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H Human Unit 1

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 2hrs 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A somatic cell is...

a)

A sex cell

b)

A haploid cell

c)

A diploid cell

d)

A cell which will divide by meiosis

2.

______ ______ _______ divide by mitosis and by meiosis to produce gametes

(a)  

3.

In meiosis, which of these happens first?

a)

Separating of chromatids

b)

Separating of homologous chromosomes

4.

In cellular differentiation...

a)

Cells express all genes to produce proteins characteristic for that type of cell

b)

Cells express some genes to produce proteins characteristic for that type of cell

c)

Cells express some proteins to produce genes characteristic for that type of cell

d)

Cells express some genes to produce amino acids characteristic for that type of cell

5.

Tissue stem cells are...

a)

Multipotent

b)

Pluripotent

c)

Totipotent

6.

Blood stems cells are located in...

a)

Muscle tissue

b)

Bone Marrow

c)

Spinal cord

d)

Lungs

7.

Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic use of stem cells?

a)

Model cells

b)

Drug testing

c)

Corneal repair

d)

Infecting with diseases

8.

True or False: Stem cells from the embryo can self-renew, under the right conditions, in the lab.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Cancer cells divide excessively because they...

a)

Respond to regulatory signals

b)

Do not respond to regulatory signals

c)

Express all genes in their genome

d)

Fail to attach to each other

10.

A mass of abnormal cells is known as a...

(a)  

11.

Part A is called

(a)  

12.

The type of bond responsible for base pairing is...

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Sugar phosphate bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Ionic bonds

13.

Two strands of DNA travel in opposite directions. This is known as... (one word answer)

(a)  

14.

When strands join together it forms a... (two word answer)

(a)  

15.

Which of the following shows the correct structure of DNA?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

16.

A section of double stranded DNA was found to have 60 guanine bases and 30 adenine bases.


What is the total number of deoxyribose sugars in this section?

a)

30

b)

90

c)

180

d)

270

17.

A section of DNA containing 8000 bases has 1200 cytosine bases.

The number of adenine bases in this section of DNA is...

a)

800

b)

1200

c)

1400

d)

2800

18.

(a)   is needed for DNA polymerase to start replication (one word answer)

19.

Which of the following is a correct description for a primer?

a)

a long strand of nucleotides which binds to the 3’ end of the template DNA strand allowing polymerase to add DNA nucleotides.

b)

a short strand of nucleotides which binds to the 3’ end of the template DNA strand allowing polymerase to add DNA nucleotides.

c)

a short strand of nucleotides which binds to the 5’ end of the template DNA strand allowing polymerase to add DNA nucleotides.

d)

a long strand of nucleotides which binds to the 3’ end of the template DNA strand allowing polymerase to add RNA nucleotides.

20.

DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in a

a)

5' to 3' direction

b)

3' to 5' direction

21.

The lagging strand is always replicated in fragments because...

a)

DNA polymerase can only add DNA nucleotides to the deoxyribose end of a new strand

b)

DNA polymerase can only add DNA nucleotides to the 5' end of a new strand

c)

RNA polymerase can only add DNA nucleotides to the 5' end of a new strand

d)

DNA polymerase can only add DNA nucleotides to the phosphate end of a new strand

22.

The enzyme which joins fragments of DNA together is called...

(a)  

23.

In PCR, when DNA is heated to 92-98C, this is to...

a)

Allow primers to bind to target sequences

b)

Allow heat tolerant DNA polymerase to replicate a region of DNA

c)

Separate strands of DNA

24.

True or False: PCR is used to diagnose genetic disorders

a)

True

b)

False

25.

True or False: Only a fraction of genes in a cell are expressed

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

RNA is single stranded and is composed of nucleotides containing ribose sugar, phosphate and one of four bases: cytosine, guanine, adenine and uracil.

b)

RNA is single stranded and is composed of nucleotides containing ribose sugar, phosphate and one of four bases: cytosine, guanine, adenine and thymine.

c)

RNA is double stranded and is composed of nucleotides containing ribose sugar, phosphate and one of four bases: cytosine, guanine, adenine and uracil.

d)

RNA is single stranded and is composed of DNA nucleotides containing ribose sugar, phosphate and one of four bases: cytosine, guanine, adenine and thymine.

27.

Each triplet of bases on a mRNA molecule is called a..

a)

Amino acid

b)

Anticodon

c)

Codon

d)

Protein

28.

True or False: Transfer RNA (tRNA) folds due to complementary base pairing

a)

True

b)

False

29.

During transcription, RNA polymerase moves along the DNA unwinding the double helix and breaking hydrogen bonds between the bases. What happens next?

a)

RNA polymerase synthesises a mature transcript of mRNA from DNA nucleotides by complementary base pairing.

b)

RNA polymerase synthesises a primary transcript of tRNA from RNA nucleotides by complementary base pairing.

c)

RNA polymerase synthesises a mature transcript of mRNA from RNA nucleotides by complementary base pairing.

d)

RNA polymerase synthesises a primary transcript of mRNA from RNA nucleotides by complementary base pairing.

30.

RNA splicing forms a mature mRNA transcript. Which of the following statements is true about the process of RNA splicing?

a)

The introns of the mature transcript are noncoding regions and are removed and the order of exons is unchanged.

b)

The exons of the primary transcript are noncoding regions and are removed and the order of introns is unchanged.

c)

The introns of the primary transcript are noncoding regions and are removed and the order of exons is unchanged.

31.

During translation, mRNA is used to form a polypeptide at a ribosome. Name the type of codon which enables translation to begin (one word answer)

(a)  

32.

Name the process which enables anticodons to bind to codons (three word answer)

(a)  

33.

Which type of bond join amino acids together?

(a)  

34.

Which of the following is true of alternative RNA splicing?

a)

One gene is used to make one protein

b)

One gene is used to make many proteins

c)

Different primary transcripts are produced from the process

d)

The transcript produced consists of mainly introns

35.

Polypeptides are three dimensional. What holds them together?

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

Peptide bonds and other interactions between amino acids

d)

Hydrogen bonds and other interactions between amino acids

36.

A phenotype is...

a)

determined by amino acids produced as the result of gene expression.

b)

determined by proteins produced as the result of gene expression.

37.

True or false: Environmental factors also influence phenotype.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

True or false: Mutations are changes in the DNA that can result in no protein or an altered protein being synthesised.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

substitution, insertion or deletion are an example of a...

a)

Single gene mutation

b)

Chromosomal mutation

40.

Which of the following correctly describes translocation

a)

where a section of a chromosome is added from its homologous partner.

b)

where a section of chromosome is reversed

c)

where a section of a chromosome is added to a chromosome, not its homologous partner.

d)

where a section of a chromosome is removed.

41.

Which of the following is an example of a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertion

b)

Substitution

c)

Deletion

42.

Three applications of human genomics are listed.


1. Comparing genomes to settle paternity disputes

2. Screening a genome for a particular sequence to diagnose disease

3. Using genome information in the choice of effective drug treatments


Which of these applications are examples of pharmacogenetics?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

2, 3

d)

1, 2, 3

43.

Catabolic reactions...

a)

break down large molecules into smaller molecules and release energy.

b)

build up large molecules from small molecules and require energy

c)

break down large molecules into smaller molecules and require energy.

d)

build up large molecules from small molecules and release energy

44.

Select the statements about enzymes which are true

a)

Their active site carries out induced fit to a product to better fit it and lower activation energy

b)

Their active site has high affinity for substrates

c)

Can be affected by competitive inhibitors which bind away from the active site but change the shape of the active site preventing the substrate from binding.

d)

Can be affected by competitive inhibitors binding at the active site preventing the substrate from binding.

45.

End product inhibition is an example of

a)

Competitive inhibition

b)

Non competitive inhibiton

c)

Feedback inhibition

46.

True or False: Non-competitive inhibition cannot be reversed by increasing substrate concentration.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Select the statements about glycolysis which are true

a)

it is the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate in the cytoplasm

b)

ATP adds a phosphate to glucose and intermediates during the energy investment phase

c)

Energy pay off stage results in a net gain for 4ATP

d)

Dehydrogenase enzymes take hydrogen ions and electrons and pass them to the co-enzyme NAD forming NADH

48.

Where does glycolysis take place (one word answer)?

(a)  

49.

Which of the following statements is correct:

a)

In the citric acid cycle pyruvate combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate.

b)

In the citric acid cycle the acetyl group from acetyl coenzyme A combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate.

c)

In the citric acid cycle coenzyme A combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate.

d)

The citric acid cycle takes place in the inner mitochondrial membrane

50.

True or False: ATP and CO2 are produced in the citric acid cycle

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Which of these events causes ATP synthase to produce ATP?

a)

Pumping hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane

b)

The passing of hydrogen ions and electrons to the electron transport chain

c)

The return flow of hydrogen ions into the matrix of the mitochondria

d)

The combination of hydrogen ions and electrons with oxygen

52.

Under vigorous exercise, what is pyruvate converted into? (max one word answer)

(a)  

53.

Hydrogen ions from NADH are passed to (a)   during glycolysis to produce lactate

54.

True or False: oxygen debts are repaid when lactate is converted back into pyruvate and glucose in the liver

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Slow twitch muscle fibres...

a)

Contract for longer periods

b)

Contract for short periods

c)

Used for endurance activities

d)

Used for short bursts of activity

e)

Rely on aerobic respiration

56.

Which of the following is the major storage fuel of fast twitch muscle fibres?

a)

Glucose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Fats

d)

Water