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Final Exam Study Guide

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following explains the formation of the universe?

a)

Giant Impact Theory

b)

Theory of Universal Gravitation

c)

Big Bang Theory

d)

Theory of General Relativity

2.

What evidence exists which shows that the universe is expanding?

a)

the redshift of galaxies

b)

cosmic background radiation (CBR)

c)

decreasing amounts of dark energy

d)

both redshift and CBR

3.

Which of the following is a collection of gas, dust, stars, planets, moons, and nebulas that is bound together by gravity?

a)

cluster

b)

universe

c)

supercluster

d)

galaxy

4.

What is the universal force of attraction that exists between all objects and holds galaxies together and planets in orbit?

a)

dark energy

b)

dark matter

c)

gravity

d)

luminous matter

5.

If dark energy proves to be stronger than gravity, what will be the fate of the universe?

a)

open universe

b)

closed universe

c)

flat universe

d)

curved universe

6.

If gravity proves to be stronger than dark energy, what will be the fate of the universe?

a)

open universe

b)

closed universe

c)

flat universe

d)

curved universe

7.

If dark energy and gravity prove to be equal, what will be the fate of the universe?

a)

open universe

b)

closed universe

c)

flat universe

d)

curved universe

8.

A cloud of gas and dust in which stars and planets form is known as a ________.

a)

galaxy

b)

black hole

c)

supernova

d)

nebula

9.

A large collection of plasma, which is undergoing fusion and is held together by gravity is a _______.

a)

star

b)

protostar

c)

white dwarf

d)

galaxy

10.

Which of the following is a spinning disk of gases with a hot core, which is the first step in star formation?

a)

protostar

b)

supernova

c)

black hole

d)

nebula

11.

Which of the following is the massive explosion of a high mass star when it runs out of elements to fuse?

a)

supernova

b)

planetary nebula

c)

pulsar

d)

protostar

12.

A _______ is a swollen, expanded, dying low mass star that has run out of hydrogen to fuse.

a)

giant

b)

supergiant

c)

white dwarf

d)

black dwarf

13.

A _______ is a swollen, expanded, dying high mass star that is fusing elements heavier than hydrogen and helium.

a)

supergiant

b)

giant

c)

black dwarf

d)

white dwarf

14.

Which of the following is the ejection of gases from a dying low mass star?

a)

nebula

b)

planetary nebula

c)

supernova

d)

solar flare

15.

Which of the following is the leftover core of a dead low mass star that is no longer fusing elements?

a)

supergiant

b)

black dwarf

c)

white dwarf

d)

giant

16.

Which of the following is the undetectable remains of a dead low mass star after it has completely cooled?

a)

neutron star

b)

giant

c)

supergiant

d)

black dwarf

17.

A _______ is the leftover core after a supernova of a high mass star that was less than 20 times the mass of the sun?

a)

black hole

b)

black dwarf

c)

white dwarf

d)

neutron star

18.

A _______ is the leftover core after a supernova of a high mass star that was more than 20 times the mass of the sun?

a)

neutron star

b)

black hole

c)

black dwarf

d)

white dwarf

19.

Which of the following is true of white dwarf stars?

a)

no fusion is occurring

b)

they are dead low mass stars

c)

they eventually cool and become undetectable

d)

all of these

20.

Mature stars that are currently fusing hydrogen and have not run out of fuel are called _________.

a)

low mass stars

b)

high mass stars

c)

main sequence stars

d)

luminous stars

21.

A star and all the celestial objects that revolve around it is called a __________.

a)

galaxy

b)

solar system

c)

open cluster

d)

globular cluster

22.

Planets that orbit stars other than the sun are known as ________.

a)

exoplanets

b)

rogue planets

c)

gas giants

d)

terrestrial planets

23.

Which of the following is a layer of the sun’s atmosphere?

a)

photosphere

b)

all of these

c)

chromosphere

d)

corona

24.

Which layer of the sun’s atmosphere is the hottest?

a)

photosphere

b)

chromosphere

c)

corona

d)

stratosphere

25.

Which layer of the sun’s atmosphere is the surface layer of the sun from which light photons are emitted?

a)

stratosphere

b)

chromosphere

c)

corona

d)

photosphere

26.

Which of the following are dark areas on the surface of the photosphere that are associated with solar flares?

a)

prominences

b)

solar wind

c)

magnetic fields

d)

sun spots

27.

Which of the following are eruptions of gases from the sun that often disrupt telecommunications?

a)

solar flares

b)

prominences

c)

solar wind

d)

sun spots

28.

Which of the following is a constant flow of charged particles from the sun?

a)

solar flares

b)

prominences

c)

solar wind

d)

magnetic fields

29.

Planets located between the sun and the asteroid belt are known as __________.

a)

outer planets

b)

inner planets

c)

terrestrial planets

d)

gas giants

30.

Planets located beyond the asteroid belt are known as __________.

a)

outer planets

b)

inner planets

c)

terrestrial planets

d)

gas giants

31.

Planets that are small and rocky are known as __________.

a)

outer planets

b)

inner planets

c)

terrestrial planets

d)

gas giants

32.

Large gaseous planets are known as __________.

a)

outer planets

b)

inner planets

c)

terrestrial planets

d)

gas giants

33.

Planets are formed by which process?

a)

accretion

b)

fusion

c)

supernovas

d)

planetary nebulas

34.

Which model of the solar system has Earth in the center with the sun and the other planets revolving around it?

a)

geocentric model

b)

heliocentric model

c)

terrestrial model

d)

ecliptic model

35.

Which model of the solar system has the sun in the center with Earth and the other planets revolving around it?

a)

geocentric model

b)

heliocentric model

c)

terrestrial model

d)

ecliptic model

36.

Who discovered that planets orbit the sun in ellipses and that planets closer to the sun orbit faster?

a)

Copernicus

b)

Galileo

c)

Kepler

d)

Ptolemy

37.

Why is Venus the hottest planet in the solar system even though it is not the closest planet to the sun?

a)

it has a dense atmosphere with a lot of carbon dioxide

b)

it has no atmosphere

c)

it has a strong magnetic field

d)

it has a weak magnetic field

38.

Why is Mercury not the hottest planet in the solar system even though it is the closest planet to the sun?

a)

it has a dense atmosphere with a lot of carbon dioxide

b)

it has no atmosphere

c)

it has a strong magnetic field

d)

it has a weak magnetic field

39.

Which planet has a retrograde rotation and spins the opposite direction from all the other planets?

a)

Mars

b)

Uranus

c)

Neptune

d)

Venus

40.

Why does Mars appear reddish in color?

a)

iron oxide in its core

b)

iron oxide on its surface

c)

it has no atmosphere

d)

it has large amounts of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere

41.

Olympus Mons is the tallest peak in the solar system. On what planet is it located?

a)

Earth

b)

Venus

c)

Mars

d)

Jupiter

42.

How far is one Astronomical Unit, which is used to measure distances in the solar system?

a)

93 million miles

b)

93 billion miles

c)

100,000 miles

d)

100,000 light years

43.

The motion of Earth as it spins on its axis is its ___________.

a)

rotation

b)

revolution

c)

ecliptic

d)

tilt

44.

The motion of Earth as it goes around the sun is its ___________.

a)

rotation

b)

revolution

c)

ecliptic

d)

tilt

45.

The shape of Earth’s orbit around the sun is a(n) ___________.

a)

circle

b)

eclipse

c)

ellipse

d)

ecliptic

46.

Which of the following is a measurement of time based on when stars other than the sun appear in the same place in the night sky?

a)

light year

b)

leap year

c)

solar day

d)

sidereal day

47.

Which of the following is the apparent movement of the sun from noon until noon 24 hours later?

a)

leap year

b)

light year

c)

solar day

d)

sidereal day

48.

A ______ is an astronomical event that occurs when the moon lines up between Earth and the sun.

a)

solar eclipse

b)

lunar eclipse

c)

leap year

d)

planetary nebula

49.

A _____ is an astronomical event that occurs when Earth lines up between the moon and the sun.

a)

solar eclipse

b)

lunar eclipse

c)

leap year

d)

planetary nebula

50.

Which of the following is true of Earth’s moon?

a)

it likely formed when a piece of Earth was broken off after an impact

b)

it has a synchronous rotation

c)

it changes its apparent shape each night

d)

all of these

51.

Why does everyone on Earth always see the same side of the moon?

a)

the moon is rotating faster than Earth

b)

it goes through waxing and waning phases

c)

Earth is rotating faster than the moon

d)

it has a synchronous rotation

52.

Which of the following causes seasons on Earth?

a)

its rotation on its axis

b)

its tilt on its axis

c)

its revolution around the sun

d)

the angle of its orbital plane

53.

When does the sun’s rays strike north or south of the equator?

a)

solstices

b)

equinoxes

c)

Spring

d)

Fall

54.

When does the sun’s rays strike the equator directly?

a)

solstices

b)

equinoxes

c)

Summer

d)

Winter

55.

During which era were dinosaurs the predominant life form on Earth?

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

d)

Precambrian

56.

What technique would scientists use to determine the exact age of a dinosaur bone?

a)

Relative Age Dating

b)

Radiometric Dating

c)

Uniformitarianism

d)

Correlation

57.

The Geologic Time Scale was constructed by using what information?

a)

Correlation

b)

Relative Age Dating

c)

Radiometric Dating

d)

Uniformitarianism and the Fossil Record

58.

During which era were mammals the predominant life form on Earth?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

59.

During which era were ocean dwelling organisms the predominant life form on Earth?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

60.

During which era did birds and mammals evolve?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

61.

What process would a scientist use to sequence rock layers in different parts of the world?

a)

Absolute Age Dating

b)

Radiometric Dating

c)

Correlation

d)

Uniformitarianism

62.

During which era did amphibians and reptiles evolve?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

63.

The first period of the Paleozoic Era, during which an abundance of multicellular life evolved on Earth is known as the _______________.

a)

Precambrian Explosion

b)

Cambrian Explosion

c)

Triassic Explosion

d)

Paleozoic Explosion

64.

During which era did primates evolve?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

65.

During which era were microorganisms the only life on Earth?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

66.

During which era did Pangaea break apart?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

67.

The largest mass extinction in Earth’s history occurred at the end of which era?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

68.

At which type of plate boundary did the Andes Mountains form?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

subductive

d)

transform

69.

Plates move toward each other along which plate boundary?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

subductive

d)

transform

70.

Which of the following is a continuous oceanic mountain range formed from seafloor spreading?

a)

Pacific Mountains

b)

Global Rift

c)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

d)

Marianas Trench

71.

At which type of plate boundary did the mid-ocean ridge form?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

subductive

d)

transform

72.

What drives the movement of Earth’s plates?

a)

heat in Earth's mantle

b)

heat in Earth's core

c)

Continental Drift

d)

Plate Tectonics

73.

Plates move away from each other along which plate boundary?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

subductive

d)

transform

74.

Along which convergent boundaries do trenches form?

a)

oceanic + oceanic

b)

oceanic + continental

c)

continental + continental

d)

all of these

75.

Along which convergent boundaries do mountains form?

a)

oceanic + oceanic

b)

oceanic + continental

c)

continental + continental

d)

all of these

76.

At which type of plate boundary did the San Andreas Fault form?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

subductive

d)

transform

77.

Along which convergent boundaries do volcanoes form?

a)

oceanic + oceanic

b)

oceanic + continental

c)

continental + continental

d)

all of these

78.

Which of the following is true of cinder cone volcanoes?

a)

they contain only basaltic magma

b)

they contain only rhyolitic magma

c)

their eruptions are explosive

d)

all of these

79.

Which type of magma is responsible for explosive eruptions?

a)

basaltic

b)

rhyolitic

c)

low viscosity magma

d)

low silica magma

80.

Along which convergent boundaries do subduction zones occur?

a)

oceanic + oceanic

b)

oceanic + continental

c)

continental + continental

d)

all of these

81.

Where do hotspots occur?

a)

away from plate boundaries

b)

convergent boundaries

c)

divergent boundaries

d)

transform boundaries

82.

Which type of magma is responsible for the formation of plateaus over continental hot spots?

a)

basaltic

b)

rhyolitic

c)

high viscosity magma

d)

high silica magma

83.

The Hawaiian island chain was formed by which type of volcanic activity?

a)

moving hotspots

b)

stationary hotspots

c)

continental hotspots

d)

flood basalts

84.

Which of the following is true of composite volcanoes?

a)

they form along subduction zones

b)

they contain rhyolitic lava

c)

their eruptions are explosive

d)

all of these

85.

What mineral is responsible for increasing the viscosity of magma?

a)

silica

b)

basalt

c)

hematite

d)

carbonate

86.

Which type of volcanoes form around larger volcanoes?

a)

composite volcanoes

b)

stratovolcanoes

c)

cinder cones

d)

shield volcanoes

87.

Why is magma with a high viscosity so explosive?

a)

it traps combustible gases

b)

it releases combustible gases

c)

it flows slowly

d)

it is hotter than low viscosity lava

88.

Which of the following is true of shield volcanoes?

a)

they are wide and gradual sloped

b)

their eruptions are non-explosive

c)

they are the largest of all volcanoes

d)

all of these

89.

Which type of soil consists of large particles with large amounts of air?

a)

sand

b)

peat

c)

clay

d)

silt

90.

Which type of soil consists of medium particles and is high in humus?

a)

sand

b)

peat

c)

clay

d)

silt

91.

Which of the following erodes materials the slowest?

a)

running water

b)

wind

c)

glaciers

d)

waves

92.

Which type of soil consists of small particles with low amounts of air?

a)

sand

b)

peat

c)

clay

d)

silt

93.

The process of a material changing to a new material as a result of exposure to water, wind, air, and sunlight is known as _______________.

a)

erosion

b)

mechanical weathering

c)

deposition

d)

chemical weathering

94.

Which of the following erodes materials the fastest?

a)

running water

b)

wind

c)

glaciers

d)

waves

95.

The physical breakdown of materials into smaller pieces is known as ________.

a)

erosion

b)

mechanical weathering

c)

deposition

d)

chemical weathering

96.

Which of the following are measures that are taken to replenish depleted soils?

a)

natural fertilizers

b)

chemical fertilizers

c)

crop rotation

d)

all of these

97.

Which of the following is true of all minerals?

a)

they do not come from living things

b)

their structure forms regular, repeating geometric patterns

c)

all of these

d)

they have specific chemical compositions

98.

Which of the following is the most common mineral on Earth?

a)

Feldspar

b)

Quartz

c)

Granite

d)

Silicon

99.

Minerals are used in the manufacturing of which of the following?

a)

buildings, roads, bridges

b)

aluminum cans, automobiles, ships, planes

c)

copper wiring, electronics, glass, windows

d)

all of these

100.

How are minerals identified?

a)

physical properties only

b)

chemical properties only

c)

both physical and chemical properties

d)

composition and mass