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Grade 11 Mock Exam Elec 2&3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Bears eat a variety of foods including fish, berries, other types of vegetation.  Bears would best be classified as – 
a)
producers
b)
herbivores
c)
carnivores
d)
omnivores
2.
Snakes eat many types of small mammals including mice and rabbits as well as other lizards.  Snakes would best be classified as a - 
a)
producers
b)
herbivores
c)
carnivores
d)
omnivores
3.
Elodea is an autotrophic organism which produces sugars at the bottom of some freshwater food chains. Elodea would best be classified as - 
a)
producers
b)
herbivores
c)
carnivores
d)
omnivores
4.
Which organism in this food chain is a producer?
a)
Fish
b)
Grass
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Hawk
5.
Which organism in this food chain is a primary consumer?
a)
Fish
b)
Grass
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Hawk
6.
Which organism in this food chain is a tertiary consumer?
a)
Fish
b)
Grass
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Hawk
7.
In this food pyramid, which level has the greatest amount of energy?
a)
Producers
b)
Primary Consumers
c)
Secondary Consumers
d)
Tertiary Consumers
8.
A series of interrelated food chains in a given ecosystem is called a ______________.
a)
trophic level
b)
food pyramid
c)
predator-prey relationship
d)
food web
9.

Each level of the food chain is called a ________ level.

a)

Food-eating

b)

Trophic

c)

Sunlight

d)

Energy

10.

In this energy pyramid, which organism would most likely be in level 2?

a)

bird

b)

fox

c)

caterpillar

d)

tree

11.
The human skeleton can be subdivided into two parts, what part is made up of the skull, sternum, vertebral column and rib cage?
a)
appendicular
b)
axial
12.
What type of bone is the femur?
a)
Long bone
b)
Short bone
c)
Flat bone
d)
Irregular bone
13.
Which one of the following is an irregular bone?
a)
humerus
b)
tibia
c)
temporal
d)
vertebrae
14.
What is the name of the collar bone?
a)
Clavicle
b)
Scapular
c)
Sternum
d)
Xiphoid
15.

What is the name of the long bone in the thigh?

a)

Patella

b)

Femur

c)

Fibula

d)

Tibia

16.

Which system is responsible for creating red blood cells?

a)

skeletal

b)

muscular

c)

respiratory

d)

nervous

17.
One function of the skeletal system is _______ especially in regards to the vital organs, such as the brain, heart, and lungs.
a)
Protection
b)
Storage
c)
Synthesis
d)
Movement
18.
_________ is a function of the skeletal system that is completed by joints, ligaments, and tendons.
a)
Protection
b)
Storage
c)
Synthesis
d)
Movement
19.

How many pairs of ribs are in the thoracic cage?

a)

7

b)

2

c)

12

d)

10

20.

Which of the following is NOT a bone area associated with the axial skeleton?

a)

pelvic girdles

b)

the skull

c)

rib cage

d)

vertebral column

21.

What is a joint?

a)

The place where 2 or more bones meet.

b)

A thin membrane that covers the surface of bone.

c)

A band of tissue that hold bones together.

d)

Connective tissue

22.

Name the joint that is found in wrists and ankles.

a)

Ball and Socket Joint

b)

Hinge Joint

c)

Pivot Joint

d)

Gliding Joint

23.

Name the joint that makes up the elbows,knees, and fingers.

a)

Ball and Socket Joint

b)

Hinge joints

c)

Pivot Joint

d)

Gliding Joint

24.

Turning the head is example of a ______________ joint.

a)

Ball and Socket Joint

b)

Hinge Joint

c)

Pivot Joint

d)

Gliding Joint

25.

Legs and arms are examples of a __________________ joint.

a)

Ball and Socket Joint

b)

Hinge Joint

c)

Pivot Joint

d)

Gliding Joint

26.

What are the ends of bone covered with that helps reduce friction when two bones are rubbed together?

a)

periosteum

b)

ligament

c)

tendon

d)

cartilage

27.

A tough band of tissue that holds bones together at the joint are called a __________________________.

a)

tendon

b)

cartilage

c)

periosteum

d)

ligament

28.

The following is NOT one of the three joint classifications..

a)

Cartilaginous or partially moveable joints

b)

Cartilage

c)

Fibrous or fixed joints

d)

Synovial or moveable joints

29.

The joints that allow the most movement are called

a)

Fixed

b)

Fibrous

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Synovial

30.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Vertebrae

b)

Femur

c)

Cranium

d)

Ribs

31.

What is the name for the connector that attaches muscle to bone?

a)

ligament

b)

tendon

c)

joint

d)

bones

32.

What is the name for the connector that attaches bone to bone?

a)

ligament

b)

tendon

c)

joint

d)

cartilage

33.

What do the bones make?

a)

veins

b)

cartilage

c)

red blood cells

d)

bone marrow

34.

What does the cranium protect?

a)

heart

b)

eyes

c)

brain

d)

lungs

35.

What is the largest and strongest bone in the body?

a)

skull

b)

vertebrae

c)

femur

d)

ribs

36.

What is a flexible connective tissue that is found in your nose and ears?

a)

cartilage

b)

joints

c)

ligaments

d)

cranium

37.

The organ that removes metabolic wastes including urea, excess water, and salts from the blood.

a)

lung

b)

liver

c)

kidney

d)

colon

38.

The functional unit of the kidneys which includes the glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, tubules and the Loop of Henle.

a)

Malpighian body

b)

renal tubule

c)

renal corpuscle

d)

nephron

39.

A short tube where urine is released from the body is the _______.

a)

Ureter

b)

Calyx

c)

Collecting duct

d)

Urethra

40.
Place the following events in sequence:
A)  Urine passes through the ureters
B)  Urea enters the kidneys
C)  Urine enters the urethra
a)
B, A, C
b)
C, B, A
c)
B, C, A
d)
A, C, B
41.

Which substance is NOT found in the liquid in the highlighted parts of a healthy person?

a)

Glucose

b)

Salt

c)

Water

d)

Urea

42.

The area where all of the glucose is reabsorbed.

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Collecting tubule

43.

The area where the pH of the blood is controlled.

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Collecting tubule

44.

The area where a sodium pump is found.

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Collecting tubule

45.

The area influenced by hormones in order to regulate water balance in the body.

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Collecting tubule

46.

The wider of the two arterioles is the...

a)

Efferent arteriole

b)

Afferent arteriole

47.

Glomerular filtrate is the name given to the fluid in the ...

a)

Capillaries

b)

Bowman's capsule

c)

Bladder

d)

Liver

48.

A nitrogen waste resulting from the breakdown of the amino acids produced during protein digestion.

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

bile

c)

urea

d)

water

49.
Which excretory organ eliminates water and some chemical wastes in perspiration?
a)
lungs
b)
skin
c)
liver
d)
kidneys
50.

The process of removal of the body’s metabolic wastes is called

a)

gas exchange.

b)

respiration.

c)

excretion.

d)

filtration.

51.
Causes blood glucose level to drop
a)
Glucagon
b)
Insulin
c)
Thymosin
d)
TSH
52.
Causes blood glucose level to rise
a)
Insulin
b)
Glucagon
c)
FSH
d)
TSH
53.
Causes kidneys to conserve water
a)
antidiuretic hormone
b)
aldosterone
c)
adrenocorticotropic hormone
d)
calcitonin
54.

What is the outermost layer of skin called?

a)

epidermis

b)

dermis

c)

hypodermis

d)

skin

55.

What do sebaceous glands, hair follicles, sweat glands and sensory receptors of the skin have in common?

a)

They all produce new skin cells

b)

They all fall off and are replaced every few weeks

c)

They all allow to detect sensations of touch

d)

They're all found in the dermis

56.

Where can you find the cornified layer cells?

a)

in the dermis

b)

in the epidermis

c)

in the hypodermis

d)

this layer does not exist, dead skin cells fall off right away and are immediately repaired

57.

What is the oily substance that hydrates the skin, prevents it from being dry and makes it waterproof?

a)

sweat

b)

cerumen

c)

sebum

d)

humus

58.

How many layers make up the skin?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

59.

What layer is made up of fat and collagen?

a)

The Dermis

b)

The Subcutaneous layer

c)

The Epidermis

d)

The bottom layer

60.

Which is not part of the female's reproductive system?

a)

Endometrium

b)

Uterus

c)

Cervix

d)

Vas Deferens

61.
The meeting of a sperm and ovum.
a)
Intercourse
b)
Implantation
c)
Conception
d)
Fertilization
62.

The nesting of a fertilized ovum in the lining of the uterus is called:

a)

Implantation

b)

Fertilization

c)

Conception

d)

Menstruation

63.

The lining of the uterus coming out through the vagina:

a)

Menstrual cycle

b)

Fertilization

c)

Molestation

d)

Menstruation

64.

The location where a baby grows and develops for approximately 9 months.

a)

Stomach

b)

Bladder

c)

Vagina

d)

Uterus

65.

What do you call the process in which the ovary releases a mature ovum?

a)

penile erection

b)

ejaculation

c)

ovulation

d)

nocturnal emission

66.
Where does fertilization usually take place?
a)
ovary
b)
fallopian tube
c)
cervix
d)
vagina
67.

Male sex organ that produces and stores sperm.

a)

Prostate Gland

b)

Testes

c)

Ovary

d)

Vas deferens

68.

What part of male reproductive system that function as a sac that holds the testes?

a)

Vas deferens

b)

Scrotum

c)

Penis

d)

Prostate gland

69.

A set of coiled tubes that stores sperm and connects to the vas deferens.

a)

Fallopian tube

b)

Epididymis

c)

Urethra

d)

Seminal Vesicle

70.

Which letter corresponds to Testis?

a)

D

b)

E

c)

F

d)

J

71.

What is the primary sex hormones of males?

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Testosterone

c)

Urine

d)

Semen

72.

When semen is pushed through and out of a males body through the urethra is a process called_______.

a)

Ejaculation

b)

Erection

c)

Menstruation

d)

Transportation

73.

What is the function of vas deferens?

a)

A muscular tube that passes upward alongside the testes and transports mature sperm to the urethra.

b)

Sperm storage organ.

c)

Feces holding area.

d)

It produces seminal fluid: a sugar- rich fluid that provides sperm with a source of energy to help them move.

74.

Tiny male cell that unites with the female ovum to form a fertilized egg or zygote.

a)

Testes

b)

Scrotum

c)

Sperm

d)

Semen

75.
Structure 4 is the
a)
cervix
b)
vagina
c)
uterus
d)
ovary
76.

The physiological purpose of the vagina is

a)

fetal development

b)

maturation of the ovum

c)

to urinate from

d)

to receive the sperm from the male

77.

The two hormones that maintain the lining of the uterus are:

a)

FSH and oestrogen

b)

LH and oestrogen

c)

estrogen

d)

Progesterone and oestrogen

78.

What is the main role of Progesterone?

a)

Completes development of uterus lining

b)

Stimulates follicle to burst and release the ovum

c)

Stimulates rebuilding of the uterus wall

d)

Stimulates one egg cell to develop (become follicle)

79.
On what day of the cycle is ovulation?
a)
Day 4
b)
Day 8
c)
Day 14
d)
Day 28
80.

What do we call a fertilized ovum?

a)

Sperm

b)

Testosterone

c)

Zygote

d)

Egg

81.

Which term describes the narrow opening of the uterus that extends into the vagina?

a)

fundus

b)

cervix

c)

vulva

d)

labia majora

82.

When an ovum has not been fertilized, it leaves the body with the lining of the uterus. This is known as

a)

menstruation

b)

ovulation

c)

fertilization

d)

pregnancy

83.

What is the female gamete?

a)

clitoris

b)

spermatogenesis

c)

perineum

d)

ova

84.

Before cell division takes place, each chromosome has to make an exact copy of itself. This is called:

a)

copying

b)

fertilization

c)

hybridization

d)

replication

85.

Which of the following refer to the product of meiosis?

a)

haploid cells

b)

diploid cells

c)

somatic cells

d)

muscle cells

86.

How many chromosomes are found in a human adult ovum?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

23 pairs

d)

46 pairs

87.

When meiosis is complete, how does chromosomes in the daughter cells compare to the chromosomes from the original parent cell?

a)

half as much and genetically the same

b)

twice as much and genetically the same

c)

half as much and genetically different

d)

twice as much and genetically different

88.

Meiosis results in

a)

two unique daughter cells

b)

four identical daughter cells

c)

two identical daughter cells

d)

four unique daughter cells

89.

Mitosis is responsible for growth, repair, and maintenance in an organism because

a)

it occurs at a faster rate than meiosis

b)

the chromosome number is reduced by half

c)

exact duplicates of each mother cell are produced

d)

it is the only process that involves replication of genetic material

90.

How many cell divisions are in Meiosis?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

four

d)

eight

91.

If a somatic (body) cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

92.
How many DNA molecules make up a chromosome?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
23
d)
46
93.

When chromosomes are in its less coiled, "relaxed," state, between cell divisions, it is called

a)

autosomes

b)

chromatid

c)

chromatin

d)

centromere

94.
The structure that holds two chromosomes together until they separate for cell division is the
a)
chromatid
b)
chromatin
c)
centromere
d)
cytoplasm
95.

An organism's reproductive cells, or sex cells, are called _____.

a)

bacteria

b)

prokaryotes

c)

gametes

d)

pathogens

96.

A _______ is a segment of DNA that codes for a specific protein or RNA molecule.

a)

gene

b)

gamete

c)

chromosome

d)

chromatid

97.

When a chromosome duplicates it produces two identical strands called ________.

a)

chromatids

b)

genes

c)

mutations

d)

pathogens

98.

How many chromosomes does a human body cell have, total?

a)

48

b)

46

c)

23

d)

47

99.

Chromosomes that are paired by size and content are called _______ chromosomes.

a)

homeostasis

b)

homologous

c)

matching

d)

sister

100.

Body cells are also called _________ cells.

a)

normal

b)

prokaryotic

c)

pathogens

d)

somatic

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