Free Printable 2021 Biology Final Study Guide

Free Printable Worksheets

Worksheets

2021 Biology Final Study Guide

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name

Class

Date

1.

What is the main idea of Prophase 1?

a)

Spindle fibers form and chromosomes condense

b)

The nuclear envelope forms around chromatin

c)

Spindle fibers form and chromosomes condense and form tetrads

2.

What is the main idea of Metaphase 1?

a)

Spindle fibers attach to the centromere of tetrads

b)

The nuclear envelope forms around chromatin

c)

Spindle fibers form and chromosomes condense and form tetrads

3.

What is the difference between the results of Mitosis and Meiosis?

a)

Mitosis produces two diploid cells; Meiosis produces two diploid cells

b)

Mitosis produces two haploid cells; Meiosis produces two haploid cells

c)

Mitosis produces two diploid cells; Meiosis produces two haploid cells

d)

Mitosis produces two haploid cells; Meiosis produces two diploid cells

4.

Which definition best describes G1 phase?

a)

A period of activity in which cells do most of their growing

b)

A period in which DNA is synthesized

c)

A period in which the cell is ready to enter cell division

d)

The order of sequence of events from when the cell is first formed to its own division into two cells

e)

Two halves of a chromosome

5.

Which definition best describes S phase?

a)

A period of activity in which cells do most of their growing

b)

A period in which DNA is synthesized

c)

A period in which the cell is ready to enter cell division

d)

The order of sequence of events from when the cell is first formed to its own division into two cells

e)

Two halves of a chromosome

6.

Which definition best describes G2 phase?

a)

A period of activity in which cells do most of their growing

b)

A period in which DNA is synthesized

c)

A period in which the cell is ready to enter cell division

d)

The order of sequence of events from when the cell is first formed to its own division into two cells

e)

Two halves of a chromosome

7.

Which definition best describes the Cell Cycle?

a)

A period of activity in which cells do most of their growing

b)

A period in which DNA is synthesized

c)

A period in which the cell is ready to enter cell division

d)

The order of sequence of events from when the cell is first formed to its own division into two cells

e)

Two halves of a chromosome

8.

Which definition best describes Sister Chromatids?

a)

A period of activity in which cells do most of their growing

b)

A period in which DNA is synthesized

c)

A period in which the cell is ready to enter cell division

d)

The order of sequence of events from when the cell is first formed to its own division into two cells

e)

Two halves of a chromosome

9.

After cytokinesis, how many daughter cells are produced?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

10.

Identify the cell as either from Mitosis or Meiosis; Identify the phase shown.

a)

Mitosis; Metaphase

b)

Mitosis; Telophase

c)

Meiosis; Metaphase I

d)

Meiosis; Meiosis 2 a.k.a Cytokinesis

e)

Meiosis; Telophase I

11.

Which two division phases happen in M (mitotic) phase?

a)

Mitosis and Cytokinesis

b)

Interphase and Mitosis

c)

Interphase and Cytokinesis

d)

Just Mitosis

12.

Identify the cell as either from Mitosis or Meiosis; Identify the phase shown.

a)

Mitosis; Anaphase

b)

Mitosis; Telophase

c)

Meiosis; Anaphase I

d)

Meiosis; Meiosis 2 a.k.a Cytokinesis

e)

Meiosis; Telophase I

13.

What are the three phases of Interphase (in correct order)?

a)

G1, G2, S

b)

G1, S, G2

c)

S, G1, G2

14.

Identify the phase of cell B.

a)

Telophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

e)

Anaphase

15.

Identify the phase of cell E.

a)

Telophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

e)

Anaphase

16.

Nuclear envelope disappears, chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and spindle fibers begin to form.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Interphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Anaphase

17.

Sister chromatids are pulled apart towards opposite poles of the cell

a)

Anaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

e)

Cytokinesis

18.

Nuclear envelope disappears, chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and spindle fibers begin to form.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Interphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Anaphase

19.

Chromosomes align in the middle of the cell, spindle fibers attach to the centromere of the chromosomes

a)

Telophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

e)

Cytokinesis

20.

Identify the phase of cell C.

a)

Telophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

e)

Anaphase

21.

Identify the phase of cell A.

a)

Telophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

e)

Anaphase

22.

What are the two broad phases of the cell cycle?

a)

Interphase and M Phase

b)

M Phase and Cytokinesis

c)

Interphase and Cytokinesis

d)

G1 and G2

23.

Describe asexual reproduction.

a)

Egg and sperm are fertilized

b)

There is no fertilization of egg and sperm

24.

Describe sexual reproduction.

a)

There is no fertilization of egg and sperm

b)

Egg and sperm are fertilized

25.

What is the product of asexual reproduction?

a)

An identical offspring

b)

A unique offspring

26.

Select the correct corresponding mRNA code that would compliment the following Template Strand/Anti-Sense Strand code: A T C G C

a)

U A G C G

b)

A T C G C

c)

T A G C G

27.

What are stop codons?

a)

Tells the ribosome when to stop making a particular sequence

b)

Tells the ribosome to start making a particular sequence

c)

Tells the ribosome then codon code for the same amino acids

28.

What part of the tRNA complements the codon in the mRNA?

a)

Anti-codon

b)

Stop-codon

c)

Ribosome

29.

Identify the three phases of Translation (in correct order).

a)

Initiation, Elongation, Termination

b)

Termination, Initiation, Elongation

c)

Elongation, Termination, Initiation

30.

Which definition best describes the term Gene?

a)

A small section of DNA

b)

A double-strand of DNA that contains small segments such as genes

31.

Which definition best describes the term Chromosome?

a)

A small section of DNA

b)

A double-strand of DNA that contains small segments such as genes

32.

The ___ end of the nucleotide is always added to the ___ end of an existing stand.

a)

5' ; 3'

b)

3' ; 5'

33.

What proteins help direct the RNA Polymerase to the right location?

a)

Transcription factors

b)

Sense strand

c)

DNA polymerase

34.

Which strand is the messenger RNA (mRNA) nearly identical to?

a)

Template strand

b)

Sense strand

c)

RNA polymerase

35.

Which strand is the messenger RNA (mRNA) complementary to?

a)

Template strand

b)

Sense strand

c)

RNA polymerase

36.

What bases are found in RNA?

a)

Uracil

b)

Adenine

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

e)

Thymine

37.

What is the main idea of Translation?

a)

The transfer of genetic info from RNA to protein (polypeptide)

b)

DNA is made into RNA

c)

An RNA strand is completed and RNA polymerase detaches to DNA

d)

RNA polymerase binds to the DNA strand and opens it up so RNA can start duplicating the code

38.

What are the three main components (in order) to Translation?

a)

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

b)

rRNA, mRNA, tRNA

c)

tRNA, mRNA, rRNA

d)

mRNA, rRNA, tRNA

39.

Which of the following is not a step in Transcription?

a)

tRNA

b)

Initiation

c)

Elongation

d)

Termination

40.

What are the two broad phases (in order) in the process of DNA being made into protein?

a)

Transcription; Translation

b)

Translation; Transcription

c)

DNA; RNA

d)

Initiation; Translation

41.

What is the name of the enzyme involved in Transcription?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Nuclease

d)

Polypeptide

42.

Two species of frogs are introduced to the same pond. Over time, only one species survives. According to Darwin's theory of evolution, what should characterize the surviving species?

a)

A better ability to survive and reproduce at the pond

b)

More abundant food supply

c)

Greater genetic variation

d)

A better ability to withstand seasonal changes at the pond

43.

Which of the following would an animal breeder use to increase the number of horses that run faster?

a)

Artificial selection

b)

Natural selection

c)

Genetic isolation

d)

Adaption

44.

Critical Thinking: A pond has several varieties of species of frog that all eat the same kind of bug. Most of the frogs are fast-growing varieties that need to eat more bugs each day than the slow-growing variety. A drought drastically reduces the number of bugs, and the population of the fast-growing frogs declines drastically while the population of the slow-growing frogs declines only slightly. Now most of the frogs in the pond are the slow-growing variety. This is an example of which of the following?

a)

Mutation

b)

Natural selection

c)

Biogeography

d)

Artificial selection

e)

Acquired characteristics

45.

Tail bones are an example of which of the following?

a)

Analogous structures

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Homologous structures

46.

The following highlighted forelimbs are an example of which of the following?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Analogous structures

c)

Vestigial structures

47.

Darwin's theory of evolution offers a scientific explanation for which of the following?

a)

How genetic information is inherited

b)

Changes in species over time

c)

Human effects on biodiversity

d)

The age of Earth

48.

Which of the following evidences of evolution explains "patterns in the distribution of fossils and living species, combined with geology, tell how modern organisms evolved from their ancestors"?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Biogeography

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Genetics & Molecular Biology

e)

Fossil Records

49.

Which of the following evidences of evolution explains "many recently discovered fossils now show how modern species evolved from extinct ancestors"?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Biogeography

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Genetics & Molecular Biology

e)

Fossil Records

50.

Which of the following evidences of evolution explains "similar structures that are shared by related species and have been inherited from a common ancestor"?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Biogeography

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Genetics & Molecular Biology

e)

Fossil Records

51.

Which of the following evidences of evolution explains "features inherited from ancestors, but have lost most of their original size and function through evolution"?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Biogeography

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Genetics & Molecular Biology

e)

Fossil Records

52.

Which of the following evidences of evolution explains the "study of structures that appear during development"?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Biogeography

c)

Embryonic Development

d)

Genetics & Molecular Biology

e)

Fossil Records

53.

Which of the following evidences of evolution explains "similarities in the genetic code for all organisms, along with homologous genes/molecules, provide evidence for common descent"?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Biogeography

c)

Embryonic Development

d)

Genetics & Molecular Biology

e)

Fossil Records

54.

Describe Darwin's factor of "struggle for existence".

a)

Species able to adapt, survive

b)

Fitness varies among individuals - the higher an organism's fitness, the more likely to survive in its environment

c)

Only the most fit species, survive

55.

Describe Darwin's factor of "variation and adaptation".

a)

Species able to adapt, survive

b)

Fitness varies among individuals - the higher an organism's fitness, the more likely to survive in its environment

c)

Only the most fit species, survive

56.

Describe Darwin's factor of "differential reproductive success".

a)

Species able to adapt, survive

b)

Fitness varies among individuals - the higher an organism's fitness, the more likely to survive in its environment

c)

Only the most fit species, survive

57.

Select the three required factors for natural selection.

a)

Variation and adaptation

b)

Homologous and vestigial structures

c)

Struggle for existence

d)

Differential reproductive success

58.

How is natural selection different from artificial selection?

a)

Natural selection: the environment selects for traits. Artificial selection: humans select for traits

b)

Artificial selection: the environment selects for traits. Natural selection: humans select for traits

c)

They are both the same process

59.

Critical Thinking: Which of the following would an animal breeder use to increase the number of cows that give the most milk?

a)

Overproduction

b)

Natural selection

c)

Genetic isolation

d)

Artificial selection

60.

In addition to observing living organisms, Darwin studied the preserved remains of ancient organisms called

a)

fossils

b)

adaptations

c)

homologies

d)

vestigial structures

61.

What is the name of Charles Darwin's published text?

a)

The Origin of Natural Selection

b)

On the Origin of Species

c)

Evolution by Natural Selection

62.

This scientist inspired Darwin by concluding that, "individuals could pass acquired traits on to their offspring, enabling species to change over time"?

a)

James Hutton & Charles Lyell

b)

Thomas Malthus

c)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

63.

This scientist inspired Darwin by concluding that, "if the human population grew unchecked, there wouldn't be enough living space and food for everyone"?

a)

Thomas Malthus

b)

Jean-Baptiste Lamack

c)

James Hutton & Charles Lyell

64.

This scientist inspired Darwin by concluding that, "the processes that changed Earth in the past are the same processes that operate in the present"?

a)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

b)

James Hutton & Charles Lyell

c)

Thomas Malthus

65.

Which two animals were compared to each other by Darwin on a local scale?

a)

Rhea

b)

Hood Island Tortoise

c)

Ostrich

d)

Isabela Island Tortoise

66.

Which two animals were compared to each other by Darwin on a global scale? Select all that apply.

a)

Isabela Island Tortoise

b)

Ostrich

c)

Rhea

d)

Hood Island Tortoise

67.

Define: evolution

a)

Selective breeding of plants and animals to promote the occurrence of desirable traits in offspring

b)

The process by which modern organisms have descended from ancient organisms

c)

Preserved remains or traces of ancient organisms

68.

Define: artificial selection

a)

The process by which modern organisms have descended from ancient organisms

b)

The process by which organisms in nature with variations most suited to their local environment survive, and therefore, leave more offspring

c)

Selective breeding of plants and animals to promote the occurrence of desirable traits in offspring

69.

Define: natural selection

a)

The process by which organisms in nature with variations most suited to their local environment survive, and therefore, leave more offspring

b)

Selective breeding of plants and animals to promote the occurrence of desirable traits in offspring

c)

The study of where organisms live now and where they and their ancestors lived in the past

70.

Which of the following definitions best describes the term Directional selection?

a)

When individuals at one end of the curve have higher fitness than individuals elsewhere in the curve

b)

If individuals near the center of the curve have fitter fitness than individuals at their ends

c)

When phenotypes at both upper and lower ends of the curve have higher fitness than individuals near the middle

71.

Which of the following definitions best describes the term Stabilizing selection?

a)

When individuals at one end of the curve have higher fitness than individuals elsewhere in the curve

b)

If individuals near the center of the curve have fitter fitness than individuals at their ends

c)

When phenotypes at both upper and lower ends of the curve have higher fitness than individuals near the middle

72.

Which of the following definitions best describes the term Disruptive selection?

a)

When individuals at one end of the curve have higher fitness than individuals elsewhere in the curve

b)

If individuals near the center of the curve have fitter fitness than individuals at their ends

c)

When phenotypes at both upper and lower ends of the curve have higher fitness than individuals near the middle

73.

Which term best matches the definition below:

"A change in allele frequency following a dramatic reduction in the size of the population"

a)

The Bottleneck Effect

b)

The Founder Effect

74.

Which term best matches the definition below:

"Allele frequencies change as a result of the migration of a small subgroup of a population"

a)

The Bottleneck Effect

b)

The Founder Effect

75.

Which of the following are conditions that can distribute equilibrium and cause evolution according to the Hardy-Weinberg formula?

a)

Nonrandom mating

b)

Small population size

c)

Immigration or emigration

d)

Mutations

e)

Natural stabilization

76.

According to the picture of the Hardy-Weinberg equation,

What does p stand for?

a)

Frequency of one allele

b)

Frequency of alternate allele

c)

Frequency of homozygotes for one allele

d)

Frequency of heterozygotes

e)

Frequency of homozygotes for alternate allele

77.

According to the picture of the Hardy-Weinberg equation,

What does q stand for?

a)

Frequency of one allele

b)

Frequency of alternate allele

c)

Frequency of homozygotes for one allele

d)

Frequency of heterozygotes

e)

Frequency of homozygotes for alternate allele

78.

According to the picture of the Hardy-Weinberg equation,

What does p² stand for?

a)

Frequency of one allele

b)

Frequency of alternate allele

c)

Frequency of homozygotes for one allele

d)

Frequency of heterozygotes

e)

Frequency of homozygotes for alternate allele

79.

According to the picture of the Hardy-Weinberg equation,

What does 2pq stand for?

a)

Frequency of one allele

b)

Frequency of alternate allele

c)

Frequency of homozygotes for one allele

d)

Frequency of heterozygotes

e)

Frequency of homozygotes for alternate allele

80.

According to the picture of the Hardy-Weinberg equation,

What does q² stand for?

a)

Frequency of one allele

b)

Frequency of alternate allele

c)

Frequency of homozygotes for one allele

d)

Frequency of heterozygotes

e)

Frequency of homozygotes for alternate allele

81.

Which definition below best matches the term Behavioral Isolation?

a)

Courtship rituals & behavior

b)

Two populations separated by geographic barrier

c)

Two or more species reproduce at different times/seasons of the year

82.

Which definition below best matches the term Geographic Isolation?

a)

Courtship rituals & behavior

b)

Two populations separated by geographic barrier

c)

Two or more species reproduce at different times/seasons of the year

83.

Which definition below best matches the term Temporal Isolation?

a)

Courtship rituals & behavior

b)

Two populations separated by geographic barrier

c)

Two or more species reproduce at different times/seasons of the year

84.

Which term best matches the definition:

"Occurs after geographic isolation"

a)

Allopatric Speciation

b)

Sympatric Speciation

85.

Which term best matches the definition:

"Occurs without geographic isolation"

a)

Allopatric Speciation

b)

Sympatric Speciation

86.

Which of the following are the major groups of mammals?

a)

Cartilaginous

b)

Monotremes

c)

Marsupials

d)

Eutherians

87.

Mammals have two (2) unique characteristics:

a)

Mammary glands

b)

Hair

c)

Tetrapod

d)

Pouches

e)

Amniotic eggs

88.

Two groups of chordates, _______ and _______, are invertebrates.

a)

tunicates; lancelets

b)

lamprey; hagfish

c)

cartilaginous; bony

89.

Chordates share four (4) key features that appear in the embryo and sometimes the adult:

a)

a dorsal, hollow nerve cord

b)

pharyngeal slits

c)

post-anal tail

d)

four feet

e)

a notochord

90.

Terrestrial vertebrates (such as amphibians) are collectively called tetrapods, which means...

a)

four feet

b)

three feet

c)

two feet

91.

______ were the first vertebrates to colonize on land and descended from ______.

a)

Amphibians; Fish

b)

Reptiles; Amphibians

c)

Mammals; Fish

d)

Fish; Mammals

92.

Cartilaginous and bony fishes have a _________ that detects minor vibrations in the water.

a)

lateral line system

b)

operculum

c)

swim bladder

93.

The two major groups of living fishes are the:

a)

cartilaginous fishes (sharks and rays)

b)

bony fishes

c)

lamprey

d)

hagfish

94.

Birds have many adaptations that enhance flight: (select the 3 adaptions listed in your notes)

a)

honeycomb bones

b)

dense bones

c)

only one ovary instead of a pair

d)

teeth

e)

lack of teeth

95.

Reptiles (including birds) and mammals are _______, which produce ________.

a)

amniotes; amniotic eggs

b)

Squamata; amniotic eggs

c)

tuataras; Squamata

96.

Reptiles are sometimes referred to as "__________" animals because they do not use their metabolism extensively to control body temperature.

a)

cold-blooded

b)

warm-blooded

97.

Vertebrates have unique endoskeletons composed of:

a)

skull

b)

limbs

c)

backbone aka spine

d)

skin

98.

Which of the following Primates are considered our closest kin?

a)

Homo sapiens

b)

Homo erectus

c)

Homo habilis

99.

Which of these Anthropoids are also considered Apes?

a)

Old World monkeys

b)

Orangutans

c)

Gorillas

d)

Chimpanzees

e)

Humans

100.

What is the main function of the endocrine system?

a)

For growth and development of the body

b)

It is a protective barrier against infection and disease

c)

To send and receive electrical messages

d)

To create movement

101.

Which body system's is used for communicating and directing the body with electrical signals?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Nervous

c)

Circulatory

d)

Cardiovascular

102.

Which system carries nutrients, water, and oxygen to body cells?

a)

muscular

b)

circulatory

c)

skeletal

d)

respiratory

103.

Which best compares the respiratory system to the circulatory system?

a)

The respiratory system transports oxygen to cells, while the circulatory system provides oxygen for cells.

b)

The respiratory system provides oxygen for cells, while the circulatory system transports oxygen to cells.

c)

The respiratory system breaks down food for cell energy, while the circulatory system rids the body of waste.

d)

The respiratory system rids the body of waste, while the circulatory system breaks down food for cell energy.

104.

Which two human body systems are most responsible for getting oxygen to cells?

a)

digestive and skeletal

b)

skeletal and circulatory

c)

circulatory and respiratory

d)

respiratory and digestive

105.

What are the basic building blocks of an organism?

a)

energy

b)

cell

c)

organelle

d)

tissue

106.

Which organ system contains the pituitary and thyroid glands?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Excretory

c)

Digestive

d)

Endocrine

107.

What system is pictured here?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Circulatory

c)

Digestive

d)

Integumentary

108.

What is the order of organization in the body from smallest to largest?

a)

Cell, tissue, organ system, organ, organism

b)

Cell, organ, organ system, tissue, organism

c)

Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

d)

Organism, organ system, organ, tissue, cell

109.

Which is the smallest?

a)

vein

b)

capillary

c)

artery

d)

aorta

110.

What is the main job of the digestive system?

a)

break down foods into nutrients that can be used by the body

b)

take in oxygen and exhale waste like carbon dioxide

c)

pump blood throughout the body

d)

makes the body hungry

111.

What system is pictured?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Circulatory

c)

Nervous

d)

Muscular

112.

What is the main organ of the circulatory system?

a)

small intestine

b)

bone

c)

lungs

d)

heart

113.

How many types of blood vessels are in our body?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

114.

Arteries carry oxygen rich blood away from the heart.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

The stable internal conditions of a living organism is called...

a)

...homeostasis.

b)

...cartilage.

c)

...atrophy.

d)

...ossification.

116.

The digestion process begins in which of the following?

a)

large intestine

b)

mouth

c)

small intestine

d)

stomach

117.

What do the veins do?

a)

carry de-oxygenated blood to your heart

b)

carry blood to your brain

c)

carry oxygenated blood away from your heart

d)

clot blood

118.

Organs that work together form

a)

connective tissues.

b)

tissue systems.

c)

organ systems.

d)

All Answers

100 %

Similar Resources on Wayground

114 questions

Covalent Bonds Review

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

113 questions

Chapter 3 Review--Chemistry I

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

120 questions

States of Matter and Phase Change

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

116 questions

Review for Final 20-21

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

115 questions

Quarter 3 Review

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

115 questions

biogeochemical cycle review

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

122 questions

Foundations of A&P Ch 1 Test

Worksheet

•

11th - 12th Grade

123 questions

Geosphere Study Deck

Worksheet

•

9th Grade