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AP Biology Senior Final Exam

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which experimental variable is measured and found on the Y axis of a graph?

a)

Independent

b)

Dependent

c)

Controlled

2.

Which of the following is an acceptable alternative hypothesis?

a)

A change in the designated independent variable will have no effect on the dependent variable

b)

A change in the designated independent variable will have an effect on the dependent variable

c)

A change in the designated independent variable will increase the dependent variable

3.

Experimental components that are NOT given a specified “treatment” (ex. placebo pill) are called _

a)

Negative control groups

b)

Positive control groups

c)

Negative controlled variables

d)

Positive controlled variables

4.

A bar graph has error bars that represent +/- 2 standard error of the mean. Which of the following is an acceptable conclusion if the means are different but the error bars are overlapping?

a)

The values are statistically different

b)

The null hypothesis should NOT be rejected (fail to reject)

c)

The sample size is too small

d)

The standard deviation is too large

5.

Prokaryotic cells are small and simple cells found _

a)

Bacteria

b)

Animals

c)

Plants

d)

Fungi

6.

Which of the following explains water's unique properties (high specific heat, lower density in solid form, cohesion, adhesion, and high surface tension)?

a)

Water is polar, which allows hydrogen bonds to form between nearby molecules

b)

Water is nonpolar, which allows hydrogen bonds to form between nearby molecules

c)

Water is polar, which allows covalent bonds to form between nearby molecules

d)

Water is nonpolar, which allows covalent bonds to form between nearby molecules

7.

Which of the following is NOT found in DNA nucleotides (monomers)?

a)

Deoxyribose sugars/monosacchardies

b)

Phosphate groups

c)

Nitrogenous bases

d)

Side chains/R groups

8.

Which nitrogenous base is only found in RNA nucleotides?

a)

A

b)

T

c)

C

d)

G

e)

U

9.

What type of bond holds two strands of DNA together in the center of the double helix?

a)

Hydogen

b)

Covalent

c)

Phosphodiester

d)

Metallic

10.

Which of the following provides an example of a DNA base pair?

a)

A-T

b)

A-U

c)

T-C

d)

G-G

11.

All of the following are types of proteins EXCEPT

a)

Enzymes

b)

Receptors

c)

Transporters

d)

Hormones

e)

Polysaccharides

12.

Which element is found in nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) AND proteins?

a)

N

b)

P

c)

S

13.

There are 20 different types of _, the monomers of proteins

a)

Amino acids

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Sugars/monosaccharides

d)

Fatty acids

e)

Nitrogenous bases

14.

Which structural component of an amino acid affects its chemical properties (ex. polar and hydrophilic)?

a)

Amino group

b)

Carboxylic acid group

c)

Side chain/R group

d)

Phosphate group

15.

A polypeptides' primary structure is the number, type, and sequence of amino acids. What allows polypeptides to have secondary and tertiary structure?

a)

Folding

b)

Gene expression

c)

DNA replication

d)

Transcription

e)

Translation

16.

Which of the following is an example of a tertiary structure interaction in a polypeptide?

a)

A hydrogen bond between an amino group and a carboxyl group of its backbone

b)

A covalent bond (disulfide bridge) between amino acid R groups/side chains

c)

An alpha helix

d)

A beta pleated sheet

e)

A hydrogen bond between an amino group of its backbone and a side chain/R group

17.

—_ are molecules that bind to enzymes (i.e. what “enters” the chemical reaction)

a)

Substrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Products

d)

Amino acids

18.

What effect do enzyme active sites have on chemical reactions?

a)

They de-stabilize the transition state

b)

They increase activation energy

c)

They speed up reactions

d)

They inhibit metabolism

19.

Why do very high temperatures generally have an adverse effect on enzymatic activity?

a)

Substrates and enzymes move more slowly, and are less likely to collide to produce a successful reaction

b)

Denaturation occurs

c)

Renaturation occurs

20.

Which of the following conditions allows for optimized enzymatic activity and product formation?

a)

Unlimited substrate with unlimited enzymes

b)

Unlimited substrate with limited enzymes

c)

Limited substrate with limited enzymes

d)

Limited substrate with unlimited enzymes

21.

Where is DNA located in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Stored on multiple, linear chromosomes that are contained within a nucleus

b)

Stored on a single, circular chromosome that is freely floating in the cytoplasm

c)

Stored on multiple, linear chromosomes that are freely floating the cytoplasm

d)

Stored on a single, circular chromosome that is contained within a nucleus

22.

What is synthesized in the 5' --> 3' direction from the template/non-coding/minus/antisense strand during transcription?

a)

Genes

b)

RNA molecules

c)

Polypeptides

d)

DNA molecules

e)

Polysaccharides

23.

What enzyme synthesizes RNA molecules (mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, regulatory RNA, etc.) during transcription?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Helicase

d)

Ligase

e)

Primase

24.

What sequences are removed from mRNA during RNA processing (eukaryotic cells)?

a)

Introns

b)

Exons

c)

GTP cap

d)

Poly-A tail

e)

Codons

25.

What cellular organelle found in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough ER makes translation possible?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Nucleus

e)

Lysosome

26.

What type of RNA contains anticodons that pair with codons during translation?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

miRNA

e)

siRNA

27.

What is synthesized during translation due to repeated interactions between mRNA codons and tRNA anticodons?

a)

Polypeptides, which are protein polymers

b)

Polypeptides, which are nucleic acid polymers

c)

Amino acids, which are protein polymers

d)

Amino acids, which are nucleic acid polymers

28.

Which of the following cellular organelles allows for polypeptide folding/enzymatic modification and the packaging of polypeptides in vesicles to traffic their destination?

a)

Golgi

b)

Rough ER

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

e)

Vacuole

29.

Which organelles are membrane sacs containing hydrolytic enzymes that perform hydrolysis at low pH levels (acidic)?

a)

Golgi bodies

b)

Rough ER

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosomes

e)

Vacuoles

30.

—_ are DNA sequences that allow bacterial/prokaryotic cells to synthesize a single mRNA molecule that is subsequently translated into polypeptide subunits that assemble into 2+ proteins

a)

Operons

b)

Operators

c)

Promoters

d)

Enhancers

e)

Silencers

31.

If an operon is being repressed then a repressor is bound to the _ sequence

a)

Operator

b)

Promoter

c)

Gene

d)

Enhancer

e)

Silencer

32.

Which of the following explains a key difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic regulation of gene expression?

a)

Only eukaryotic regulation involves transcription factors

b)

Only eukaryotic regulation involves activators and repressors

c)

Only prokaryotic regulation involves regulatory genes

d)

Only prokaryotic regulation involves one gene influencing the expression of another gene

33.

The expression of a eukaryotic gene involves the binding of RNAP and transcription factors to the _

a)

Promotor

b)

Gene

c)

Enhancer

d)

Silencer

e)

Operator

34.

What accounts for cell differentiation/specialization in eukaryotic organisms?

a)

Differences in gene expression/protein synthesis

b)

Uniformity of transcription factor, activator, and repressor concentrations

c)

Differences in DNA sequences from one cell type to another

d)

The events of the cell cycle

35.

What form of signaling allows for long distance communication between cells (involves hormones and the blood stream)?

a)

Autocrine

b)

Juxtactine

c)

Paracrine

d)

Endocrine

e)

Synapatic

36.

Reception (cell communication) involves the binding of _ to receptor proteins found on or within target cells (those with the receptor)

a)

Ligands

b)

Substrates

c)

Enzymes

d)

Amino acids

e)

Nucleotides

37.

What term describes the series of chemical reactions and interactions that link ligand binding to target cell responses?

a)

Transduction

b)

Transformation

c)

Conjugation

d)

Transposition

38.

Which of the following is a common second messenger of signal transduction pathways that relays and amplifies the intracellular signal?

a)

cAMP

b)

Kinase

c)

ADP

d)

Phosphatase

39.

Which of the following is potential consequence when any element of a signal transduction pathway (ex. a protein kinase) is inhibited?

a)

Cells fail to receive signals from other cells

b)

Cells see an increase in receptor protein conformational changes

c)

Cells amplify the intracellular signal more efficiently

d)

Cells see an increase in protein activation

e)

Cells fail to express certain genes

40.

What occurs in negative feedback (homeostasis)?

a)

An organism’s conditions are returned to an ideal point and then the mechanism is shut down

b)

An organism’s conditions are returned to an ideal point and the mechanism is amplified

c)

An organism’s conditions are distanced from an original point and the mechanism is amplified

d)

An organism’s conditions are distanced from an original point and then the mechanism is shut down

41.

What occurs during S phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Growth

b)

DNA/chromosome replication

c)

Mitosis

d)

Cytokinesis

e)

Meiosis

42.

RNA nucleotide primers are added to both template parent strands during semi-conservative DNA replication by _

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Primase

d)

Helicase

e)

Ligase

43.

As is the case with RNAP, DNA polymerase (DNAP) synthesizes daughter DNA strands in the _ direction

a)

5' --> 3'

b)

3' --> 5'

44.

What is the purpose of mitosis and cytokinesis?

a)

Producing genetically identical daughter cells for growth, maintenance, and repair

b)

Producing genetically different daughter cells that have different functions

c)

Producing genetically identical daughter cells that always enter dormancy

d)

Producing genetically different daughter cells that are used in sexual reproduction/fertilization

45.

_ synthesized by centrosomes allow for the equal division of _ during mitosis

a)

Microtubule proteins, sister chromatids

b)

Microtubule proteins, homologous chromosome pairs

c)

Enzymes, homologous chromosome pairs

d)

Enzymes, sister chromatids

46.

Which of the following events occurs towards the end of mitosis and M phase?

a)

The break down of the nucleus

b)

The condensing of chromatin into chromosomes

c)

The formation of a nucleus in each daughter cell

d)

The attachment of microtubules to sister chromatids

47.

What is a consequence to disruptions in cell cycle regulation?

a)

Cells divide too frequently, forming cancerous tumors

b)

Healthy cells undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death)

c)

Increased production of gametes

48.

_ phosphorylate proteins associated with cell division, which allows cells to progress through different checkpoints

a)

Cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks)

b)

Cyclins

c)

Growth factors

d)

Phosphatases

49.

Plasma and organelle membranes are _ containing many different proteins and other molecules (ex. cholesterol)

a)

Phospholipid bilayers

b)

Triacylglycerols

c)

Fatty acids

d)

Polysaccharides

e)

Complex carbs

50.

Water's polarity causes nonpolar and hydrophobic _ to be found in a membrane's interior

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Glycerols

c)

Phosphate groups

d)

Side chains

51.

Cell walls are cell organelles containing polysaccharides/complex carbs found in many cells, but NOT _ cells

a)

Animal

b)

Plant

c)

Fungal

d)

Bacterial

52.

The endosymbiotic theory explains the origin of _

a)

Cell compartmentalization

b)

Eukaryotic organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts

c)

Large bacteria

d)

Phospholipid bilayers

53.

Membranes are semi or selectively _, meaning only certain substances can pass through the phospholipid bilayer

a)

Permeable

b)

Polar

c)

Malleable

d)

Conservative

54.

How are nonpolar and hydrophobic molecules such as O2, CO2, N2 transported?

a)

They move through the bilayer

b)

They move through transport proteins

c)

They utilize vesicles

55.

How are ions such as Na+ and K+ transported?

a)

They move through the bilayer

b)

They move through transport proteins

c)

They utilize vesicles

56.

Which of the following is a feature of passive transport?

a)

An input of energy (ex. ATP hydrolysis)

b)

Equilibrium being reached

c)

The movement of substances from low concentration to high concentration (against gradient)

d)

The utilization of vesicles

57.

Osmosis is the movement of free water molecules to areas of high _

a)

Solute concentration/osmolarity/tonicity

b)

Free water concentration

c)

Water potential

58.

How do most water molecules move across membranes?

a)

Simple diffusion through the bilayer

b)

Facilitated diffusion through aquaporin transporters

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

59.

What allows for the movement of substances against their chemical gradient during active transport?

a)

Energy input from ATP or another source

b)

Channel transport proteins

c)

Vesicles

60.

—_ involves vesicles transporting substances (typically macromolecules) fusing with membranes and secreting substances out of cells

a)

Exocytosis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Pinocytosis

61.

Gametes made in meiosis by sexually reproducing species are _

a)

Genetically unique and haploid (1n)

b)

Genetically unique and diploid (2n)

c)

Genetically identical and haploid (1n)

d)

Genetically identical and diploid (2n)

62.

The fusing of gametes in _ produces a(n) _

a)

Fertilization, zygote

b)

Fertilization, embryo

c)

Meiosis, zygote

d)

Meiosis, embryo

63.

Which of the following statements regarding homologous chromosomes is FALSE?

a)

They first appear in diploid zygotes (fertilization products)

b)

One is paternally inherited and one is maternally inherited

c)

They contain the same types of DNA sequences, including genes

d)

They are produced due to S phase of the cell cycle and therefore contain identical DNA

e)

Humans typically have 23 homologous chromosome pairs

64.

What two events of meiosis explain why gametes are genetically unique?

a)

Crossover and random segregation

b)

Independent assortment and fertilization

c)

Fertilization and homologous recombination

d)

Crossover and regulation of gene expression

e)

Mitosis and cytokinesis

65.

The two cells produced in Meiosis I (the first division of meiosis) are _

a)

Haploid (1n)

b)

Diploid (2n)

66.

As is the case with mitosis, chromosomes line up in the center of cells during _ of meiosis

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

67.

Crossover/homologous recombination occurs during _ of meiosis. Recombined sister chromatids are separated by microtubules during _

a)

Prophase I, Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase I, Anaphase I

c)

Prophase I, Anaphase II

d)

Metaphase I, Anaphase I

68.

Alleles are variants/versions/types of a _ (one inherited from each parent)

a)

Homologous chromosome

b)

Gene

c)

Phenotype

d)

Sister chromatid

69.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a genotype?

a)

Homozygous dominant (AA)

b)

Heterozygous (Aa)

c)

Homozygous recessive (aa)

d)

Purple flowered

70.

Which of the following explains the difference between dominant and recessive alleles?

a)

Dominant alleles are inherited on chromosomes whereas recessive alleles are inherited on plasmids

b)

Dominant alleles in genotypes are expressed whereas recessive alleles in genotypes are never expressed

c)

Dominant alleles are expressed in the phenotype if present (AA or Aa) whereas recessive alleles are only expressed in the phenotype if 2 are present (aa)

d)

Dominant alleles are a component of genotypes whereas recessive alleles are components of phenotypes

71.

What is the focus of polygenic inheritance?

a)

Traits determined by many allele pairs (genotypes) and their observed manifestations (phenotypes)

b)

Traits determined by alleles located on maternally inherited mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA

c)

Traits determined by inherited factors that influence the regulation of expression of genotypes

d)

Traits determined by genes where 3+ alleles exist

72.

Sex-linked inheritance non-Mendelian because sex chromosomes can be _; organisms can have hemizygous genotypes where the phenotype is determined by _

a)

Non-homologous, a single allele

b)

Non-homologous, a pair of alleles

c)

Homologous, a single allele

d)

Homologous, a pair of alleles

73.

Due to _ during prophase I of meiosis I is unlikely for alleles located _ to be separated, making it more likely that these linked alleles will be present in a produced gamete (gene linkage)

a)

Crossover, close together on the same chromosome

b)

Independent assortment, close together on the same chromosome

c)

Crossover, on different chromosomes

d)

Independent assortment, on different chromosomes

74.

Evolution can be defined changes in the DNA and phenotypes of _ over time

a)

Populations

b)

Individual organisms

c)

Ecosystems

d)

Communities

75.

Which of the following statements regarding evolutionary fitness is FALSE?

a)

It is, in part, determined by the environmental context

b)

It exclusively involves the relative ability to survive

c)

It has a significant impact on natural selection

d)

It can be altered due to DNA or chromosomal mutations

76.

What processes that are exclusive to sexually reproducing species increase genetic diversity/variation?

a)

Meiosis and fertilization

b)

Transduction and transposition

c)

Transformation and conjugation

d)

Viral transduction and signal transduction

77.

What is the only mechanism of evolution that always results in the adaptation of populations?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Mutations

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Gene flow

78.

Which of the following explains the adaptation of populations in natural selection?

a)

High fitness variants pass their DNA on to future generations more frequently than low fitness variants

b)

Populations choose to evolve in ways that benefit survival and/or reproduction

c)

Selective pressures and the environment create variation that serves to influence reproductive success

d)

Phenotypic shifts occur when there is little to no competition for resources

79.

What is convergent evolution?

a)

Similar selective pressures result in similar adaptations in different populations or species

b)

Different selective pressures result in different adaptations within a population or species

c)

Evolution that occurs slowly over hundreds of thousands or millions of years

d)

Evolution that occurs rapidly after long periods of stasis (stability)

80.

Genetic drift only has a significant impact on _ populations and occurs due to _ reproductive success

a)

Small, random

b)

Small, fitness-driven

c)

Large, random

d)

Large, fitness-driven

81.

—_ barriers are mechanisms that impede mating or fertilization between species

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Prezygotic

d)

Postzygotic

82.

What are homologous structures?

a)

Anatomical features with shared evolutionary origins that can develop new functions over time

b)

Anatomical features that have the same functionality, but not the same evolutionary origin

c)

Anatomical features in organisms that have lost function over evolutionary history

83.

The hydrolysis of _ powers cellular work and metabolic processes

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

Pi

d)

cAMP

84.

What process allows for the synthesis of ATP from organic molecules and O2?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Chemosynthesis

d)

Heterotrophy

85.

What process allows for the synthesis of organic molecules from light energy, CO2, and H2O?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Chemosynthesis

d)

Heterotrophy

86.

Where does cellular respiration occur in eukaryotic cells (animals, plants, and fungi)?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Nuclei

87.

Where does photosynthesis occur in plant and algal cells?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Nuclei

88.

What processes allow for the synthesis of ATP in cellular respiration AND photosynthesis?

a)

The electron transport chain and chemiosmosis

b)

Chemiosmosis and glycolysis

c)

Glycolysis and the Krebs Cycle

d)

The Krebs Cycle and the Calvin Cycle

89.

Which process involving NADH, FADH2, O2, and hydrogen ions (H+) accounts for the majority of ATP synthesized during cellular respiration?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Pyruvate Oxidation

c)

The Krebs Cycle

d)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

90.

Which of the following is NOT an input of the Calvin Cycle?

a)

H2O

b)

NADPH

c)

CO2

d)

ATP