It makes no changes.

d)

It adapts to the changing climate.

103.

The snowshoe hare has the ability to change its coat color. It is brown during the spring, summer, and early fall but changes to white as winter approaches. What adaptation does the snowshoe hare have that allows it to hide from predators?

a)

symbiosis

b)

commensalism

c)

camouflage

d)

mutation

104.

Odors that repel, spines, poisonous chemicals, and thorns are all considered __________.

a)

adaptations that enhance survival

b)

traits that oppose natural selection

c)

characteristics associated only with fossils

d)

only physical appearances

105.

Suppose a particular predator in an area eats rabbits. If hunters kill off all of those predators, the rabbit population will increase, resulting in more __________ among the rabbits for food and space.

a)

cooperation

b)

extinction

c)

competition

d)

symbiosis

106.

Examine the picture of a food web. Which organism supports the other organisms by making food from the nonliving components of the ecosystem?

a)

Mice

b)

Snake

c)

Grass

d)

Eagle

107.

Which of the following is most likely, over time, to give rise to a totally new species?

a)

geographic isolation

b)

a forest fire

c)

an earthquake

d)

falling sea level

108.

Doctors find that a certain type of antibiotic no longer is effective against the same type of bacteria it used to kill. What is the most likely explanation of why this antibiotic no longer kills this bacteria?

a)

The antibiotic has grown weaker.

b)

Some bacteria were resistant and survived to reproduce.

c)

The bacteria became extinct.

109.

The front leg of a cat, the front flipper of a dolphin, and the wing of a bat have the same structure and order of bones. These structures do not look alike and are not used in the same way, but their bones are similar. What might scientists say about the cat, dolphin, and bat based on this evidence?

a)

They may share a common ancestor.

b)

They all live in an aquatic environment.

c)

They have completely different ancestors

d)

They all have the ability to fly.

110.

Some harmful bacteria have become able to resist antibiotics because __________.

a)

the bacteria adapted to survive the antibiotic

b)

the antibiotic became weaker over time

c)

the environment made the antibiotic not work any more