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AP Bio A Final Review

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 2hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which variable depends on what is done at the beginning of an experiment?
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Control
d)
Following
2.
When experimenting with the growth of a plant, a scientist uses three (of the same type of) plants, two different fertilizers, equal light, and equal water. What type of variable is the fertilizer?
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Control
d)
Compound
3.
On a graph, which axis shows the dependent variable?
a)
x-axis
b)
y-axis
c)
neither
d)
it changes
4.
Covalent bonds are between...
a)
Metal and Non-metal
b)
Non-metal and Non-metal
c)
Metal and Metal
5.
How are covalent bonds formed?
a)
Sharing of electrons
b)
Transfer of electrons
6.

Is this molecule of CH4 polar or nonpolar?

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

7.

Electronegativity is a measurement of the ability of an atom to:

a)

attract electrons

b)

repel electrons

c)

attract protons

d)

attract other atoms

8.

2H2 + O2 ----> 2H2O

What is the product?

a)

------>

b)

2H2O

c)

2H2+ O2

9.

Polar molecules have...

a)

no charges.

b)

slight positive and negative charges on opposite ends of the molecules.

c)

only positive charges.

d)

either positive or negative charges, but not both.

10.

What are the products of the chemical reaction pictured?

a)

CH4 and CO2

b)

CH4 and O2

c)

CO2 and H2O

d)

O2 and H2O

11.

Consider the chemical equation CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O. In this equation, CH4 is a ...

a)

product

b)

reactant

c)

displacement

12.
Homeostasis 
a)
is the tendency of organisms to maintain an appropriate balanced internal environement
b)
long term response of organisms changes to the environment
c)
occurs only at the ecosystem level
d)
may be sexual or asexual
13.
The property of water that allows water molecules to stick to another substance is
a)
adhesion
b)
cohesion
c)
density
d)
specific heat
14.
Water molecules require a lot of energy to separate one from the others.  This gives water a high
a)
density
b)
polarity
c)
solvency
d)
specific heat
15.
Which of the following is NOT one of the main 4 elements found in living organisms?
a)
Carbon
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Sulfur
d)
Oxygen
16.

Describe the difference between rough ER and smooth ER.

a)

Rough ER compartmentalizes cell; Smooth ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis

b)

Rough ER functions in ribosome synthesis; Smooth ER functions in lipid synthesis

c)

Rough ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis; Smooth ER compartmentalizes cell

d)

Rough ER functions in lipid synthesis; Smooth ER functions in ribosome synthesis

17.

Which organelle is a membrane-bound structure that functions in correct folding/chemical modification of proteins?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

18.

Which is membrane-enclosed sacs that contain hydrolytic enzymes?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

19.

Which is responsible for storage and release of macromolecules and cellular waster products. In plants, aids in turgor.

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuoles

20.

Describe the relationship between cell size and SA:V ratios.

a)

As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio increases

b)

As cells decrease in size, the SA:V ratio decreases

c)

As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio decreases

d)

Cell size has no effect on the SA:V ratio

21.

Describe the characteristics of a membrane-bound protein.

a)

Entire protein is hydrophilic

b)

Entire protein is hydrophobic

c)

Hydrophilic R group exterior cell & hydrophobic R group interior membrane

d)

Hydrophilic R group interior membrane & hydrophobic R group interior cell

22.

Identify which of the following will bind to a membrane protein (and will not enter the cell).

a)

Water

b)

Protein Hormone

c)

Steroid Hormone

d)

Charged Ion

23.

Which of the following requires an input of energy for membrane transport?

a)

Charged ion moving against concentration gradient

b)

Water moving into a hypertonic cell

c)

Charged ion moving with concentration gradient

d)

Water moving out of a hypotonic cell

24.

What is the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis?

a)

Endocytosis involves cytoplasm of a neighboring cell entering

b)

Endocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to bring materials in cell

c)

Exocytosis involves cytoplasm of a neighboring cell exiting

d)

Exocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to remove material from cell

25.

Which of the following correctly describe the movement of water?

a)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will gain water from the 1.0M exterior solution

b)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution

c)

Cell with 1.0M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution

d)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will lose water to the 0.5M exterior solution

26.

Why is a eukaryotic cell able to be larger than a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Membrane-bound organelles compartmentalize intracellular processes

b)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell

c)

Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell

d)

Absence of membrane-bound organelles allows for enzymatic reactions.

27.
When cells are placed in a __________ solution they begin to swell.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Isotonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
Equalized
28.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
29.
Which way would the purple molecules move through the semi-permeable membrane?
a)
From the  A side  to the B-side
b)
From the B side to the A side
c)
none of the purple molecules would move
d)
they would move equally back and forth in a state of dynamic equilibrium
30.
What is the approximate sucrose concentration in the potato core?
a)
.43 M
b)
.30 M
c)
0.0 M
d)
1.0 M
31.
Active transport is happening in 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D nowhere in this pricture
32.
Binding of a signaling molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in the distribution of ions on opposite sides of the membrane?
a)
phosphorylated tyrosine kinase dimer
b)
ligand-gated ion channel
c)
receptor tyrosine kinase
d)
G protein-coupled receptor
33.
Which of the following is characterized by a cell releasing a signal molecule into the environment, followed by a number of cells in the immediate vicinity responding?
a)
paracrine signaling
b)
endocrine signaling
c)
long distance signaling
d)
hormonal signaling
34.
Which is not a part of a signal transduction pathway?
a)
response
b)
transcription
c)
transduction
d)
receptor
35.
When a plant cell, such as one from a tulip stem, is submerged in a very hypotonic solution, what is likely to occur?
a)
The cell membrane will lyse.
b)
The cell will burst.
c)
The cell will become turgid.
d)
Plasmolysis will shrink the interior.
36.
A HYPERTONIC solution has a _____ concentration of solute than the interior of the cell and a cell will ______ when placed into this solution.
a)
lower; shrink
b)
lower; swell
c)
higher; shrink
d)
higher; swell
37.
Which of the following would be an example of paracrine signaling in animals?
a)
neurotransmitter acetylcholine
b)
hormone epinephrine
c)
neurotransmitter norepinephrine
d)
growth factor
38.
A signal molecule that binds to a plasma-membrane protein is a
a)
ligand
b)
second messenger
c)
protein kinase
d)
receptor protein
39.
Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
a)
central vacuole
b)
chloroplast
c)
wall made of cellulose
d)
mitochondrion
40.
Which statement is correct about diffusion?
a)
It's very rapid over long distances.
b)
It's a passive process which molecules move from a region of higher to lower concentration.
c)
It requires an energy expenditure by the cell.
d)
It's an active process where molecules move from a region of lower to higher concentration.
41.
Which statement about diffusion is false?
a)
Diffusion does not require ATP
b)
Simple diffusion depends upon specific carrier proteins
c)
In diffusion, molecules move from areas of greater concentration to areas of lesser concentration
d)
Diffusion continues until the molecular concentrations are in equilibrium
42.
In a hypothetical study, cells are placed in a solution of glucose in which the concentration of glucose is gradually increased. At first, the rate at which glucose enters the cells is found to increase as the concentration of the glucose solution is increased. But when the glucose concentration of the solution is increased above 10 M, the rate no longer increases. Which of the following is the likely mechanism for glucose transport into these cells?
a)
Facilitated diffusion via a carrier protein
b)
Facilitated diffusion via a channel protein
c)
Pinocytosis
d)
Tertiary active transport
43.
Prokaryotic cell
a)
a cell that lacks a nucleus and other membrane bound organelles; includes achaea and bacteria
b)
a cell containing a nucleus and other membrane bound organelles
c)
the idea that the mitochonria and chloroplasts were once free living and were engulfed by other prokaryotic cells.
d)
 part of the cell containing DNA and RNA and responsible for growth and reproduction
44.

If a cells  Ψp\Psi p = 3 bars and its  Ψs\Psi s = -4.5 bars, what is the resulting  Ψ\Psi  ?

a)

-7.5

b)

7.5

c)

-1.5

d)

1.5

45.
What 4 structures are common between plant, animal, and bacterial cells?
a)
Golgi Apparatus, Chloroplasts, Ribosomes, Nucleus
b)
Cell Wall, Mitochondria, Cell Membrane, Cytoplasm
c)
Rough ER, Smooth ER, Nucleus, Ribosomes
d)
DNA, Cytoplasm, Ribosomes, Cell membrane
46.

The human body maintains a temperature of around 98.6 degrees at all times. Enzymes are involved in almost every chemical reaction in the body. Which of the following describes the connection between these two statements?

a)

The body is kept relatively warm to prevent too much enzyme action.

b)

The body needs to be warm to prevent hypothermia.

c)

Enzymes function best at a specific temperature.

d)

There is no connection between the two statements.

47.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
48.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
49.

The active site of an enzyme can:

a)

bind allosteric regulators.

b)

bind competitive inhibitors.

c)

bind non-competitive inhibitors.

d)

change the Gibbs Free Energy of the reaction.

50.
Endergonic reactions require:
a)
an input of energy
b)
a release of energy
c)
do not change energy
51.
Use the diagram to answer the question. Between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
C and D
52.
Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid. What is malonic acid's role with respect to succinate dehydrogenase?
a)
It is a competitive inhibitor.
b)
It is an allosteric regulator.
c)
It is able to bind to succinate.
d)
It blocks the binding of fumarate.
53.
The place, other than the active site, where activators and inhibitors bind to an enzyme is called the ________ site.
a)
competitive
b)
allosteric
c)
alterior
d)
rate
54.
If a process is spontaneous, what can be said about the Gibbs Free Energy of the process?
a)
ΔG is negative
b)
ΔG is positive
c)
ΔG is zero
55.
Where is the most easily accessible energy stored in an ATP molecule?
a)
between the 1st and 2nd phosphate groups
b)
between the adenine and ribose groups
c)
between the 2nd and 3rd phosphate groups
d)
between the ribose and the 1st phosphate groups
56.
The following figure is illustrating
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
57.
The following figure is illustrating
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
58.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of the cell cycle?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

mitosis

d)

apoptosis

59.

Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

60.

Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis?

a)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

61.

Which of the following is NOT a role of mitosis?

a)

gametes

b)

tissue repair

c)

growth

d)

asexual reproduction

62.

Which checkpoint is responsible for ensuring nondisjunction does not take place?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

S checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

M checkpoint

63.

Describe the interaction between cyclin and CdK.

a)

cyclin interacts with CdK to initiate the mitotic phase

b)

cyclin is the precursor to CdK, when synthesized allow for mitosis proceed

c)

cyclin acts as an inhibitor to CdK to wait for all DNA to be synthesized

d)

cyclin binds to CdK to initiate DNA replication

64.

Mitosis results in...

a)

2 identical diploid cells

b)

4 unique diploid cells

c)

2 unique haploid cells

d)

4 identical haploid cells

65.

An RNA strand has the following sequence of nucleotides: uracil, adenine, guanine, cytosine, cytosine. What is the nucleotide sequence in the DNA that was transcribed?

a)

adenine, thymine, thymine, cytosine, guanine, guanine

b)

adenine, thymine, thymine, uracil, guanine, guanine

c)

guanine, adenine, cytosine, thymine, guanine, guanine

66.

What do we call the region that joins two sister chromatids?

a)

centriole

b)

chromatin

c)

centromere

d)

chromosome

67.

What do we call the region that joins two sister chromatids?

a)

centriole

b)

chromatin

c)

centromere

d)

chromosome

68.

In which phase of mitosis are the chromosomes separated from their duplicates?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prophase

69.

Which is the cellular basis for sexual reproduction?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

70.

What is a diploid cell?

a)

A cell that has only one representative of each chromosome pair.

b)

The number or homologous pairs in a cell.

c)

A cell with chromosomes that come in homologous pairs.

d)

The figure produced when the chromosomes of a species during metaphase are arranged according to their homologous pairs.

71.

A cellular reproduction process results in two diploid cells. Is this mitosis or meiosis?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

72.

Cellular reproduction that only requires one parent cell and produces an identical offspring is ____________.

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

gametes

d)

chromosomes

73.

____________________________requires two parents and results in offspring that share traits of both parents DNA.

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

diploid

d)

chromosomes

74.

During which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids line up down the middle of the cell?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

75.

Once the cell has undergone cell division and has completely separated, it is known as which of the following?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

cytokinesis

76.

Which of the following are a form of asexual reproduction?

a)

budding

b)

binary fission

c)

regeneration

d)

all of the above

77.

Which phase of mitosis is depicted below?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

78.

This process involves homologous chromatids exchanging genetic material to increase genetic diversity.

a)

crossing over

b)

random fertilization

c)

independent assortment

d)

gene flow

79.

What phase of meiosis describes the law of segregation?

a)

telophase I

b)

anaphase I

c)

telophase II

d)

anaphase II

80.

Describe the process of nondisjunction.

a)

Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information

b)

The alignment of the chromosomes on the metaphase plate

c)

Homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids remain attached during anaphase

d)

The process of sperm and egg fusing to create a zygote

81.

Meiosis results in _____________ because there is/are _______________.

a)

2 identical haploid cells, 1 round of division

b)

4 identical diploid cells, 2 rounds of division

c)

4 unique haploid cells, 2 rounds of division

d)

2 unique diploid cells, 1 round of division

82.
The replication of DNA is...
a)
conservative
b)
dispersive
c)
semi-conservative
d)
random
83.
The two strands in a DNA molecule are held together by ...
a)
hydrogen bonds
b)
phosphodiester bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
ionic bonds
84.
Which of the following is not a post-transcriptional modification of mRNA?
a)
addition of poly-A tail
b)
addition of 5' cap
c)
removal of introns
d)
removal of exons
85.
Since most amino acids are encoded for by more than one codon, the genetic code is said to be ...
a)
semi-conservative
b)
a triplet code
c)
universal
d)
redundant
86.
The synthesis of a new strand of DNA ...
a)
starts at an operator sequence.
b)
involves DNA ligase.
c)
is always in fragments.
d)
occurs from the 5' end to the 3' end.
87.
RNA is similar to DNA in that ...
a)
it is a polymer of nucleotides
b)
it is double-stranded 
c)
it is only found in the nucleus
d)
there is only one type of RNA
88.
A codon is to mRNA as an anti-codon is to ...
a)
DNA
b)
an amino acid
c)
rRNA
d)
tRNA
89.
Which of the following statements about ribosomes is FALSE?
a)
They have 3 'sites' - E, P and A sites.
b)
They read mRNA from the 3' end to the 5' end.
c)
They consist of 2 subunits.
d)
They make proteins.
90.
The codons UAA, UAG and UGA are unique since they ...
a)
are redundant
b)
encode for the same amino acid
c)
encode for a 'start'
d)
encode for a 'stop'
91.
A DNA molecule made from 2 different sources is called ...
a)
recombinant DNA
b)
nuclear DNA
c)
modified DNA
d)
mutant DNA
92.
Which of the following enzymes is NOT needed in replication?
a)
DNA ligase
b)
RNA primase
c)
DNA polymerase III
d)
RNA polymerase
93.
Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?
a)
GGCCCG
b)
AATGGC
c)
AACGTT
d)
CCUTGG
94.
In gel electrophoresis ....
a)
 15N is needed to weigh down the DNA samples
b)
DNA molecules move towards the negative pole
c)
larger molecules travel faster
d)
smaller DNA fragments travel faster
95.
The genetic code is ...
a)
a triplet code
b)
species specific
c)
RNA-based
d)
still unknown
96.

Gel electrophoresis

a)

The method of copying strands of DNA

b)

The method for cutting strands of DNA

c)

The method for separating strands of DNA

97.

A 2021bp plasmid is cut at the 5th base, the 1000th base, and the 1540th base. How many pieces are there and what's the longest piece?

a)

3, 995bp

b)

4, 540bp

c)

3, 486bp

d)

none of these

98.

What is the enzyme responsible for DNA replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleolus

99.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
CAT TCA CTG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
100.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
101.

What is transcription?

a)

A molecule that contains the genetic code for organisms.

b)

The RNA → Protein part of the central dogma

c)

The DNA → RNA part of the central dogma of molecular biology

d)

The process in which cells make proteins

102.

What is translation?

a)

The RNA → Protein part of the central dogma

b)

The DNA → RNA part of the central dogma of molecular biology

c)

The process in which cells make proteins

d)

A molecule that contains the genetic code of organisms.

103.

What is a mutation?

a)

change the chromosome structure

b)

Anything in the environment that can cause a mutation

c)

A change in the sequence of bases in DNA or RNA

104.

3'-ATATTTAGGCGTGTAAT-5'

Is sequence of non-coding strand, What would be the sequence of mRNA ?

a)

5'-AUAUUUAGGCUGUAAU-3'

b)

3'-AUAUUUAGGCUGUAAU-5'

c)

5'-UAUAAAUCCGACAUUA-3'

d)

None of the above

105.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
106.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
107.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
108.

TRANSLATION:

This is

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

DNA

d)

a ribosome

109.

Meiosis results in _____________ because there is/are _______________.

a)

2 identical haploid cells, 1 round of division

b)

4 identical diploid cells, 2 rounds of division

c)

4 unique haploid cells, 2 rounds of division

d)

2 unique diploid cells, 1 round of division

110.

Which of the following does NOT increase variation in gamete formation?

a)

crossing over

b)

fertilization of gametes

c)

random assortment of chromosomes

d)

condensation of chromatin

111.

Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of the shown pedigree?

a)

Autosomal Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Dominant

c)

Autosomal Recessive

d)

Sex-Linked Recessive

112.

In animals, traits determine by the mitochondrial DNA are inherited from the _______________.

a)

mother

b)

brother

c)

father

d)

sister

113.

Identify the type of inheritance of the pedigree.

a)

Sex-Linked

b)

Mitochondrial

c)

Autosomal

d)

Random

114.

Which of the following is the predicted ratio of a testcross with a dihybrid?

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

9:6:1

c)

1:2:1

d)

1:1:1:1

115.

Describe why a male is more likely to be affected by a sex-linked trait?

a)

Males have only 1 Y chromosome

b)

Females have only 1 Y chromosome

c)

Males have only 1 X chromosome

d)

Females have only 1 X chromosomes

116.

The different forms of a gene

a)

alleles

b)

atoms

c)

proteins

d)

wheels

117.

B = brown fur b = white fur

In the Punnett square, what is the probability for white fur?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

118.
A homozygous dominant dog with brown fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog with brown fur. What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
119.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
120.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
121.
Morgan crossed a pure-breeding wild type red-eyed fly with a mutant white eyed fly, producing an F1 generation of all red eyed flies.  When he crossed his red-eyed flies with each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. However, all the white-eyed flies were male. What explains this result?   
a)
The gene involved was on the X chromosome.
b)
The gene involved was on the Y chromosome.
c)
The result is due to multifactorial inheritance.
d)
Other male-specific factors (such as hormones) influence eye color in flies. 
122.
Imagine you are performing a cross involving seed color in garden pea plants. What F1 offspring would you expect if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds and yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green.
a)
100 percent yellow-green seeds
b)
100 percent yellow seeds
c)
50 percent yellow, 50 percent green seeds
d)
25 percent green, 75 percent yellow seeds
123.

If a particular pedigree follows a sex-linked recessive trait, you would expect to see

a)

more affected females

b)

all carrier males

c)

more affected males

d)

an equal number of affected males and females

124.
In humans, hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman have a son who is affected with hemophilia, which of the following is definitely true?
a)
The mother carries an allele for hemophilia
b)
The father carries an allele for hemophilia
c)
The father is afflicted with hemophilia
d)
both parents carry an allele for hemophilia
125.
Give the genotype for person III-3
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
Cannot determine
126.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
127.
The range of human skin colors is caused by a variety of genes, each of which has at least 2 alleles.  This is an example of:
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
polygenic inheritance
128.
What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
a)
Sex-Linked Dominant
b)
Sex-Linked Recessive
c)
Autosomal Dominant
d)
Autosomal Recessive 
129.

What is the inheritance pattern of this trait?

a)

sex-linked recessive

b)

autosomal dominant

c)

autosomal recessive

d)

Y-linked dominant

130.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
131.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together? 
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
c)
Mendelian Inheritance
d)
Homozygous Inheritance
132.
parent 1: GgBB
parent 2: ggBb
Find the gametes for parent 1.
a)
GB, GB, gB, gB
b)
gB, gb, gB, gb
c)
Gg, BB, GB, GB
d)
gg, Bb, gB, gb
133.

Which of the following describes when an organism shows both traits equally at the same time, no blending? Example: AB blood type or Roan horse

a)

Complete Dominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Co-Dominance

d)

Sex-Linked

134.

What is the phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross of 2 heterozygous individuals?

a)

10:4:2

b)

16:0

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

5:9:2

135.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
136.
What proportion of the offspring in Figure 11-4 would be expected to have white, smooth hair?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
4/16
d)
1/16
137.
Smooth seeds are dominant over wrinkled seeds.
What is the genotype ratio for the following cross?
Nn X NN
a)
NN = 100%, Nn = 0%, nn = 0%
b)
NN = 50%, Nn = 25%, nn = 25%
c)
NN = 50%, Nn = 50%, nn = 0%
d)
NN = 25%, Nn = 50%, nn = 25%
138.
Give the genotype for person II-1, for this autosomal trait.
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
we cannot be 100% sure of the genotype

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