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Quarter 3 Review

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 3hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous Mixture

2.
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture of elements
d)
mixture of compounds
3.
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture of elements and compounds
d)
mixture of compounds
4.
Classify the picture with the correct label.
a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Mixture of Compounds
d)
Mixture of Elements
5.
Classify the picture with the correct label.
a)
Mixture of Compounds
b)
Mixture of Elements
c)
Compound
d)
Mixture of Elements & Compounds
6.

Which particle diagram represents one substance in the gas phase?

a)

b)

c)

d)

7.

Diamond and Graphite have different properties because diamond has

a)

carbons joined by fewer covalent bonds

b)

carbon atoms with more dense nuclei than graphite

c)

carbon atoms with more protons than carbon atoms in graphite

d)

molecules with a different structure than graphite

8.
How many significant figures does the following number have?
0.00345
a)
6
b)
5
c)
3
d)
Ambiguous: 3,4,5, or 6
9.
How many significant figures does the following number have: 100.00210
a)
7
b)
8
c)
10
d)
Ambiguous: 7 or 8
10.
Solve and give your answer with the correct number of significant figures
24.28 + 12.5
a)
3.687 x 101
b)
36.8
c)
37
d)
3.70x101
11.
Solve and give your answer with the correct number of significant figures
(12.470)(271)
a)

3400

b)

3379.37

c)

3379

d)

3380

12.

Which letter indicates where water is in both the solid and liquid phase at the same time?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

13.

The melting point of the sample is

a)

-60 ºC

b)

20 ºC

c)

60 ºC

d)

100 ºC

14.

A measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in an object is called

a)

Heat

b)

Temperature

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Enthalpy

15.

If the specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g∙°C, how much heat is required to increase the temperature of 1,200 g of water from 23 °C to 39 °C?

a)

-80,256 J

b)

80.256 J

c)

80,256 J

d)

-80.256 J

16.

How much heat is needed to change 12 grams of ice at 0 ºC to 12 grams of water at 0ºC?

a)

Q = 12 x 4.18 x 0

b)

Q = 12 x 334

c)

Q = 12000 x 334

17.
Subatomic particles with a positive charge
a)
neutrons
b)
atomic mass
c)
protons
d)
isotopes
18.
Value representing the number of protons in an element
a)
Atomic Mass
b)
Mass Number
c)
Valence Electrons
d)
Atomic Number
19.
Subatomic particles that are neutral in charge
a)
Neutrons
b)
Protons
c)
Nucleus 
d)
Electrons
20.

Subatomic particles with a negative charge

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Quarks

21.

What is the atomic mass of Neon?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

22.

How many neutrons does calcium have?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

60

d)

0

23.

What is the net charge of an ion which has 11 protons, 10 electrons and 12 neutrons

a)

-1

b)

0

c)

+1

d)

+2

24.

What is the state when electrons move to a higher energy level upon absorption of energy?

a)

active state

b)

inactive state

c)

excited state

d)

ground state

25.

What form of energy is emitted when an excited electron returns to the ground state?

a)

Photon (light)

b)

Heat

c)

Kinetic

d)

Potential

26.
Line emission spectrum shown below happens when
a)
Electron transition from lower to higher energy level.
b)
Electron transition from higher to lower energy level.
c)
Electron exist in fixed energy states
d)
Electron transition between different energy levels.
27.

What is the missing product (?)

a)

a neutron

b)

an alpha particle

c)

a beta particle

d)

a positron

28.

Which element has a higher electronegativity value?

a)

Niobium

b)

Tin

c)

Cadmium

d)

Iodine

29.

Electronegativity (a)   as you go down a group.

30.
As you move down a group, atomic radius increases because - 
a)
you add more and more neutrons
b)
you add more and more protons
c)
you add more and more shells (energy levels)
d)
you add more atomic mass
31.
Francium (Fr) has the lowest ionization energy in Group 1 because - 
a)
it has the smallest number of valence electrons
b)
it has the greatest atomic mass
c)
it has the greatest number of protons, so it attracts its electrons the strongest
d)
its 1 valence electron is very far from the nucleus, so little energy is needed to remove it
32.
In covalent bonds, electrons are ___________.
a)
transferred
b)
gained
c)
lost
d)
shared
33.

What is the number of electrons shared between the atoms in a molecule of N2?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

4

d)

2

34.

In metallic bonds electrons are:

a)

shared

b)

move around the nuclei randomly

c)

transferred

35.

What could be a charge on aluminum?

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

3+

d)

4+

36.

H-H is...

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

37.

MgO is...

a)

ionic

b)

metallic

c)

covalent

38.

CO2 is...

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

39.

Water is...

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

40.

NH3 is...

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

41.
N2 +  3H2 → 2NH3 
How many moles of hydrogen are needed to react with 2 moles of nitrogen?
a)
6
b)
2
c)
3
d)
1
42.
2H2   +   O2  →  2H2O
How many moles of water can be produced if 8 moles H2 are used?
a)
4 moles
b)
8 moles
c)
16 moles
d)
2 moles
43.

48.86 g of cobalt is equal to how many moles of cobalt?

a)

2879 moles

b)

8.291 moles

c)

.8291 moles

d)

.829 moles

44.

How many moles of sodium chloride are in a 321.8 g sample?

a)

18810 moles

b)

3.315 x 1024 moles

c)

5.507 moles

d)

4.767 moles

45.
What coefficient should be used to make the following equation balanced?
N2+O2--> _NO 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
46.
How many HCl molecules do you need to balance this equation? 
Mg +  __HCl --->  MgCl2 + H2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
47.

Balance this equation

_Al +_HCl --> _H2 +_AlCl3

a)

2,6,3,2

b)

it's already balanced

c)

4,12,3,4

d)

2,1,4,5

48.

The energy of movement is ___.

a)

potential energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

mechanical energy

49.

The more energy that particles have, the ___ they move.

a)

slower

b)

faster

50.

The force of attraction between molecules is ___.

a)

intermolecular forces

b)

bridge forces

c)

chemical bonds

51.

Which one of these is NOT an Ideal Gas Assumption?

a)

Gas particles are hard, round spheres.

b)

Gas particles are strongly attracted to one another.

c)

Gas particles do not take up space.

d)

Gas particles collide perfectly elastically.

52.
a)
Gases do not move in straight line
b)
Most of the volume of gas is empty space
c)
Gas particles are not in constant random motion
d)
Gas particles attract each other
53.

Ideal gas particles _____. CLICK ALL CORRECT ANSWERS.

a)

move randomly

b)

have no kinetic energy

c)

repel each other

d)

have no mass or volume

e)

have mass and volume

54.

Which statement describes a Real gas?

a)

no attractive forces between particles

b)

particles have volume

c)

volume of particles is not significant

55.

At STP, which gas sample has the same number of molecules as 7.0 L of CO2 (g) at STP?

a)

7.0 M of NH3 (g)

b)

7.0 g of NH3 (g)

c)

7.0 mol of NH3 (g)

d)

7.0 L of NH3 (g)

56.

A student measures the pressure and volume of an empty water bottle to be 1.4 atm and 2.3 L. She then decreases the pressure to 0.65 atm. What is the new volume?

a)

2.1 L

b)

5.0 L

c)

8.2 L

d)

3.9 L

57.

A student inflates a balloon with helium then places it in the freezer. The student should expect

a)

the balloon's volume to increase

b)

the balloon's volume to decrease

c)

the balloon's moles to increase

d)

the balloon's moles to decrease

58.

If a hairspray can is heated, what can be expected of the pressure of the gas inside the can?

a)

The pressure will increase

b)

The pressure will decrease

c)

The pressure will remain constant

d)

The pressure will equalize

59.
Which of the following would increase the (gas) pressure of a system?
a)
Increase the Temperature
b)
Pump in more gas
c)
Decrease the volume
d)
All of these
60.
In order to convert to Kelvin, you add ______ to the Celsius measurement.
a)
372
b)
273
c)
237
d)
732
61.

Pressure is

a)

defined as the mass that an object exerts when at rest.

b)

not a measurable in gases.

c)

defined as the number of moles of substance divided by the mass of the substance.

d)

created by the force of the gas particles impacting the walls of the container.

62.
When the temperature of matter increases the particles...
a)
speed up and move closer
b)
speed up and move farther apart
c)
slow down and move closer together
d)
slow down and move farther apart
63.
Boyle's law : When _______ is held constant, the pressure and volume of a gas are ________  proportional
a)
temperature,  equally
b)
mass, inversely
c)
temperature, inversely
d)
mass, equally
64.
Charles's law shows that the temperature and volume of a gas are always........
a)
inversely proportional 
b)
directly proportional 
65.

The weaker the intermolecular forces of a substance the _____________ the boiling point

a)

higher

b)

lower

66.

Which substance has the weakest intermolecular forces?

a)

Substance A, boiling point of 75 °C

b)

Substance B, boiling point of 105 °C

c)

Substance C, boiling point of 25 °C

d)

Substance d, boiling point of 45 °C

67.

According to the reference table, what is the boiling point of ethanoic acid at 80 kPa?

a)

28 oC

b)

100oC

c)

111oC

d)

125oC

68.

Which liquid has the highest vapor pressure at 75oC?

a)

ethanoic acid

b)

ethanol

c)

propanone

d)

water

69.

At which temperature is the vapor pressure of ethanol equal to the vapor pressure of propanone at 35oC?

a)

35oC

b)

60oC

c)

82oC

d)

95oC

70.

Water is the univeral ____.

a)

solute

b)

solvent

c)

solution

71.

solute + solvent =

a)

solution

b)

equation

72.
What is a solute?
a)
The substance that does the dissolving in a solution.
b)
The substance that is dissolved into the solution.
c)
The mixing of different substances.
d)
The process in which neutral molecules lose or gain electrons
73.
What is a solvent?
a)
The substance that does the dissolving in a solution.
b)
The substance that is being dissolved in a solution.
c)
The mixing of different substances.
d)
The process in which neutral molecules lose or gain electrons
74.

A solution contains 35 grams of KNO3 dissolved in 100 grams of water at 40°C. How much more KNO3 would have to be added to make it a saturated solution?

a)

29 g

b)

24 g

c)

12 g

d)

4 g

75.

According to Table F, which of these salts is least soluble in water?

a)

LiCl

b)

RbCl

c)

FeCl2

d)

PbCl2

76.

According to your Reference Tables, which of these compounds is the least soluble in water?

a)

K2CO3

b)

KC2H3O2

c)

Ca3(PO4)2

d)

Ca(NO3)2

77.

According to Reference Table F, which substance is most soluble?

a)

AgI

b)

CaSO4

c)

PbCl2

d)

K2CO3

78.

According to Reference Table F, which compound is most soluble in water?

a)

ZnCO3

b)

ZnSO4

c)

BaSO4

d)

BaCO3

79.

A 2400.-gram sample of an aqueous solution contains 0.012 gram of NH3. What is the concentration of NH3 in the solution, expressed as parts per million?

a)

5.0 ppm

b)

15 ppm

c)

20. ppm

d)

50. ppm

80.

What is the concentration of a solution in parts per million if 0.02 grams of NaCl is dissolved in 1000 grams of solution?

a)

2 ppm

b)

20 ppm

c)

200 pm

d)

0.2 ppm

81.

If you have 34 mL of a 0.5 M NaBr solution, what will the concentration be if the new solution volume is 100 mL?

a)

.188 M

b)

3.78 M

c)

.389 M

d)

1.76 M

82.
What is the molarity of a solution made by diluting 26.5 mL of 6.00M HNO3 to a volume of 250 mL?
a)
15.9 M
b)
0.636 M
c)
0.642 M
d)
1.59 M
83.
How many moles of NaCl are present in a solution with a molarity of 8.59 M and a volume of 125 mL?
a)
1074 mol
b)
0.069 mol
c)
1.07 mol
d)
62.7 mol
84.

What is the molarity of a 0.5L sample of a solution that contains 60.0 g of sodium hydroxide (NaOH)

a)

0.8 M

b)

1.5M

c)

3.0M

d)

6.0M

85.
What two factors govern whether a collision between reacting particles will be effective?
a)
orientation and potential energy 
b)
kinetic energy and temperature 
c)
kinetic energy and orientation 
d)
potential energy and kinetic energy 
86.
More collisions correspond to a: 
a)
Faster reaction rate  
b)
Slower reaction rate
c)
Constant reaction rate 
d)
None of the above
87.
Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting reaction rate?
a)
temperature
b)
catalysts
c)
particle size
d)
polarity
88.
Reaction rate means...
a)
amount of product formed
b)
speed of reaction
c)
concentration of reacting particles
d)
combining reactants with products
89.
A catalyst works by
a)
changing the order of the reaction
b)
increasing the temperature
c)
lowering the activation energy
d)
making the activated complex
90.

If the temperature is reduced, a reaction rate will ______

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

91.

If the concentration of a reactant is increased, the reaction rate will ___________.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

92.
Grinding a seltzer tablet into powder increases the rate of reaction due to...
a)
increased concentration of reactants
b)
increased surface area
c)
increased speed of particles.
d)
better orientation of reactants
93.
What letter represents the energy of the products?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
94.
What letter represents the activation energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
95.
What is the sign of ΔH for all endothermic reactions?
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
96.

What is the change of the heat of the reaction (ΔH)?

a)

-40 kJ

b)

-20 kJ

c)

100 kJ

d)

60 kJ

97.
What is the activation energy?
a)
40 kJ
b)
20 kJ
c)
100 kJ
d)
60 kJ
98.
What is the PE of the reactants?
a)
100 kJ
b)
175 kJ
c)
50 kJ
d)
75 kJ
99.

What is the change of the heat of the reaction (ΔH)?

a)

100 kJ

b)

-175 kJ

c)

-50 kJ

d)

75 kJ

100.

How much energy is produced in the reaction between aluminum and oxygen as written on Table I

a)

-3351 kj

b)

-890.4 kj

c)

-6072 kj

d)

-2219.2 kj

101.

How much energy is produced in the combustion reaction of 2 mol CH3OH with O2 on Table I?

a)

-1452 kj

b)

-2904 kj

c)

-726 kJ

d)

-890.4 kj

102.

How much energy is produced in the reaction between 4C + 2H2 --> 2C2H2 on Table I?

a)

+227.4 kj

b)

-227.4 kJ

c)

+454.8 kj

d)

-454.8 kj

103.

How much energy is produced in the reaction 2NH3 --> N2 + 3H2 on Table I?

a)

+91.8 kj

b)

+66.4 kJ

c)

-91.8 kj

d)

-66.4

104.

The following equation shows the reaction between  Ag+Ag^+  and  Cl−Cl^-  ions.
Ag+Ag^+  +  Cl−Cl^-  -> AgCl    Δ\Delta H= -65 kJmol−1kJmol^{-1}  
Which of the following is true about the above equation?

a)

Exothermic reaction occurs

b)

Heat is absorbed from the surrounding

c)

The energy content of the reactants is less than the products

d)

65 kJ of heat is absorbed when 1 mole of silver chloride is formed

105.

At 101.3 kPa and 298 K, a 1.0-mole sample of which compound ABSORBS the greatest amount of heat as the entire sample dissolves in water?

a)

LiBr

b)

NaCl

c)

NaOH

d)

NH4Cl

106.

At 101.3 kPa and 298 K, a 1.0-mole sample of which compound ABSORBS the greatest amount of heat as the entire sample dissolves in water?

a)

LiBr

b)

NaCl

c)

NaOH

d)

NH4Cl

107.

Based on Table I, which compound dissolves in water by an exothermic process?

a)

NaCl

b)

NaOH

c)

NH4Cl

d)

NH4NO3

108.
Products will form faster if____________
a)
the particle size of the reactants are larger.
b)
temperature is decreased.
c)
concentration of the reactants are increased.
d)
the reaction is not stirred.
109.
The rate of a chemical reaction is NOT affected by which of the following:
a)
temperature
b)
concentration
c)
particle size (surface area)
d)
All of these affect reaction rates
110.

Which of the following will lower the rate

of reaction?

a)

adding an enzyme to the reaction

b)

decreasing the temperature from 40°C to

10°C

c)

breaking a chunk of calcium up into

smaller pieces

d)

increasing the amount of solute

dissolved in a solution

111.
Increase in temperature of the reactants can do one of the following
a)
Slow collision frequency
b)
Allow less effective collision between the particles
c)
Cause particles to lose speed
d)
Increase collision between the particles thus increasing the rate.
112.

Which factors affect the rate of a reaction? (select all that apply)

a)

temperature

b)

concentration

c)

surface area

d)

pressure

e)

catalyst

113.

Which letter represents the activation energy for the reverse reaction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

114.

What is the activation energy of the forward reaction?

a)

20 kJ

b)

40 kJ

c)

60 kJ

d)

80 kJ

e)

100 kJ

115.

What is the activation energy of the reverse reaction?

a)

20 kJ

b)

40 kJ

c)

60 kJ

d)

80 kJ

e)

100 kJ

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