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Medical, Environmental, and Food Microbiology

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

used to measure the effectiveness of antibiotics and other chemotherapeutic agents on pathogenic microorganisms.

a)

Ames test

b)

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Test

(Kirby-Bauer Method and E Test)

c)

Pyrole test

d)

Quinidine test

2.

Kirby-Bauer test,

a)

Disk diffusion test

b)

standard tool for measuring the effectiveness of antimicrobics

against pathogenic microorganisms.

c)

antimicrobic-impregnated paper disks are placed on a plate that is inoculated to form

a bacterial lawn.

d)

As the drug moves through the agar, it establishes a concentration gradient.

e)

If the organism is susceptible to it, a clear zone will appear around the disk where growth has been inhibited

3.

This depends upon the sensitivity of the bacteria to the

specific antimicrobial agent and the point at which the chemical’s minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is reached.

a)

zone of inhibition

b)

minimum inhibitory

concentration (MIC)

4.

Some drugs kill the organism and are said to be bactericidal. Other drugs are bacteriostatic; they stop growth but don’t kill the microbe.

a)

Both statements are correct

b)

Only one statement is correct

c)

Neither of the statements is correct.

5.

Mueller-Hinton agar has a pH between 7.2 and 7.4. It is poured to a depth of 4 mm in either 150 mm or 100 mm Petri dishes. The depth is not important because of its effect upon diffusion. Inoculation is made with a

broth culture diluted to match a 0.5 McFarland turbidity

standard

a)

The first statement is incorrect

b)

The second statement is incorrect.

c)

All of them are incorrect

d)

The third statement is correct

e)

Only one statement is incorrect

6.

Thick agar on used Muller Hinton test hasten lateral diffusion and thus produces smaller zones than plates held to the 4 mm standard.

a)

The statement is correct

b)

The statement is incorrect

7.

The disks, which contain a specified amount of the

antimicrobial agent (printed on the disk) are dispensed

onto the inoculated plate and incubated at 35 +/-2°C . After 16 to 18 hours of incubation, the plates are

re-incubated and the clear zone diameters are measured.

a)

The first statement is incorrect

b)

Neither of the statement is correct

c)

The second statement is correct

d)

Only one statement is correct

8.

Normally, the zones around each antibiotic disk will be

distinct and separate. Occasionally a synergistic effect of

two antibiotics will produce a clear area between the disks

extending beyond the perimeters of the otherwise circular zones. In this area between the zones both

antibiotics are below MIC, but bactericidal in combination

with each other.

a)

The first statement is the only correct answer

b)

Two of the statements given are incorrect

c)

No statement is correct

d)

all the three statements are correct

9.

The E-test system for determining antibiotic sensitivity is an alternative to the Kirby-Bauer

method and has the added advantage of allowing the MIC

to be determined.

a)

The statement is correct

b)

The statement is incorrect.

10.

It consists of a paper strip with a gradient of antibiotic concentrations on one surface and a printed scale on the other. After an agar plate is inoculated with a lawn of bacteria (as in the Kirby-Bauer method), the strip

is placed, antibiotic side down, on the agar surface.

a)

Ames test

b)

E-test

c)

M-figure Myco test

d)

Antibiotic resistance 0211 test

11.

During incubation in the E-test, the antibiotic will diffuse into the agar

a)

higher concentrations travels farther than lower concentrations

b)

an elliptical zone of inhibition will develop.

c)

The point at which the inhibition zone intersects the scale is the MIC, printed on the strip

d)

All of the choices are correct

e)

One statement is incorrect

12.

ANTIBIOTIC SYNERGISM seen in Kirby Bauer Test

a)

antibiotics Sulfisoxazole (G) and

Trimethoprim (TMP) have overlapping clearing area

b)

antibiotics Sulfisoxazole (G) inhibits the effect of

Trimethoprim (TMP) causing absence of zone of inhibition

c)

antibiotics Sulfisoxazole (G) and

Trimethoprim (TMP) forms two parallel line

13.

is a procedure in which susceptibility to a particular antibiotic can be quantified as a Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC).

a)

E-test

b)

AST test

c)

Ames test

d)

EP 21 test

14.

In E-test, MIC is determined by:

a)

where the zone of inhibition intersects the scale

printed on the strip.

b)

where the zone of inhibition wash out the scale

printed on the strip.

c)

where the zone of inhibition forms parallel line with the scale

printed on the strip.

15.

Effect of antibiotic vancomycin in E-test

a)

zone formed when incubated with Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

b)

zone formed when incubated with E.coli

16.

Sample collection and transport are the first steps in identifying pathogens from patients, and their importance cannot be overstated. Improper collection and transport can make microbial identification by the laboratory more difficult assuming that the sample is even usable.

a)

The first statement is correct

b)

The first and second statement are incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Neither of the statements is correct

17.

First and foremost, collection of patient specimens for

laboratory diagnosis requires that the site sampled has an active infection. Collection of patient specimens may involve tissue removal, collection of sputum, urine or feces, fluid aspiration, venipuncture, or a surface swab.

a)

The first statement is incorrect

b)

Both statements are correct

c)

Neither of them is correct

d)

The second statement is incorrect

18.

The method of choice in specimen collection .

a)

is dictated by the body region and suspected pathogen,

b)

regardless of the patient’s normal flora, environmental

surroundings, sample taker must not contaminate the

sample.

c)

the appropriate sampling instrument and

transport medium must be used

d)

Proper training of medical staff in sample collection and transport is imperative, because the laboratory can do little when the sample is contaminated or is not transported properly.

19.

Samples are frequently obtained with : Swabs

come in a variety of types—

a)

wooden swab ,

b)

plastic swab

c)

metal shafts and cotton swab

d)

Dacron swab

e)

swab calcium alginate tips

20.

Plastic swabs are used most often because wooden swabs

may harbor toxins that interfere with microbial growth.

a)

The statement is correct

b)

The statement is incorrect

c)

We don't use swab, we use our fingers

d)

We don't use swab, we lick the area to get a sample

21.

Wooden swabs are used most often because plastic swabs

may harbor toxins that interfere with microbial growth.

a)

The statement is correct

b)

The statement is incorrect

c)

We don't use swab to collect, we use our fingers

d)

We don't use swab to collect, we lick the area to get a sample

22.

Flexible wire swabs are recommended for nasopharyngeal and male urethral samples.

a)

The statement is correct

b)

The statement is incorrect

c)

We don't use swab, we lick the area to get a sample

d)

We don't use swab, we use our fingers to get a sample

23.

Cotton tips are useful in collecting non-fastidious organisms but may contain chemicals that are inhibitory to fastidious ones.

a)

correct

b)

incorrect

c)

non-micro topic

d)

Only God knows the answer

24.

Cotton tips are useful in collecting fastidious but may contain chemicals that are inhibitory to non-fastidious organisms

a)

incorrect

b)

correct

c)

My cat knows the answer

d)

Brain dead

25.

Dacron tips have the widest application and may even be used for collecting viral samples.

a)

correct

b)

incorrect

c)

pass

d)

maybe

26.

Dacron tips cannot be used for collecting viral samples.

a)

correct

b)

incorrect

c)

no need for swab, lick it

27.

Calcium alginate-tipped swabs are best used to sample for Chlamydia.

a)

correct

b)

incorrect

c)

maybe

d)

I've lost my hope

28.

Calcium alginate-tipped swabs are should not be used to sample for Chlamydia.

a)

incorrect

b)

correct

c)

My dog knows the answer

d)

Maybe you can help me

29.

Flow for specimen collection


the sample must be labeled with all relevant information:

a)

patient name

b)

sample site

c)

date and time of collection

d)

collector’s initials.

e)

ID number

30.

Which is correct regarding specimen collection and transport

a)

The faster the sample gets to the laboratory for processing, the better.

b)

Bacterial samples should be transported within 2 hours, if possible;

c)

the sample probably will be useless after 24 hours.

d)

once in the laboratory, the sample should be processed in a timely fashion.

e)

refrigeration is acceptable for a given amount of time before processing.

31.

Examples of transport media

a)

Amies

b)

Stuart’s

c)

Cary-Blair

d)

only one is incorrect

e)

All are correct

32.

What is true about Amies' transport media

a)

a medium with a variety of chloride salts to maintain osmotic pressure.

b)

Phosphate buffers maintain the pH

c)

thioglycollate produces a reduced environment to minimize oxidative damage to the cells.

d)

Some formulations contain charcoal to neutralize fatty acids and bacterial toxins.

e)

This medium is designed to maintain the bacteria, not provide for their growth.

33.

Amies has carbon source and nitrogen source to provide optimum growth for the bacteria

a)

correct

b)

incorrect

c)

pass

d)

I am too tired to analyze

34.

swab transport media that contains a plastic shaft with a polyurethane tip.

a)

tube with the maroon cap

b)

tube with the yellow cap

c)

tube with the green cap

35.

polyurethane tip is nontoxic to microorganisms, no transport medium is necessary.

a)

correct

b)

incorrect

c)

go to the next question

d)

eye doe knot noe

36.

The red cap double swab has a rayon tip.

a)

correct

b)

incorrect

c)

maybe

d)

PRC knows it

37.

The tube to the left contains Stuart’s Liquid Transport medium, a nonnutritious, buffered medium that keeps the sample moist.

a)

true

b)

false

c)

maybe

d)

pass

38.

The tube to the left contains Stuart’s Liquid Transport medium, a nutritious, buffered medium that keeps the sample moist.

a)

true

b)

false

39.

The tube to the left contains Stuart’s Liquid Transport medium, a nonnutritious, buffered medium that keeps the sample dry.

a)

true

b)

false

40.

The orange-capped swab has a regular aluminum wire

with a Dacron tip.

a)

True

b)

false

41.

The orange-capped swab has a regular chromium wire

with a Dacron tip.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

42.

The orange-capped swab has a regular aluminum wire

with a Ronielle tip.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

asa

43.

The green-capped swab has a soft aluminum wire

with a Dacron tip.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

maybe

44.

The green-capped swab has a hard aluminum wire

with a Dacron tip.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

45.

Most transport media support the growth of aerobic bacteria

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

maybe

46.

Most transport tubes are for transport of aerobic organisms.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

47.

Transport of anaerobes requires a special container that

produces anaerobic conditions inside when the swab is inserted. A color indicator is used as a control to assure that the inside is anaerobic

a)

Both are correct

b)

Neither is correct

c)

only one is correct

48.

TRANSPORT SYSTEM FOR ANAEROBES

a)

The sample is taken and inserted into the tube, where it breaks open a vial that produces anaerobic conditions.

b)

A color indicator turns pink if oxygen is present, making the sample useless.

c)

Both are correct

d)

Neither is correct

49.

The RODACTM Plate

a)

Environmental Sampling:

b)

Forensic Sampling:

c)

Water sampling

d)

Aeronautic sampling

50.

RODACTM

a)

(Replicate Organism Detection and Count-

ing) plate

b)

(Replicate Organization Detection and Count-

ing) plate

c)

(Reptile Organism Detection and Count-

ing) plate

d)

(Replicate Organ Detection and Count-

ing) plate

51.

used to monitor contamination of surfaces in food preparation, veterinary, pharmaceutical, and medical

settings.

a)

The RODACTM Plate

b)

The RODAK TM Plate

c)

The RODACGLOBE Plate

d)

The RODAXTM Plate

52.

can be used to assess the efficiency of decontamination of a surface by taking a sample with different plates before and after decontamination.

a)

RODACTM Plate

b)

RODATM Plate

c)

RADACTM Plate

d)

RIDACTM Plate

53.

RODACTM Plate Principle

a)

the medium is poured to produce a convex surface extending above the edge of the plate allowing support of the lid above the agar without touching it.

b)

the sterile plate may be opened and pressed on a

surface to be sampled.

c)

Most are 65 mm in diameter, which

is smaller than standard-sized 100 mm Petri dishes.

d)

The smaller size makes it easier to apply uniform pressure across the entire plate when taking the sample.

e)

the base is marked in sixteen 1 cm squares, allowing an estimate of cell density on the surface

54.

Role of Polysorbate 80 and Lecithin in RODACTM Plate

a)

counteract the effect of residual disinfectant.

b)

counteract the effect of microbial toxin.

c)

counteract the effect of infection.

55.

AGAR plate used in RODACTM Plate

a)

TrypticaseTM Soy Agar-- general media

b)

5% sheep blood agar-- fastidious organisms

c)

Sabouraud Dextrose Agar--monitoring yeast and mold contamination.

d)

Sabouraud Dextrose Agar- Neisseria and Mycoplasma

56.

The acceptable amount of growth on a RODACTM

plate is determined by the surface being sampled. It stands to reason that a surgical area would have a lower limit of acceptability than a food preparation area.

a)

Both are correct

b)

Neither is correct

c)

only one is correct

57.

the agar extends above the edges of the plate to allow contact with the surface to be sampled.

a)

RODACTM PLATE

b)

RODACTM PLATUE

c)

RODACTM PLANT

58.

Describe theTHE RODACTM PLATE

a)

RODACTM plates are 65 mm in diameter.

b)

A grid of 16 squares is molded into the base,

each with an area of 1 cm2.

c)

Colonies growing in the grid can be counted

and an average number of CFU per cm2 of surface can be determined.

59.

Interpretation of RODACTM Plate Colony Counts


"Good"

a)
b)
c)
60.

Colilert®* Method

a)

Water test

b)

Environmental test

c)

Aeronautic testing

d)

Forensic testing

61.

Generally used to detect E. coli

a)

Alert®* Method

b)

Mentilert®* Method

c)

Colilert®* Method

d)

Robert®* Method

62.

Colilert®* Method

a)

reagent contains nutrients and salts which favor the

growth of coliforms and inhibit the growth of noncoliforms.

b)

contains the indicator nutrients, o-Nitrophenyl--D-

Galactopyranoside (ONPG) and 4-Methylumbelliferyl--D-Glucuronide (MUG).

c)

The test is conducted by adding

Colilert® reagent to a nonfluorescing bottle containing a

100 mL sample of drinking water.

d)

The sample is incubated

at 35°C for 24–28 hours and then compared to the control.

63.

All coliforms ferment lactose using the enzyme-galactosidase. ONPG is an artificial substrate of the

same enzyme and, when hydrolyzed, produces the yellow

compound o-Nitrophenol.

a)

Both are correct

b)

Neither is correct

c)

only one is correct

64.

Interpretation of Colilert®* Method

a)

If the test bottle is as yellow or more yellow than the control, the first portion of the test is positive and reported as “total coliforms present.”

b)

Yellow color means presence of E.coli

c)

Both are correct

d)

Only one is correct

65.

True about water testing

a)

MUG acts as a substrate for the E. coli enzyme

-glucuronidase, from which a fluorescent compound is

produced.

b)

A positive MUG result produces fluorescence when viewed under an ultraviolet lamp .

c)

If the test bottle fluorescence is equal to or greater than that of the control, the presence of E. coli has been confirmed.

d)

This portion of the test is reported as “E. coli present.”

e)

A sample that is not as yellow and does not fluoresce is considered negative and is reported as “total coliforms absent” and “E. coli absent.”

66.

Colilert ONPG

a)

has (o-Nitrophenyl-D-Galactopyranoside) test for total coliforms.

b)

(4-Methylumbelliferyl--D-Glucuronide) test for Escherichia coli seen under a UV Lamp.

67.

COLILERT® MUG

a)

has (4-Methylumbelliferyl--D-Glucuronide) test for Escherichia coli seen under a UV Lamp.

b)

(o-Nitrophenyl-D-Galactopyranoside) test for total coliforms.

68.

Describe Membrane Filter Technique

a)

used to identify the presence of fecal coliforms in water. ex: Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Enterobacter aerogenes,

b)

a water sample is

drawn through a special porous membrane designed to

trap microorganisms larger than 0.45 μm.

c)

After filtering the water sample, the membrane (filter) is applied to the surface of plated Endo Agar and incubated for 24 hours

69.

Endo Agar is a selective medium use in Membrane filter that encourages Gram-

negative bacterial growth and inhibits Gram-positive

growth. Endo Agar contains lactose for fermentation and a dye to indicate changes in pH.

a)

Both are correct

b)

Neither of them is correct

c)

only one is correct

70.

In Membrane filter technique, Because of their vigorous lactose fermentation resulting in acid and aldehyde formation, coliform colonies typically appear red and/or mucoid with a gold or green metallic sheen. Noncoliform bacteria (including several dangerous pathogens) tend to be pale pink, colorless, or the color of the medium.

a)

only one is correct

b)

Both are correct

c)

Neither of them is correct

71.

Membrane Filter technique is interpreted as

a)

“coliform colonies/100 mL”

b)

“coliform colonies/100 uL”

c)

“coliform colonies/100 dL”

d)

“coliform colonies/100 L”

72.

Calculate:

Coliform counted: 100

Volume of original sample: 10mL

4 lines
73.

Potable water contains less than one(1) coliform per 100 milliliters of sample.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

pass

d)

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