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Biology Course Summary

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The diagram shows a container divided into two compartments by a membrane permeable to water but not to starch. Two solutions containing different concentrations of dissolved starch were placed on each side of the membrane. Which of the following describes what will happen to the water level during the process of osmosis?

a)

The water level of both sides of the membrane will decrease

b)

The water level on the right side of the membrane will increase

c)

The water level on the left side of the membrane will increase

d)

The water level on both sides of the membrane will stay the same

2.

An animal cell placed in a sugar solution is shown in the diagram. Which statement best describes how osmosis will affect this animal cell?

a)

Water will move out of the cell and the cell will shrink

b)

Water will move into the cell and the cell will expand

c)

Sugar will move out of the cell and the cell will expand

d)

Sugar will move into the cell and the cell will expand

3.

In order to make hydrochloric acid, which is required in human digestion, ATP is used to move hydrogen ions from the blood to the stomach lining. This is an example of ___.

a)

Active Transport

b)

Passive Transport

c)

Osmotic Potential

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

4.

The stages of the cell cycle are shown in random order below. Starting with prophase, sequence the diagrams to show the stages of mitosis.

a)

5-3-1-2-4

b)

3-1-4-2-5

c)

4-1-2-5-3

d)

2-3-1-5-4

5.

What is the diploid number of chromosomes in the above diagrams?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

6.

A daughter cell that resulted from a mitotic division has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes did the parent cell have?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

24

d)

48

7.

What must occur during the cell cycle to ensure proper division of the chromosomes?

a)

The cell must grow in size

b)

The mitochondria must divide

c)

The DNA of the cell must replicate

d)

The cell membrane must dissolve

8.
The figures below show four processes involving DNA and RNA.  Use these figures to answer the next question. 
Which figure shows the process of replication?
a)
figure 1
b)
figure 2
c)
figure 3
d)
figure 4
9.

. Which statement best describes the primary function of DNA replication?

a)

To ensure daughter cells have a complete copy of the DNA

b)

To prevent mutations from occurring in cells

c)

To provide genetic variation within specific organisms

d)

to allow prokaryotic cells to undergo meiosis

10.

The amount of energy the producers in this energy pyramid provide the primary consumer is 54,000 joules. From this amount, 540 joules are provided to the tertiary consumers. Based on this model, how much of the energy was provided to secondary consumers?

a)

53,460 J

b)

5,400 J

c)

540 J

d)

54 J

11.

The green frog (Lithobates clamitans clamitans) is found in many parts of the United States. The table contains some information about this frog. Why does the ability to lay 1,000 to 5,000 eggs increase the fitness of the species L. clamitans clamitans?

a)

It increases opportunities for offspring to compete for limited resources.

b)

It increases the probability that some offspring will survive long enough to reproduce.

c)

It increases the probability that moving water will promote gene flow from one population to another.

d)

It increases the chance of the recombination of alleles, leading to genetic drift in the population.

12.

Food webs such as the one shown were first used in 1927 by the animal ecologist Charles Elton. The food web below represents the feeding relationships among organisms in an Alaskan ecosystem. An environmental change that removed which of these organisms from the ecosystem would cause the most instability in the ecosystem?

a)

Auklets

b)

Foxes

c)

Salmon

d)

Zooplankton

13.

During meiosis, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material. This exchange of genetic material

a)

increases the genetic variation

b)

reduces the diploid number to the haploid number

c)

increases the haploid number to the diploid number

d)

reduces the probability of mutations

14.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?

a)

The products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration to provide chemical energy.

b)

The products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration to remove ATP from cells.

c)

The products of photosynthesis inhibit the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

d)

The products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

15.

Some relationships between different organisms are shown in the table. Which table correctly identifies each type of interaction described?

a)
b)
c)
d)
16.

An analysis of DNA and RNA sequences can be used to classify organisms. A dendrogram, such as the one shown, is based on molecular data. It can be used to represent evolutionary relationships within a group of organisms that are hypothesized to have descended from a common ancestor. Which statement is best supported by the information in this dendrogram?

a)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to raccoons.

b)

Brown bears are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to sun bears.

c)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to raccoons than they are to giant pandas.

d)

The bear species are all more genetically similar to dogs than they are to giant pandas.

17.
How do viruses reproduce?
a)
They copy their own genetic material inside a protein coat.
b)
They kill a cell and reproduce inside it.
c)
They invade a living cell and use the cell's functions to replicate their genetic material.
d)
They do not reproduce because they are not technically living things.
18.
Which cell part is present in eukaryotic cells, but not in prokaryotic cells?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
19.
Which organic macromolecules are composed of chains of amino acids that join to form the structural components of organisms?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
proteins
d)
lipids
20.
Proteins are formed in the cytoplasm of cell using genetic instructions from DNA, which is located in the cells nucleus.  Which of the following best explains how the genetic information gets to the site of protein synthesis?
a)
DNA is divided during mitosis, and one strand travels outside the nucleus to bind with RNA and form a protein
b)
DNA is copied to make mRNA. The mRNA leaves the nucleus and goes to the ribosomes, where the information is used to guide protein synthesis.
c)
Genetic information travels from DNA in the nucleus along a strand of mRNA that is connected to ribosomes in the cytoplasm where proteins are made.
d)
The genetic code is transferred to ribosomes on tRNA molecules, which can pass through the nuclear membrane.
21.
A pond ecosystem is shown in the diagram below. Which statement describes an interaction that helps maintain the dynamic equilibrium of this ecosystem?
Which statement describes an interaction that helps maintain the dynamic equilibrium of this ecosystem?
a)
The frogs make energy available to this ecosystem through the process of photosynthesis.
b)
The algae directly provide food for both the rotifers and the catfish.
c)
The green-backed heron provides energy for the mosquito larvae.
d)
The catfish population helps control the populations of water boatman and waterfleas.
22.
According to the food web, which of these supply energy for all the other organisms?     
a)
snakes
b)
insects
c)
grasses
d)
cougars
23.
The number of species within a specific habitat.
a)
Conservation
b)
Sustainable development
c)
Biodiversity
d)
Preservation
24.
Which organism recieves the least amount of energy from the producer?
a)
Owl
b)
Grasshopper
c)
Lilypad
d)
Mouse
25.
What are the Abiotic factors in this image? 
a)
water, sunlight, dirt, air
b)
birds and plants
c)
birds, water, dirt
d)
plants, water
26.

Which statement best describes natural selection?

a)

As the weather changes, organisms that are able to find shelter need less energy to live.

b)

Organisms that eat only plants need less food than organisms that eat animals.

c)

Organisms better adapted to their environment are more likely to reproduce and pass on their traits to their offspring.

d)

Small organisms are more likely to survive than larger organisms.

27.

Which word equation best represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide + glucose → oxygen + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen

c)

glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

d)

oxygen + water → carbon dioxide + glucose

28.
A reduction in which of these would lead to a decrease in all other populations?
a)
Coyote
b)
Grass
c)
Grasshoppers 
d)
Squirrel 
29.
Which of these best explains the difference between the way animals and plants exchange gases with their environment?
a)
Animals use only photosynthesis, while plants use both photosynthesis and respiration
b)
Animals use only respiration, while plants use both photosynthesis and repiration
c)
Animals use both photosynthesis and respiration, while plants use only respiration
d)
Animals use both photosynthesis and respiration, while plants only use photosynthesis
30.
What is the main function of a selectively permeable membrane?
a)
storage of water
b)
storage of chemicals
c)
breaks down molecules within the cell
d)
regulates what enters and leaves the cell
31.
How many daughter cells are formed in meiosis? 
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
4
32.
Which of these shows the steps by which proteins are coded and synthesized? 
a)
RNA-> DNA-> protein
b)
DNA-> RNA-> protein
c)
protein-> RNA-> DNA
d)
protein-> DNA-> RNA
33.
Which is a function of ribosomes in a cell?
a)
produce energy
b)
produce protein
c)
perform respiration
d)
perform photosynthesis
34.
Viruses are infectious particles made of nucleic acid and protein.  Based on the cell theory, how would viruses be described today?
a)
Viruses are living because they are made of cells.
b)
Viruses are non-living because they are not multicellular
c)
Viruses are non-living because they are not made of cells.
d)
Viruses are living because they are produced from existing cells.
35.
Look the the cross below.
Yy x Yy
In this cross, two yellow seed plants are crossed. What are the genotypes for the offspring in this cross?
a)
Yy, Yy, Yy, Yy
b)
YY, Yy, Yy, yy
c)
YY, YY, Yy, Yy
d)
YY, YY, YY, YY
36.
Which best describes an ecosystem?
a)
A group of species that inhabits a particular area
b)
a group of popultions as well as the abiotic environment
c)
All the organisms of one species that inhabit a particular area
d)
All the zones of Earth's land, water, and air where living organisms are found
37.
Which is primarily composed of the molecules cytosine, guanine, adenine, and thymine?
a)
lipid
b)
DNA
c)
RNA
d)
protein
38.
Examine the DNA sequence:
 TAC CCG ATC AAA GCC
Which represents the complementary strand of DNA?
a)
CGT TTA GCT GGG ATT
b)
ATG GGC TAG TTT CGG
c)
GCA AAT CGA TAA
d)
UCA CCG AUC AAA GCC
39.
(SC.912.L.14.3) There are some similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Which of the following structures is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
lysosome
b)
mitochondrion
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
40.
This diagram shows the cell cycle.

Which of the following activities occur in the S phase?
a)
Replication of the DNA
b)
Growth of the cell
c)
Formation of the mitotic spindle
d)
Breakdown of the nuclear membrane
41.
Energy for most chemical reactions in cells is supplied by which of the following molecules?
a)
DNA
b)
ATP
c)
RNA
d)
Hemoglobin 
42.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
Crossing over
b)
Mutagenesis
c)
Hybridization
d)
Fertilization
43.
What is the definition of  Selective Permeability?
a)
The movement of materials across the cell membrane that requires NO ENERGY from the cell.
b)
The movement of materials through (or across) the cell membrane
c)
The ability of the cell membrane to allow some things to pass through while preventing other things from passing through.
d)
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to a area of low concentration 
44.
Cell have several mechanisms for regulating their internal environments.  Which of these mechanisms involved in maintaining homeostasis requires energy?
a)
osmosis
b)
diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
passive transport
45.

In the graph to the right, what is the population of deer at the carrying capacity of the environment?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

70

d)

40

46.
What type of transport is illustrated?
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
47.
Which process allows for an organism to increase the number of body cells during development?
a)
budding 
b)
conjugation
c)
meiosis
d)
mitosis
48.
Which of these best describes mutualism? 
a)
a relationship between two species where both species benefit
b)
a relationship between two species where neither species benefits
c)
a relationship between two species where one species benefits and one is not affected
d)
a relationship between two species where on species benefits and the other is harmed
49.
Which best describes the function of enzymes?
a)
to speed up chemical reactions in a cell
b)
to produce cellular energy
c)
to produce proteins
d)
to speed up cell division
50.
What are the products of photosynthesis? 
a)
glucose and oxygen
b)
glucose and carbon dioxide
c)
glucose and water
d)
water, carbon dioxide, and energy
51.
Which process of the carbon cycle removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? 
a)
photosynthesis
b)
cellular respiration
c)
combustion of fossil fuels 
d)
death and decomposing organisms 
52.
What type of cell is shown?
a)
Eukaryotic because it has a nucleus
b)
Eukaryotic because it lacks a nucleus
c)
Prokaryotic because it has a nucleus
d)
Prokaryotic because it lacks a nucleus
53.
Cellular energy is produced in the membrane of this organelle.
a)
endoplasmic reticulum
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
lysosome
54.
What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
55.
RNA and DNA are which type of organic compound?
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Nucleic Acids
d)
Proteins
56.
The synthesis of an RNA strand from a DNA template is called __________.
a)
transcription
b)
replication
c)
translation
d)
synthesis
57.
What are the bases that can be found in DNA?
a)
adenine, thymine, uracil, cytosine
b)
thymine, cytosine, phosphate, guanine
c)
cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)
guanine, thymine, uracil, cytosine
58.
This type of process requires oxygen.
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
c)
Cell transport
d)
None of the above
59.
This type of process does not require oxygen.
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
c)
Cell transport
d)
None of the above
60.
During which phase of the cell cycle does most cell growth occurs?
a)
Interphase
b)
mitosis
c)
cytokinesis
d)
prophase
61.
Transgenic organisms..
a)
are clones
b)
contains genes from different organisms
c)
are mutants
d)
are animals
62.
To which group of organic molecule does waxes belong?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic acids
63.
What will most likely be the result if all of the mitochondria are removed from a plant cell? 
a)
It will be unable to carry out respiration. 
b)
It will lose water through osmosis.  
c)
It will break down ribosomes in the cell
d)
It will be unable to photosynthesize.
64.
During strenuous exercise, body temperature increases. The body responds to the increase in temperature by sweating, which helps to reduce the body temperature. Which is demonstrated in this situation?
a)
excretion
b)
metabolism
c)
homeostasis 
d)
synthesis
65.
Which process produces the most variation within a species? 
a)
Asexual reproduction
b)
Sexual reproduction
c)
mitosis
d)
cloning
66.
The yucca plant releases a strong scent at night when the yucca moth is active. The yucca moth, attracted by the scent, gathers pollen from the yucca flower. The yucca moth then deposits her eggs and the pollen on another plant. This ensures that the plant will be cross-pollinated and that the yucca moth larvae have a steady food supply. Which relationship does this BEST illustrate?
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
67.
When an egg is fertilized by sperm a ____ is created.
a)
embryo
b)
fetus
c)
zygote
d)
baby
68.
What is the name and importance of the molecule shown in the picture?
a)
fatty acid tail; makes up the fat found in butter
b)
phospholipid; makes up cellular membranes
c)
triglyceride; makes up animal lard
d)
cellulose; makes up the cell walls of plants
69.
Which class of biomolecules include monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
proteins
d)
nucleic acids
70.
Which class of biomolecules includes DNA and RNA?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
proteins
d)
nucleic acids
71.

What structure is label #3?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Vacoule

d)

Golgi body

72.

Which organelle is DNA usually found in

a)

cell membrane

b)

chloroplast

c)

vacoule

d)

nucleus

73.

Name the phase

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

74.

The clear, jelly-like material in a cell fills the space in the cell and supports and protects the cell’s organelles.

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Mitochondria

75.

The allele for brown eyes is dominant to the allele for blue eyes. Which of the following best explains how two brown-eyed parents could produce a blue-eyed child?

a)

Eye color is a sex-linked trait and male children could have only the allele for blue eyes.

b)

One parent must have had only blue-eyed parents.

c)

Mutations after fertilization could alter gene sequences and change alleles.

d)

Each parent must be carrying the recessive allele for blue eyes.

76.

What is the function of autotrophs in the carbon cycle?

a)

to use oxygen to produce glucose

b)

to take in excess water

c)

to use carbon dioxide to produce glucose

d)

to feed on herbivores

77.

What type of organic molecules are enzymes?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

78.

A freshwater plant is placed in a container of saltwater. What will most likely happen to the cells of the plant?

a)

They will swell because water will move into them.

b)

They will swell because salt will move into them.

c)

They will shrink because water will move out of them.

d)

They will shrink because salt will move out of them.

79.

A segment of DNA has this sequence:

ATA GCA CAT GTA


What is the mRNA sequence transcribed from this segment?

a)

TAT CGT GTA CAT

b)

TAT GCT CTA GAT

c)

UAU CGU GUA CAU

d)

UAU GCU CUA CAU

80.

A mutation has occurred in a mRNA fragment that was originally CUU. Using the codon chart given above, which of the following mutated mRNA fragments would result in an amino acid sequence different from that produced by the CUU fragment?

a)

CUC

b)

CUA

c)

CUG

d)

CAU

81.
An insertion of a DNA base into a gene can affect an organism by—
a)
causing future gametes to have additional chromosomes.
b)
changing the sequence of amino acids in a protein.
c)
causing chromosome fragments to form long chains.
d)
changing the structure of ribose sugar in nucleic acids.
82.
Which DNA strand is complementary to the top one shown in the picture?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
83.
Four different types of cells are shown in picture. Which characteristic is shared by all four cells?
a)
A mechanism for transforming sunlight into energy
b)
Self-locomotion
c)
Membrane-bound organelles that transport substances
d)
Genetic material composed of DNA
84.
According to the diagram, when did the common ancestor of giant pandas and spectacled bears exist? 
a)
5-10 mya
b)
10-15 mya
c)
15-20 mya
d)
20-25 mya
85.
Which factor determines the shape and function of a protein?
a)
The density of ribosomes in the cell
b)
The peptide bonds between amino acids
c)
The order of the amino acids in the peptide chian
d)
The sequence of the phosphate molecules in the DNA chain. 
86.
Which statement best describes how the use of antibiotics on certain bacteria affects natural selection? 
a)
Natural Selection is altered because bacteria are killed
b)
The rate of selection is decreased because antibiotics kill only young bacteria
c)
Antibiotics alter natural selection by causing bacterial DNA to mutate 
d)
The rate of selection is increased because antibiotics do not kill bacteria that are naturally resistant to them. 
87.
An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk. Each plant has the same amount of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same music. In this investigation, the independent variable is ...
a)
The type of plant
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The type of music
d)
The type of liquid
88.
The amount of energy that usually transfers from one trophic level to the next...
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
50%
89.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
90.

The light independent reactions (Calvin Cycle) of photosynthesis happen where?

a)

stroma of chloroplast

b)

mitochondrial matrix

c)

stem

d)

thylakoid membrane

91.
What two products does a plant make during photosynthesis?
a)
Water and Glucose
b)
Oxygen and Glucose
c)
Oxygen and Water
d)
CO2 and Glucose
92.
All of the living and nonliving things in an area that interact with each other are called a/an ______.
a)
community
b)
habitat
c)
population
d)
ecosystem
93.
 Which of the following characteristics defines a cell as eukaryotic?
a)
Being able to move
b)
Being able to reproduce
c)
Having a nucleus
d)
Having ribosomes
94.
Which statement correctly compares a eukaryote and a prokaryote?
a)
eukaryotes have a cell wall while prokaryotes have a cell membrane
b)
eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles are prokaryotes have few  specialized structures
c)
eukaryotes use active transport to move substances across a cell  membrane, while prokaryotes use facilitated diffusion
d)
eukaryotes use flagella to move themselves through substances, while prokaryotes can't move at all
95.
Cells need to bring in molecules to carry out cellular processes. Often, this requires moving the molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient. How do these molecules get into the cell?
a)
passive transport by diffusion
b)
active transport using ATP
c)
passive transport by osmosis
d)
phagocytosis
96.
During transcription the DNA base sequence is transcribed into a complimentary mRNA sequence. A codon table like the one shown below lists the amino acids coded for by particular triads of mRNA bases. A segment of DNA has undergone a mutation in which one nucleotide has been changed. The original sequence was ACG and the new sequence is ACA. Use the codon table to determine whether or not this mutation will cause a change in the phenotype of the organism
a)
yes, the phenotype of the organism would change because a new amino acid will be coded for.
b)
yes, the phenotype of the organism would change because any change in the DNA sequence will cause a change in phenotype.
c)
Even though the DNA sequence changed, the sequence still codes for the same amino acid, so no change in phenotype will occur.
d)
It is impossible to determine if a change in phenotype will occur using only the DNA sequence.
97.
Two different populations of birds live in the same area and eat the same types of food. Which most likely describes the relationship between these two populations of birds? 
a)
competition
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predator-prey
98.
What are the subunits of DNA and their function? 
a)
nucleotides that store information 
b)
monosaccharides that provide quick energy for the cell
c)
lipids that store energy and provide insulation 
d)
proteins that provide the building blocks for the structural components of organisms 
99.
The synthesis of a protein from an mRNA template is called ____________.
a)
transcription
b)
replication
c)
translation
d)
synthesis
100.
The alleles Bb are:
a)
homozygous
b)
heterozygous
c)
homozygous recessive
d)
heterozygous dominant
101.
Which best represents one fundamental difference between the processes of mitosis and meiosis?
a)
meiosis results in 4 haploid cells, mitosis results in 4 diploid cells
b)
meiosis results in 4 haploid cells, mitosis results in 2 diploid cells
c)
meiosis results in 2 diploid cells, mitosis results in 2 haploid cells
d)
meiosis results in 2 diploid cells, mitosis results in 4 haploid cells

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