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PMA 3 2020

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Marissa blows up balloons for a party. She decides how big or small to make each balloon. Why does the air she blows into each balloon take up all the space inside the balloon?

a)

The particles of air move around and slide past one another and take the shape of the balloon.

b)

The particles of air move freely, colliding with each other and the sides of the balloon.

c)

The particles of air move and increase in size when they have more space in the balloon.

d)

The particles of air have a strong attraction between each other and the balloon.

2.

Which model represents the attractive forces in a liquid?

a)

Model 3 represents a liquid because the particles are hardly affected by the attractive forces.

b)

Model 2 represents a liquid because the attractive forces keep the particles vibrating in place.

c)

Model 1 represents a liquid because the particles are locked in their positions because of the attractive forces.

d)

Model 2 represents a liquid because the attractive forces keep the particles close together but still allow movement

3.
At room temperature, aluminum is a solid and water is a liquid. How do the particles of solid aluminum compare to the particles of liquid water?
a)
The attractions between the particles are weaker in the solid aluminum.
b)
The attractions between the particles are stronger in the solid aluminum.
c)
There is no attraction between particles in the solid aluminum.
d)
The particles are moving more freely in the solid aluminum.
4.
Raul and Bonnie are trying to classify several objects that they found during a field trip to the beach. They collected a sample of seawater, a piece of driftwood, and several smooth pebbles. How are the particles that make up the driftwood different than those of the pebbles and the seawater?
a)
The particles vibrate, but stay fixed tightly together
b)
The particles do not vibrate and they stay fixed tightly together.
c)
The particles vibrate and frequently collide, but stay close together
d)
The particles vibrate and frequently collide, but move freely in all directions.
5.
Which statement below best describes the movement of particles in a gas?
a)
The particles do not move.
b)
The particles move freely.
c)
The particles vibrate in a fixed position.
d)
The particles slide easily past one another.
6.

Amanda investigated physical and chemical changes in science class and then classified her changes into two columns shown. Column A are the chemical changes and Column B are the physical changes. Which statement below best explains why the processes in Column A are chemical changes?

a)

The change has formed new substances

b)

The shape of the substance has changed.

c)

The change that occurred can be reversed easily.

d)

The characteristics of the original substance have not changed.

7.
Which process is an example of a physical change?
a)
A peanut butter sandwich is eaten and broken down by enzymes in the stomach.
b)
Sodium metal and water are combined to form a basic compound and a flammable gas.
c)
Carrots are cut into small pieces and mixed into a salad.
d)
Sodium metal and chlorine gas are combined to form sodium chloride, or table salt
8.
When paper is burned, the mass of the remaining ash is less than the mass of the original paper. Which statement best explains this result?
a)
Some of the matter is destroyed during the reaction.
b)
The volume of the ash is less than the volume of the paper.
c)
The mass of the ash cannot be accurately determined.
d)
Some of the matter changed to a gas and was released to the air.
9.

Andrea makes a sugar solution, as shown below. How much sugar did she dissolve in the water? How much sugar did she dissolve in the water?

a)

9 g

b)

11 g

c)

13 g

d)

17 g

10.

Ashley has two samples of water at different temperatures shown. She drops an Alka-seltzer tablet into each sample of water at the same time and starts a timer to measure the rate of reaction. Which statement below best describes what Ashley should expect to find from her investigation?

a)

Sample A will have a greater rate of reaction than Sample B, because the temperature in Sample A is lower.

b)

Sample B will have a greater rate of reaction than Sample A, because the temperature in Sample B is lower.

c)

Sample A will have a greater rate of reaction than Sample B, because the temperature in Sample A is greater.

d)

Sample B will have a greater rate of reaction than Sample A, because the temperature in Sample B is greater.

11.
Hannah wants to make some toast for breakfast, but she has 3 minutes before she has to leave for school. She knows toasting bread is a chemical change so what is the best way for Hannah to increase the rate of this chemical change?
a)
change the type of bread she uses.
b)
change the size of bread she uses.
c)
increase the temperature of the toaster oven.
d)
decrease the temperature of the toaster oven.
12.
Cookies and cream ice cream would be classified as
a)
A homogenous mixture
b)
A heterogenous mixture
c)
An element
d)
A compound
13.
Two elements chemically combined defines
a)
A homogeneous mixture
b)
A heterogeneous mixture
c)
An element
d)
A compound
14.
What is matter?
a)
Anything that has mass and occupies space
b)
Anything that has mass
c)
Anything that is made of air
d)
ALL of them 
15.
A pure substance CAN'T BE separated physically. 
a)
True
b)
False
16.
A mixture can be separated into its components. 
a)
True
b)
False
17.

Freshly brewed black coffee

a)

Heterogeneous

b)

Homogeneous

18.

Air

a)

Heterogeneous

b)

Homogeneous

19.

Chicken noodle soup

a)

Heterogeneous

b)

Homogeneous

20.
Type of mixture that has the SAME COMPOSITION in every part.
a)
Homogenous
b)
Heterogeneous
21.
Type of mixture that DOESN'T HAVE the same composition in every part.
a)
Homogeneous
b)
Heterogeneous
22.

What is this?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous MIxture

23.

What is this?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous Mixture

24.

What is it?

a)

Pure Substance

b)

Mixture

25.

What is it?

a)

Pure Substance

b)

Mixture

26.

Which model represents a pure substance?

a)

Model 1 is a pure substance because it represents several elements

b)

Model 2 is a pure substance because it represents a several elements

c)

Model 3 is a pure substance because it represents one type of compound

d)

Model 4 is a pure substance because it contains both elements and compounds

27.

Which model represents a pure substance?

a)

Model 1 is a pure substance because it represents several elements

b)

Model 2 is a pure substance because it represents a several elements

c)

Model 3 is a pure substance because it represents one type of compound

d)

Model 4 is a pure substance because it contains both elements and compounds

28.

The air we breathe is made of nitrogen, oxygen and other trace gases combined. What classification is the air we breathe?

a)

element

b)

heterogeneous mixture

c)

compound

d)

homogeneous mixture

29.

Orange juice (an acid) and ammonia (a base) are mixed together. What is the outcome?

a)

neutral salt

b)

neutral acid

c)

A more basic solution

d)

A more acidic solution

30.
According to the pH range which substance is more acidic than lemon juice
a)
Hydrochloric acid
b)
cabbage
c)
milk
31.
Bleach is a strong base, what is the pH level of bleach?
a)
13
b)
14
c)
1
d)
2
32.
What is the only substance with a neutral pH of 7?
a)
Milk
b)
Orange Juice
c)
Water
d)
Blood
33.
Anything that has mass & takes up space
a)
gravity
b)
force
c)
matter
d)
volume
34.
Smallest unit of an element
a)
compound
b)
atom
c)
molecule
d)
product
35.
An oreo cookie weighs 20 grams.  It gets crushed into crumbs for a recipe.  How much do its crumbs weigh?
a)
15 grams
b)
25 grams
c)
20 grams
36.
At the end of chemical reactions, what is the total mass of the reactants compared to the total mass of the products?
a)
the product is doubled
b)
the product is half the mass of the reactants
c)
the mass is the same
d)
the mass changes depending on the reaction
37.
A 55-gram egg is placed in a pot. After the egg is boiled, which is most likely the mass of the egg?
a)
50 
b)
55 
38.
The principle of conservation of mass is true for
a)
Physical Changes
b)
Chemical Changes
c)
Neither
d)
Both
39.
A 500-gram block of solid cheese is melted in a pot. Which is most likely the mass of the cheese after it is melted?
a)
500 grams, because the cheese does not gain or lose mass just because it was melted
b)
499 grams, because some of the cheese evaporates as it melts
c)
502 grams, because the cheese absorbs heat as it melts
40.

Mrs. Keen decides to do a demonstration for her class with a piece of rock. Using a balance, Mrs. Keen determines that the mass of the rock is 46 grams (g). She then takes the piece of Rock and crushes it into a fine powder and measures the mass of the powder. What would be the result of Mrs. Keen's demonstration?

a)

The mass of the powder would be LESS than the mass of the rock because of a change of state.

b)

The mass of the powder would be GREATER than the mass of the rock because of a change in shape of the matter.

c)

The mass of the powder would be LESS than the mass of the rock because of a change in particle size of matter.

d)

The mass of the powder would be the SAME as the mass of the rock because the matter changed in size but not amount.

41.

Which statement best describes the information in the table?

a)

represents chemical changes because new substances are formed

b)

represents physical changes because they cannot be reversed easily

c)

represents physical changes because the original substances have not changed

d)

represents chemical changes because the shape of the substances has changed

42.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical change?
a)
crumpled paper
b)
pencil sharpening
c)
shrunken clothing
d)
rust
43.
Fizzing, foaming, and burning are all examples of
a)
Chemical change
b)
Physical change
44.
The rate of a reaction increases as temperature__________________.
a)
Decreases
b)
Increases
c)
Stays the Same
45.
In any chemical reaction, the mass of the products is always:
a)
slightly less than the mass of the reactants
b)
much less than the mass of the reactants
c)
the same as the mass of the reactants
d)
greater than the mass of the reactants
46.
Matter can not be created nor destroyed: it can only be
a)
Destroyed a little bit
b)
Invisible
c)
Transformed, changed
d)
None of the above
47.
What is the Law of Conservation of mass?
a)
Mass is created in a chemical reaction
b)
Mass is created in a physical change
c)
New chemicals formed from a chemical reaction have a larger overall mass than the original reactants
d)
Mass is never created or destroyed
48.

When plants use their roots to get water from the ground, which 2 spheres are interacting? (choose 2)

a)

Geosphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Biosphere

49.

When a river deposits sediment, which 2 spheres are interacting? (choose 2)

a)

Geosphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Biosphere

50.

When ocean water evaporates into the air, which 2 spheres are interacting? (choose 2)

a)

Geosphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Biosphere

51.

What is the biosphere?

a)

all the air and gases on the planet

b)

made up of living things

c)

the non-living soil, rocks, and minerals of the Earth

d)

the rivers, lakes, and oceans of the Earth

52.

What is the geosphere?

a)

all the air and gases on the planet

b)

all the frozen water on the Earth

c)

the non-living soil, rocks, and minerals of the Earth

d)

the rivers, lakes, and oceans of the Earth

53.

What is the hydrosphere?

a)

all the air and gases on the planet

b)

made up of living things

c)

the non-living soil, rocks, and minerals of the Earth

d)

the rivers, lakes, and oceans of the Earth

54.

What is the atmosphere?

a)

all the air and gases on the planet

b)

made up of living things

c)

the non-living soil, rocks, and minerals of the Earth

d)

the rivers, lakes, and oceans of the Earth

55.

When an animal or human breathes air, the interaction is between the __________ and the _____________.

a)

atmosphere and hydrosphere

b)

biosphere and geosphere

c)

hydrosphere and biosphere

d)

atmosphere and biosphere

56.

Choose the picture that best represents the "geosphere".

a)
b)
c)
d)
57.

Choose the picture that best represents the "biosphere".

a)
b)
c)
d)
58.

what is a cryosphere

a)

parts of earth with animals

b)

hot parts of earth

c)

a portion of earth with solid water

59.

Select the image that best shows the cryosphere and the biosphere interacting.

a)
b)
c)
d)
60.

The kinds of data that reflect climate are different from the conditions described in weather data. Which of the following is a description of climate?

a)

Today it is hot and sunny in Phoenix, Arizona.

b)

Summers are usually mild in Lansing, Michigan.

c)

Last week it rained every day in San Antonio, Texas.

d)

Yesterday was cold and windy in Anchorage, Alaska.

61.

If a person is describing the daily changes in temperature and precipitation, they are referring to an area's —

a)

Geology

b)

Climate

c)

Geography

d)

Weather

62.

Weather data is different than climate data. Which of the following is an example of weather data?

a)

The average high temperature in May is 21°C in the Midwest of the United States

b)

Central Australia usually receives less than 110 mm of rainfall all year

c)

The relative humidity was 24% at noon on July 23 in Tempe, Arizona

d)

On average, there is 88mm of rain in the Gulf Coast region in July

63.

What could the title of this table be?

a)

Climate Report for Old Dime Box, TX

b)

Average Temperatures for Old Dime Box, TX

c)

Weather Report for Old Dime Box, TX

d)

Precipitation Report for Old Dime Box, TX

64.

What question could students answer after reading this map?

a)

What is the temperature in Alaska?

b)

What is the climate for the majority of the U.S.?

c)

What is the difference in population of the Northern hemisphere compared to the Southern hemisphere?

d)

Which city has the most rainfall for the month of September?

65.

What is energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

stored energy

c)

renewable energy

d)

The ability to do work.

66.

What is potential energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

stored energy

c)

renewable energy

d)

non renewable energy

67.

What is kinetic energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

potential energy

c)

stored energy

d)

renewable energy

68.

What is NOT a renewable energy source?

a)

coal

b)

wind

c)

solar

d)

water

69.

What is given off from energy?

a)

water

b)

heat

c)

smoke

d)

ash

70.
The heat from a lamp allows a lizard to remain warm. This is an example of which type of heat transfer?
a)
radiation
b)
conduction
c)
convection
d)
insulation
71.
What is the definition of CONDUCTION?
a)
When heat is transferred from objects like rays of light or electromagnetically.
b)
a  hot liquid or air that  expands, becomes less dense, and rises or becomes more dense, and sinks.
c)
When heat transfers from objects that are touching.
d)
When heat transfers through the heater or AC in your house.
72.

What is the definition of CONVECTION

a)

When heat transfers through waves.

b)

When heat transfers from objects that are touching.

c)

warm fluid rises; cool fluid sinks

d)

Heat traveling from the sun

73.
Warm air is __________ dense than cold air and rises creating convection currents.
a)
more
b)
less
74.
A jacket is a good example of an . . .
a)
Insulator
b)
Investigator
c)
Insider
d)
Interrogator
75.
Which is a TRUE statement comparing the density of gases and liquids?  
a)
Gases have higher density than liquids because the atoms are further apart
b)
Gases have lower density than liquids because the atoms are closer together
c)
 Gases have lower density than liquids because the atoms are further apart 
d)
Gases have higher density than liquids because the atoms are closer together
76.
Thermal energy always moves from ___________ to __________.
a)
Hot to Hot
b)
Cold to hot
c)
Warmer to cooler
d)
Cooler to warmer
77.
The transfer of thermal energy between objects of different temperatures is called...
a)
temperature
b)
heat 
c)
none of these
78.
The faster molecules move, 
a)
the higher the temperature
b)
the less temperature
c)
the same temperature
d)
I don't know
79.

Which statement reflects a way in which asexual reproduction is beneficial? Select all that apply.

a)

It results in genetic variation.

b)

It requires a lot of time and energy.

c)

Organisms can reproduce without a mate.

d)

It is a much quicker process.

80.

Where does an offspring get its DNA in asexual reproduction?

a)

from both parents

b)

from only one parent

c)

from neither parent

81.

Sexual reproduction requires ______ parent(s) and asexual reproduction requires ______ parent(s).

a)

one, one

b)

two, two

c)

two, one

d)

one, two

82.

How much genetic material is provided by the parents in sexual reproduction?

a)

0% from each

b)

25% from each

c)

50% from each

d)

100% from each

83.

What do you call the cell that forms from fertilization?

a)

fertilized egg

b)

sperm cell

c)

zygote

d)

egg cell

84.
What is a characteristic of sexual reproduction?
a)
diverse offspring
b)
identical offspring
c)
faster than asexual reproduction
d)
requires no energy
85.
Which is the best definition of DNA?
a)
a spiral ladder
b)
something in your cells
c)
the recipe for making an organism
86.
DNA is inside your cells. What part of the cell is the DNA inside of?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleus
87.
What is a gene?
a)
A bundle (like a hot dog bun) that the DNA is packed into
b)
something inside the nucleus
c)
a piece of DNA
d)
all of your DNA
88.
What term best describes the grasshopper?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Predator-prey
c)
Competition
d)
Producer
89.
Barnacles sometimes live on the outside surface of other larger shelled organisms without causing any harm. What is the ecological relationship?
a)
Mutualism
b)
Parasitism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Predator-Prey
90.
Cows and pronghorn both eat the same types of food in areas of Utah. What is the ecological relationship?
a)
Cooperation
b)
Parasitism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Competition
91.
Ants protect soft bodied aphids and in return the aphids feed the ants a sugary drink. What is the ecological relationship?
a)
Cooperation
b)
Parasitism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Mutualism
92.
What term best describes the vole, the small rodent, in this image?
a)
Prey
b)
Predator
c)
Producer
d)
Competition
93.
Chickens will eat both insects and seeds. Which term best describes this feeding pattern?
a)
Omnivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Herbivore
d)
Producer
94.

Which organelle is responsible making food (Glucose) using sunlight?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Mitochondria

95.

Select all that are raw materials for Photosynthesis.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight (Light Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

96.

Select all that are products of Photosynthesis.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight (Light Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

97.

How does most of the water needed by the plant get into its leaves?

a)

It enters through the stomata

b)

The roots absorb it and then it travels up the stem

c)

It's made during a chemical reaction in the leaf

d)

The flowers capture water and deliver it to the leaves

98.
Why do plants conduct photosynthesis?
a)
To make light
b)
To make mitochondria
c)
To make glucose
d)
To release carbon dioxide
99.
Which choice correctly shows the gases that enter and exit plants during photosynthesis?
a)
Enter: Oxygen
Exit: Carbon dioxide
b)
Enter: Water vapor
Exit: Glucose
c)
Enter: Carbon dioxide
Exit: Oxygen
d)
Enter: Light
Exit: Water vapor
100.

Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?

a)

light + carbon dioxide + water --> glucose + oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide + sugar + water --> oxygen + light

c)

oxygen + light + water --> carbon dioxide + sugar

d)

carbon dioxide + oxygen + water --> Light+ Sugar

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